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Version: 7.0
Question: 1
Which of the following best describes a cloud carrier?
A. A person or entity responsible for making a cloud service available to consumers
B. The intermediary who provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers
and cloud consumers
C. The person or entity responsible for keeping cloud services running for customers
D. The person or entity responsible for transporting data across the Internet
Answer: B
Question: 2
Which security certification serves as a general framework that can be applied to any type of system or
application?
A. ISO/IEC 27001
B. PCI DSS
C. FIPS 140-2
D. NIST SP 800-53
Answer: A
Question: 3
At which phase of the SDLC process should security begin participating?
A. Requirements gathering
B. Requirements analysis
C. Design
D. Testing
Answer: A
Question: 4
Which of the following is the correct name for Tier II of the Uptime Institute Data Center Site
Infrastructure Tier Standard Topology?
A. Concurrently Maintainable Site Infrastructure
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B. Fault-Tolerant Site Infrastructure
C. Basic Site Infrastructure
D. Redundant Site Infrastructure Capacity Components
Answer: D
Question: 5
You have been tasked with creating an audit scope statement and are making your project outline. Which
of the following is NOT typically included in an audit scope statement?
A. Statement of purpose
B. Deliverables
C. Classification
D. Costs
Answer: D
Question: 6
Different types of cloud deployment models use different types of storage from traditional data centers,
along with many new types of software platforms for deploying applications and configurations. Which
of the following is NOT a storage type used within a cloud environment?
A. Docker
B. Object
C. Structured
D. Volume
Answer: A
Question: 7
Who is ultimately responsible for a data breach that includes personally identifiable information (PII), in
the event of negligence on the part of the cloud provider?
A. The user
B. The subject
C. The cloud provider
D. The cloud customer
Answer: D
Question: 8
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Which of the following is not a reason for conducting audits?
A. Regulatory compliance
B. User satisfaction
C. Determination of service quality
D. Security assurance
Answer: B
Question: 9
Under EU law, a cloud customer who gives sensitive data to a cloud provider is still legally responsible for
the damages resulting from a data breach caused by the provider; the EU would say that it is the cloud
customer’s fault for choosing the wrong provider.
This is an example of insufficient ____________.
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Due diligence
D. Application of reasonableness
Answer: C
Question: 10
Which ISO standard refers to addressing security risks in a supply chain?
A. ISO 27001
B. ISO/IEC 28000:2007
C. ISO 18799
D. ISO 31000:2009
Answer: B
Question: 11
When an organization implements an SIEM solution and begins aggregating event data, the configured
event sources are only valid at the time it was configured. Application modifications, patching, and other
upgrades will change the events generated and how they are represented over time.
What process is necessary to ensure events are collected and processed with this in mind?
A. Continual review
B. Continuous optimization
C. Aggregation updates
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D. Event elasticity
Answer: B
Question: 12
Which of the following are contractual components that the CSP should review and understand fully
when
contracting
with
a
cloud
service
provider?
(Choose two.)
A. Concurrently maintainable site infrastructure
B. Use of subcontractors
C. Redundant site infrastructure capacity components
D. Scope of processing
Answer: B, D
Question: 13
TLS uses ___________ to authenticate a connection and create a shared secret for the duration of the
session.
A. SAML 2.0
B. X.509 certificates
C. 802.11X
D. The Diffie-Hellman process
Answer: B
Question: 14
Why are PaaS environments at a higher likelihood of suffering backdoor vulnerabilities?
A. They rely on virtualization.
B. They are often used for software development.
C. They have multitenancy.
D. They are scalable.
Answer: B
Question: 15
Impact resulting from risk being realized is often measured in terms of ____________.
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A. Amount of data lost
B. Money
C. Amount of property lost
D. Number of people affected
Answer: B
Question: 16
Which of the following is a possible negative aspect of bit-splitting?
A. Greater chance of physical theft of assets
B. Loss of public image
C. Some risk to availability, depending on the implementation
D. A small fire hazard
Answer: C
Question: 17
What is the amount of fuel that should be on hand to power generators for backup datacenter power, in
all tiers, according to the Uptime Institute?
A. 1
B. 1,000 gallons
C. 12 hours
D. As much as needed to ensure all systems may be gracefully shut down and data securely stored
Answer: C
Question: 18
DRM solutions should generally include all the following functions, except:
A. Persistency
B. Automatic self-destruct
C. Automatic expiration
D. Dynamic policy control
Answer: B
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