Fundamentals and Abnormal Amniocentesis

MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY PRACTICE QUESTIONS
FUNDAMENTALS & ABNORMAL AMNIOCENTESIS MODULES
PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE
DIRECTIONS: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements is followed
by answers or by completions of the statement. Select the ONE lettered answer
or completion that is BEST in each case.
1.
Which of the following is true about serous cells:
A. They can form crescent-shaped groups of cells called demilunes that
are associated with mucous secretory units
B. Their nucleus is usually flat and compressed against the basal
plasma membrane
C. They produce a highly viscous secretion that is rich in glycosylated
proteins
D. They tend to form secretory units that are tubular in shape rather
than spherical
E. Their apical cytoplasm is usually paler than that of mucous cells
2.
Uncoupling protein-1 (UCP-1) is found:
A. Only in cells undergoing apoptosis
B. Only in cells undergoing necrosis
C. In normal brown adipose tissue
D. In normal white adipose tissue
E. In the cells of striated ducts
3.
Which of the following statements concerning fibroblasts is true:
A. They are transient cells that leave blood vessels, enter the
connective tissue, and then leave to re-enter the vasculature
B. They have a “clock face” arrangement of heterochromatin in their
nucleus
C. They store their secretory products in cytoplasmic vacuoles and
release them by regulated exocytosis in response to hormonal stimuli
D. They synthesize proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
4.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized form of:
A. Actin filament network found in skeletal and cardiac muscle
B. Golgi cisternae
C. Reticular connective tissue
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
5.
A cell whose abundant mitochondria have tubular cristae is most likely also
to have which of the following:
A. A heterochromatic nucleus, because the cell is undergoing apoptosis
B. Extensive RER, because the cell’s main function is protein secretion
C. Extensive SER, because the cell’s main function is steroid synthesis
D. Many lysosomes because the cell is highly phagocytic
E. Microvilli or basal infoldings that increase the plasma membrane
surface area, because the cell’s main function involves active transport
6.
Which of the following is an encapsulated receptor that responds to deep
pressure or vibration, and resembles an onion when sectioned:
A. Birbeck granule
B. Meissner’s corpuscle
C. Multivesicular body
D. Pacinian corpuscle
E. Syncytial knot
7.
Patients with Marfan’s syndrome sometimes die because an aortic
aneurysm ruptures. The weakness in the aortic wall results from a defect in:
A. Collagen type III
B. Collagen type IV
C. Fibrillin
D. Laminin
E. Proteoglycans
8.
Which of the following is the major constituent of the fibrous stroma in soft
organs such as the spleen:
A. Elastin and fibrillin
B. Proteoglycans
C. Type I collagen
D. Type II Collagen
E. Type III collagen
9.
Which of the following features is found in a primary placental villus but not
in a tertiary villus:
A. Blood vessels
B. Cytotrophoblast cells filling the central core of the villus
C. Hofbauer cells
D. Mesoderm filling the central core of the villus
E. An outer covering of syncytiotrophoblast
10. Which of the following statements concerning keratinization is correct:
A. Keratohyalin granules are synthesized on free polysomes
B. The proteins of keratohyalin granules become associated with actin
filaments
C. Keratinization is complete when keratohyalin granules mature into
melanosomes
D. Keratin tonofilaments are produced in lamellar bodies
E. The contents of keratohyalin granules are released by exocytosis in
the stratum lucidum or stratum corneum
11. A zonula adherens is normally located between a __________ and a
___________ in a junctional complex:
A. Desmosome ………. tight junction
B. Focal adhesion ………. macula adherens
C. Gap junction ………. desmosome
D. Gap junction ………. focal adhesion
E. Tight junction ………. focal adhesion
Use the diagram below to answer question #12:
12. The “X” in this figure points to the nuclei of two cells. What type of cell are they?
A. Brown adipocytes
B. Endothelial cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Immature white adipocytes
E. Mature white adipocytes
13. The minus end of a/an __________ is associated with the centrosome:
A. Actin filament
B. Keratin filament
C. Microtubule
D. Myosin filament
E. Vimentin filament
14. Which isoform(s) of tubulin is/are found only at the microtubule organizing
center (MTOC) and is/are required for nucleation of microtubules:
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Both alpha and beta
E. Both beta and gamma
15. Which of the following is an example of a unicellular gland:
A. Fibroblast
B. Goblet cell
C. Monocyte
D. Myoepithelial cell
E. Parotid gland
16. In the core of tertiary placental villi, the cells that have features
characteristic of macrophages are the:
A. Cytotrophoblast cells
B. Decidual cells
C. Hofbauer cells
D. Mesenchymal cells
E. Syncytiotrophoblast
Use the diagram below to answer question #17:
17. In the diagram above, the structures labeled “2” represent:
A. Lipid droplets in the production of milk
B. Protein component in the production of milk
C. Salivary enzymes secreted by the parotid gland
D. Sebum secreted by a sebaceous gland
18. What is special about type IV collagen, differentiating it from other types:
A. Cleavage of the propeptides from the collagen molecules
(tropocollagen) allows them to aggregate into fibrils
B. Collagen IV forms long thick fibrils that lack a visible banding pattern
by electron microscopy (EM)
C. Collagen IV molecules are composed of 4 alpha chains rather than 3
D. It is the main component of the lamina densa of the basal lamina
E. It stains black with silver stains
19. The proximal and distal tubules of the kidney are examples of what type of
epithelium:
A. Simple cuboidal
B. Simple squamous
C. Stratified columnar
D. Stratified cuboidal
E. Transitional
20. In histological sections, decidual cells are features that are most closely
associated with the:
A. Decidua parietalis
B. Fetal side of the placenta
C. Maternal side of the placenta
D. Umbilical cord
21. Kartagener’s syndrome is characterized by:
A. A combination of situs inversus (reversal of normal right/left body
asymmetry) and immotile cilia
B. Abnormal cell division due to disruption of the contractile ring
involved in cytokinesis
C. Blistering of the skin due to disruption of desmosomes
D. Deformed red blood cells due to abnormal spectrin
E. Loss of hearing due to disruption of stereocilia
22. Biopsy slides from a patient with malignant melanoma showed that almost
all of the melanoma cells had a large nucleus containing multiple nucleoli.
This finding suggests that these cells were:
A. Undergoing necrosis
B. Highly active in phagocytosis
C. Producing large amounts of steroids
D. Producing large amounts of protein
E. Unable to divide
23. Loose connective tissue:
A. Contains some collagen fibers, but no reticular fibers or elastic fibers
B. Forms the capsules of most organs
C. Forms the ligaments of the joints
D. Characteristically lacks capillaries
E. Usually contains a greater variety of cell types than is found in dense
connective tissue
Use the diagram below to answer question #24:
24. With regard to the cell in the diagram above, which of the following
statements is true:
A. The "cartwheel" appearance of the chromatin suggests that the cell is
in the anaphase stage of mitosis
B. The extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum suggests that the cell is
producing large amounts of protein for secretion
C. This cell demonstrates the shape and ultrastructure that are typical of
cells in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis
D. The structures labeled “3” are nuclear pores
25. Large amounts of RER cause the cytoplasm of a cell to stain __________
with H&E because of the net negative charge on__________.
A. Acidophilic .......... proteins being synthesized on the RER
B. Acidophilic .......... RNA in ribosomes associated with the RER
membrane
C. Basophilic …....... proteins being synthesized on the RER
D. Basophilic …....... RNA in ribosomes associated with the RER
membrane
Use the diagram below to answer question #26:
26. The “X” in the diagram above indicates the __________ lens, whose main
function is to __________.
A. condenser……….magnify the specimen
B. condenser……….focus light on the specimen
C. objective………. magnify the specimen
D. objective………. focus light on the specimen
E. ocular………. magnify the specimen
F. ocular………. focus light on the specimen
27. Which term refers uniquely to the cell layer that lines the lumen of a blood
vessel:
A. Endoderm
B. Endothelium
C. Epidermis
D. Mesenchyme
E. Mesothelium
28. Which of the following is a maximally keratinized squamous stratified
epithelium:
A. Cervical epithelium
B. Epidermis
C. Vaginal epithelium
D. Esophageal epithelium
E. Sebaceous glands
29. In enzyme histochemistry, the marker enzyme most commonly used to
identify human lysosomes is:
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Catalase
D. Horseradish peroxidase
E. Succinic dehydrogenase
30. The inner mitochondrial membrane is highly enriched in __________, and
also contains enzymes that __________.
A. cholesterol …….mediate fatty acid oxidation
B. porin…….initiate apoptosis
C. cardiolipin…….synthesize ATP
D. TOM complex…..metabolize acetyl CoA via the citric acid cycle
31. Proteins that are part of the subunits of cytoplasmic ribosomes are
synthesized:
A. In the mitochondrial matrix
B. In the nucleolus
C. In the nucleoplasm surrounding the nucleolus
D. On free polysomes in the cytoplasm
E. On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
32. Within a cell, the mitochondria:
A. Cannot move long distances in the cell because they are tethered to
actin filaments
B. Move along microtubules with the aid of motor proteins
C. Move toward the cell periphery along microtubules, and toward the
nucleus along actin filaments
D. Move around in the cell without ever interacting with cytoskeletal
components
33. The stratum granulosum of thick skin is distinguished from other layers of
epidermis by which of the following:
A. In H&E stained sections it is the darkest staining layer of the
epidermis
B. It contains the majority of Langerhans cells
C. It contains the majority of mitotically active cells
D. It is composed of cells that have lost their nucleus and most of their
cytoplasmic organelles
E. It is the thickest of the epidermal layers
F. Merkel cells are located in this layer
34. The surface of the chorionic plate of the placenta that is closest to the fetus
is characterized by:
A. A simple epithelium derived from the amnion
B. A layer of cytotrophoblast cells that directly lines the free surface
C. A layer of syncytiotrophoblast cells that directly lines the free surface
D. All the above
35. Which of the following structures is located nearest to the basement
membrane of an epithelium and is functionally related to it:
A. Brush border
B. Desmosome
C. Hemidesmosome
D. Stereocilia
E. Terminal bar
36. Suppose that an investigator carries out an enzyme histochemistry reaction
and then views the results by electron microscopy. Which of the following
statements is true about the trapping agent involved in such reactions:
A. Its function is to precipitate one of the reaction products at or near the
site of enzyme activity
B. It is an antibody that is specific for the enzyme that is being localized
C. It is an enzyme that can demonstrate the location of a substrate
within a cell
D. It must combine with a product of the enzyme reaction in order to
form a colored precipitate
37. Within the secretory cell of the mammary gland cell, the lipid droplet
component of milk is located:
A. Free in the cytosol
B. In the Golgi cisternae
C. In lysosomes
D. In mitochondria
E. In secretory vacuoles
F. Choices B & E are both correct
38. Which of the following conditions that is common in children, young adults,
and immunosuppressed patients involves an epidermal growth caused by a
papilloma virus infection:
A. Acne
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Psoriasis
E. Warts
39. Suppose you observe a duct that is lined by a simple columnar epithelium.
The duct cells have eosinophilic stripes in their basal cytoplasm, and the
nucleus is located near the center of their columnar height. Based on these
observations, which of the following conclusions can you justifiably make:
A. The duct is likely to be modifying the ionic concentration of the
secretory material that passes through it
B. The duct cells have a high requirement for ATP
C. The stripes are due to the presence of numerous lysosomes, and the
duct cells are therefore likely to be highly phagocytic
D. The stripes are due to the presence of many large secretory vacuoles
whose contents are being secreted in a regulated fashion across the
basal plasma membrane
E. Both choices A & B
F. Both choices B & D
40. Which of the following is true of scanning electron microscopy:
A. During tissue preparation the surface of the specimen is coated with
heavy metals
B. Specimens are embedded in plastic and sectioned on a microtome
C. The resolution is better than that of a transmission electron
microscope
D. A scanning electron microscope produces full-color images, while
those from a transmission electron microscope are in black and white
41. Localized release of _______________ from mast cells results in dilation
and increased permeability of small blood vessels:
A. Heparin
B. Histamine
C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Laminin
42. The term “metaplasia” refers to:
A. The conversion of ectoderm into mesoderm
B. The spread of malignant cells from the site of a primary tumor to a
distant site
C. The conversion of any normal type of epithelium into another normal
type
D. The conversion of any normal type of epithelium into an abnormal
(pathological) type
E. The staining property often exhibited by the cytoplasmic granules of
mast cells
43. Which cell in connective tissues has an extremely basophilic cytoplasm
because it is actively synthesizing large quantities of antibody:
A. Histiocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Plasma cell
E. Mast cell
44. A ligament biopsy taken soon after an ankle sprain showed an unusually
large number of elongated, spindle-shaped cells with highly basophilic
cytoplasm. They were scattered individually among the collagen bundles.
Their cytoplasm did not contain any large vacuoles. Immunocytochemistry
for actin showed only faint reactivity. What were those cells?
A. Histiocytes
B. Mast cells
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. Active fibroblasts
45. By definition, which type of gland releases its product into a duct or directly
onto the surface of the epithelium?
A. Endocrine
B. Exocrine
C. Paracrine
D. Merocrine
46. The mammary glands are best described as:
A. Compound exocrine glands
B. Simple acinar glands
C. Intraepithelial glands
D. Modified eccrine sweat glands
E. Simple tubular glands
47. Peroxisomes contain:
A. Acid hydrolases and catalase
B. Acid hydrolases and cytochrome c
C. Cytochrome c and oxidases
D. Oxidases and catalase
E. Oxidases and cytochrome c
48. Which of the following statements is true regarding intermediate filaments:
A. They are found only in the cytoplasm
B. They are found only in neurons
C. They have the same chemical composition in virtually all cell types
D. They are the most highly dynamic type of filament found in the
cytoskeleton
E. A mutation in intermediate filament structure is associated with a type
of progeria (“fast aging disease”)
49. The classification of an epithelium (e.g., stratified squamous) is determined
in part by _______.
A. The embryonic origin of the epithelium
B. The shape of cells closest to the basement membrane
C. The shape of cells closest to the free surface of the epithelium
D. The type(s) of intermediate filaments it expresses
50. Which of the following germ layers give(s) rise to the epithelial component of
hair follicles:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. All the above
Use the diagram below to answer question #51:
51. The diagram shows a proteoglycan aggregate found in cartilage. Consider
only the one horizontal component of this structure that is indicated by the
arrow labeled X. This linear structure is a:
A. Core protein of a proteoglycan
B. Glycosaminoglycan
C. Link protein
D. Proteoglycan
52. Cytochrome c, ATP, and procaspase-9 are all part of a complex called a/an:
A. Apoptosome
B. Attachment plaque of a desmosome
C. Exportin
D. Focal contact
E. Proteasome
53. The Arp 2/3 complex mediates formation of:
A. Branched actin filaments
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Microtubules
D. Spectrin dimers
54. Which of the following is/are part of a basement membrane as seen by EM?
A. Anchoring fibrils
B. Lamina densa
C. Lamina lucida
D. Lamina reticularis
E. All the above
55. The TOM complex and TIM complexes both play a role in:
A. Importing proteins into peroxisomes
B. Importing proteins into the mitochondrial matrix
C. Importing proteins into the nucleus through a nuclear pore
D. Initiating the formation of an autophagic vacuole
E. Opening or closing connexons in a gap junction
56. Myoepithelial cells surround which of the following:
A. Ducts of the eccrine sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Secretory portion of apocrine sweat glands
D. All the above
57. In a hair follicle the stem cells that give rise to the hair shaft are located
in the:
A. Dermal papilla
B. External root sheath
C. Glassy membrane
D. Hair bulb
E. Internal root sheath
58. Which cells produce antibody?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Histiocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Plasma cells
E. T lymphocytes
59. Which of the following best describes the difference between the papillary
layer and the reticular layer of the dermis?
A. Collagen fibers in the papillary layer are not as densely packed or as
thick as they are in the reticular layer
B. Meissner’s corpuscles are found in the reticular layer but not in the
papillary layer
C. Pacinian corpuscles are found in the papillary layer but not the
reticular layer
D. The papillary layer is closer to the hypodermis than it is to the epidermis
E. There is no difference in the histology of the papillary layer and
reticular layer, only a difference in their location
60. Which of the following is/are always true of a compound gland:
A. It is an exocrine gland
B. It has a branched secretory portion
C. It has a duct that branches
D. All the above
E. Choices A & B only
F. Choices A & C only
G. Choices B & C only
61. Which of the following is a protein found in the outer mitochondrial
membrane that is responsible for the highly permeable nature of that
membrane:
A. Cardiolipin
B. Coenzyme Q
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Mitochondrial heat-shock protein
E. Porin
62. Which of the following terms correctly describe the parotid gland:
A. Compound gland
B. Exocrine gland
C. Merocrine gland
D. Serous gland
E. All the above
63. Which technique makes it easiest to distinguish collagen from smooth
muscle:
A. Autoradiography using tritiated amino acids
B. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining
C. Osmium tetroxide staining
D. Silver staining
E. Trichrome staining
64. Polarizing microscopy is most commonly used for which of the following
purposes:
A. Converting small differences in refractive index into differences in
light intensity
B. Localizing antigens in a sectioned specimen through the use of
labeled antibodies
C. Obtaining a resolution that is better than that of an electron
microscope
D. Studying the surface of a specimen that has been coated with a
heavy metal
E. Visualizing highly ordered structures such as crystals or
paracrystalline structures within a specimen
65.
Identify the correct statement concerning the nuclear membranes:
A. The inner nuclear membrane is continuous with the outer nuclear
membrane at nuclear pores
B. The inner nuclear membrane is supported by a network of
intermediate filaments composed of lamins
C. The outer nuclear membrane has ribosomes on its cytosolic surface
and is a site of protein synthesis
D. The perinuclear cisterna is directly continuous with the lumens of
RER cisternae
E. All the above
66. Scurvy is a deficiency of ________ that results in the formation of defective
__________.
A. Fibrillin .......... collagen fibers
B. Fibrillin .......... elastic fibers
C. Lysyl oxidase .......... collagen fibers
D. Lysyl oxidase .........elastic fibers
E. Vitamin C .......... collagen fibers
F. Vitamin C .......... elastic fibers
G. Vitamin D .......... collagen fibers
H. Vitamin D .......... elastic fibers
67. Which of the following are major sites of calcium sequestration within a cell:
A. Golgi and peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria and SER
C. Peroxisomes and mitochondria
D. RER and Golgi
E. RER and lysosomes
F. SER and lysosomes
68. Polythelia is:
A. A condition characterized by excessive sweating from eccrine sweat
glands
B. A skin disease caused by mutations in a gene coding for keratin
C. The presence of an extra nipple
D. The transformation of a normal epithelium into an abnormal,
disordered epithelium
E. The transformation of one type of normal epithelium into a different
type of normal epithelium
69. Which of the following occurs during the milk ejection reflex:
A. Intralobular ducts undergo apoptosis
B. Mammary gland myoepithelial cells contract in response to direct
stimulation by nerves
C. Oxytocin is secreted in response to suckling
D. Prolactin is converted to colostrum
70. Epithelia can develop from:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. All the above
71. The placenta has a maternal component called the __________, and a fetal
component called the __________.
A. Decidua basalis .......... chorion frondosum
B. Decidua basalis .......... chorion laeve
C. Decidua capsularis ..........chorion frondosum
D. Decidua capsularis ..........chorion laeve
E. Decidua parietalis ..........chorion frondosum
F. Decidua parietalis .......... chorion laeve
72. In many mammals, and possibly in humans, chemical signaling molecules
called pheromones are produced mainly by:
A. Apocrine sweat glands
B. Eccrine sweat glands
C. Meibomian glands
D. Parotid glands
E. Sebaceous glands
73. Cells that are sloughed off the surface of the skin are replaced by division of
stem cells located mainly in the:
A. Basal lamina
B. Lamina reticularis
C. Papillary layer
D. Stratum basale
E. Stratum granulosum
74. A patient develops a blistering disease of the skin in which the blisters form
at the interface between the basement membrane and the epidermal cells.
Such separations are most likely due to disrupted interaction between:
A. Actin and desmin
B. Desmin and vimentin
C. Laminin and integrins
D. Type III collagen and tubulin
E. Type IV collagen and connexin
75. Lysosomes would be most numerous in a cell that:
A. Is degrading large amounts of unneeded secretory product
B. Is producing large amounts of secretory protein
C. Is specialized for heat production
D. Is synthesizing large amounts of steroids
E. Needs to sequester large amounts of calcium from the cytosol
76. Identify the true statement regarding colostrum:
A. It is secreted prior to the secretion of true milk
B. It contains relatively less protein and more lipid than true milk
C. It contains antibodies (especially IgA) that are synthesized by the
secretory cells of the mammary gland
D. It is secreted in a holocrine fashion
E. Choices A, B and C are all true
77. Which of the following is likely to have the most highly euchromatic nucleus:
A. A cell in the anaphase stage of mitosis
B. A cell that is transcribing very few of its genes, but is synthesizing
many copies of the proteins that they encode
C. A cell that is transcribing a large number of different genes
D. A keratinocyte in the stratum granulosum
E. A small lymphocyte
78. Which of the following is a modified apocrine sweat gland:
A. Eccrine sweat gland
B. Mammary gland
C. Parotid gland
D. Sebaceous gland
79. Areas of the cytoplasm that are rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER):
A. Are basophilic because of their high content of rRNA
B. Are often found near the apical end of secretory cells in exocrine
glands
C. Stain pink with hematoxylin & eosin (H&E)
D. All the above
80. Occludin and claudins are the major components of:
A. The connexons of gap junctions
B. The dense cytoplasmic plaque of desmosomes
C. The lamina densa of the basal lamina
D. The sealing strands of a tight junction
E. The terminal web of epithelial cells
81. If someone lightly touches the hair on your head without actually touching
the skin of the scalp, you are still able to feel the touch. This touch sensation
is mediated by:
A. Free nerve endings surrounding the hair follicle
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel cells
D. Pacinian corpuscles
82. Lamellipodia and filopodia:
A. Are actin-based structures that are involved in cell locomotion
B. Are involved in chromosome separation on the mitotic spindle
C. Form via a nucleation process that involves gamma tubulin in the
centrosome
D. Have a core that is composed of vimentin
E. Have an axoneme composed of 9 triplets of microtubules and 2
central microtubules
83. Which of the following techniques would best enable you to see the
arrangement of the integral membrane proteins (IMPs) of the plasma
membrane:
A. Autoradiography combined with darkfield microscopy
B. Freeze fracture
C. Phase contrast
D. Scanning electron microscopy of intact cells
E. Transmission electron microscopy of thin sections
Use the diagram below to answer question #84:
84. The banded structure shown in the diagram above represents one:
A. Collagen type I fibril
B. Collagen type II fiber
C. Collagen type IV fibril
D. Tonofilament
E. Tropocollagen (collagen) molecule
85. Lysosomal membranes contain:
A. A unique lipid that is thought to be resistant to degradation by
lysosomal enzymes
B. Highly glycosylated membrane proteins whose carbohydrate chains
protect them against degradation by lysosomal enzymes
C. Proton pumps that actively transport H+ into the lysosomal lumen
D. Transport proteins that transport the final products of digestion to the
cytoplasm where they can be used in synthetic processes
E. All the above
86. The method by which melanocytes pass melanosomes to keratinocytes is
not entirely clear. One hypothesis is that the tip of a cytoplasmic process
that contains one or more melanosomes pinches off from the melanocyte
and is taken up into a vacuole by the keratinocyte. This mechanism of
melanosome transfer would be an example of:
A. Apocrine secretion
B. Holocrine secretion
C. Merocrine secretion
87. The interior surface of your eyelid is a moist surface that experiences
considerable wear and tear from blinking. Which of the following types of
epithelium lines this surface and is best suited for conditions such as this:
A. Maximally keratinized stratified squamous
B. Minimally keratinized stratified squamous
C. Pseudostratified columnar
D. Stratified columnar
E. Transitional
88. Thermogenin (uncoupling protein-1, UCP-1):
A. Generates heat by increasing the permeability of the outer
mitochondrial membrane to electrons
B. Generates heat by stopping the flow of electrons through the
mitochondrial electron transport chain
C. Is a protein found in the inner mitochondrial membrane
D. Is found predominantly in white fat
89. During the third trimester of pregnancy, increase in the size of the breast is
mainly attributed to:
A. Hypertrophy of secretory cells and accumulation of secretory product
B. Increase in the number of adipocytes
C. Large numbers of mast cells and macrophages accumulating within
each lobule
D. Storage of true milk in the lactiferous sinuses
E. Thickening of the connective tissue septa between lobules
90. Suppose that you are examining electron micrographs of a liver biopsy from
a patient who has been a heavy barbiturate user for several years. Which of
the following is most likely to be present in the majority of hepatocytes (liver
cells) as a result of this addiction?
A. A highly heterochromatic nucleus
B. An unusually large centrosome containing many stacks of Golgi
cisternae
C. Extensive amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
D. Increased numbers of lysosomes
E. Mitochondria with tubular cristae
91. When certain basic dyes (e.g., toluidine blue) react with closely packed
polyanions in a tissue section, interaction between the dye molecules can
shift the color of the dye from blue to red or purple. This phenomenon, which
is often observed with mast cell secretory vacuoles, is known as:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metachromasia
C. Metaphase
D. Metaplasia
E. Metastasis
Use the diagram below to answer question #92:
92. The diagram above illustrates the molecular organization of a:
A. Desmosome
B. Gap junction
C. Junctional complex
D. Tight junction (zonula occludens)
E. Zonula adherens
93. A mesothelium is found:
A. Covering the outer surface of the cornea
B. Lining the inner surface of the atria of the heart
C. Lining the inner surface of the wall of the pleural cavity
D. Lining the lumen of the stomach
E. All the above
94. Ribosomal proteins (i.e., the protein components of the ribosome subunits):
A. Are synthesized in the cytoplasm and imported into the nucleus by
the TOM and TIM complexes of the outer and inner nuclear
membranes
B. Are synthesized in the cytoplasm, and imported into the nucleus
through nuclear pores
C. Are synthesized in the nucleus
D. Are synthesized on the fixed polysomes of the outer nuclear
membrane and then released into the perinuclear cisterna
95. Loose connective tissue:
A. Characteristically surrounds small blood vessels
B. Characteristically surrounds the secretory units of glands
C. Is a common site of inflammatory and immune reactions
D. Makes up the layer of the dermis that lies directly beneath the epidermis
E. All the above
96. Which of the following is an intermediate filament protein that can be used
as a marker to identify developing muscle cells during embryogenesis:
A. Actin
B. Desmin
C. Fibrillin
D. Keratin
E. Laminin
97. In __________, a defective phosphotransferase in the Golgi fails to create
the mannose-6-phosphate marker that directs the sorting of __________:
A. Hurler syndrome ............ membrane proteins to the SER
B. I-cell disease ....................lysosomal enzymes
C. Marfan’s disease .......... tropocollagen molecules
D. Zellweger syndrome ........ peroxisomal proteins
98. Mitochondria:
A. And nuclei use exactly the same genetic code in their mRNA codons
for amino acids
B. And SER are the two major organelles that function to sequester
calcium from the cytoplasm
C. Are acidophilic in tissue sections because they contain a high
concentration of free hydrogen ions
D. Are inherited paternally in many animals including humans
E. Import entire intact ribosomal subunits from the cytosol in order to
carry out protein synthesis in their matrix
99.
Which of the following is a non-motor microtubule-associated protein (MAP)
found in the neurofibrillary tangles characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease:
A. Desmoglein
B. Fibronectin
C. Tau protein
D. The ARP 2/3 complex
E. The OXA complex
100. In a brightfield light microscope, the total magnification is determined by the:
A. Magnifying power of the condenser lens alone
B. Magnifying power of the objective lens alone
C. (Magnifying power of the condenser lens) x (magnifying power of the
objective lens)
D. (Magnifying power of the condenser lens) + (magnifying power of the
objective lens)
E. (Magnifying power of the objective lens) x (magnifying power of the
eyepiece)
F. (Magnifying power of the objective lens) + (magnifying power of the
eyepiece)
101.
Which of the following is likely to have a very heterochromatic nucleus,
numerous free polysomes, but little or no observable rough endoplasmic
reticulum:
A. A fibroblast secreting collagen
B. A goblet cell
C. A late stage precursor of a red blood cell that is still producing
hemoglobin
D. A neuron
E. A plasma cell
102.
Suppose that a small fluorescent dye is injected with a micropipette into
one cell in a tissue culture monolayer composed of epithelial cells. After a
few minutes the dye is observable in cells immediately adjacent to the
injected one. The dye reached these additional cells by traveling through:
A. Desmosomes
B. Focal contacts (focal adhesions)
C. Gap junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
E. Tight junctions
F. Zonulae adherentes
103.
Suppose that examination of a tissue sample using light and electron
microscopy reveals cells that have a euchromatic nucleus, many
mitochondria, numerous cytoplasmic lipid droplets, and abundant smooth
endoplasmic reticulum. These cells are probably:
A. Duct cells that are modifying the ionic concentration of a secretion
B. Synthesizing immunoglobulins
C. Synthesizing steroid hormones
D. Undergoing apoptosis
104.
Which component of the extracellular matrix of connective tissues
provides the greatest amount of tensile strength to the tissue (i.e.,
resistance to tension or pulling forces):
A. Collagen type I
B. Collagen type IV
C. Integrins
D. Proteoglycans
E. Reticular fibers
105.
Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) provides better resolution than
brightfield light microscopy (LM) because:
A. Electrons can penetrate a thicker section than visible light can
B. Electrons have a shorter wavelength than visible light
C. TEM uses heavy metal stains while LM uses colored dyes
D. TEM uses electromagnetic lenses that are more powerful than the
glass lenses used in LM
106.
Mucous glands:
A. Are the only type of gland that has striated ducts
B. Are usually endocrine glands
C. Include goblet cells
D. Secrete a watery fluid rich in ions and poorly glycosylated proteins
107.
Laminins, entactin/nidogen, perlecan, and collagen IV are all components
of the:
A. Basal lamina of a basement membrane
B. Lamina reticularis (reticular lamina) of a basement membrane
C. Layer of the basement membrane made mainly by epithelial cells
D. Both A & C are correct
E. Both B & C are correct
108.
Downgrowths of cells from epithelial sheets gives rise to:
A. Endocrine glands
B. Fingernails and toenails
C. Hair follicles
D. Mammary glands
E. All the above
F. Choices A, B & C only
109.
In which of the following items is a cell type correctly paired with one of its
major distinguishing morphological features:
A. Brown adipocyte .......... a “clockface” arrangement of
heterochromatin and a well-developed, pale-staining Golgi
B. Goblet cell .......... eosinophilic basal striations in its cytoplasm
C. Macrophage .......... numerous acid phosphatase-containing
cytoplasmic vacuoles
D. Mast cell .......... numerous small cytoplasmic lipid droplets
E. Plasma cell .......... numerous large basophilic cytoplasmic vacuoles
110.
Paclitaxel (Taxol) is a useful drug in cancer chemotherapy because it
inhibits cell division. Its side effects include peripheral neuropathies such
as tingling &/or diminished sensation in the fingers or toes. Identify the
correct statement regarding these effects.
A. Taxol causes neuropathies by breaking down neuronal gap
junctions
B. Taxol causes neuropathies by depolymerizing the intermediate
filaments of nerve axons
C. Taxol inhibits cell division by depolymerizing actin filaments, thus
preventing formation of the contractile ring required for cytokinesis
D. Taxol inhibits cell division by stabilizing microtubules, thus
interfering with chromosome separation on the mitotic spindle
111.
Most cases of albinism are due to a mutation that results in lack of:
A. Birbeck granules
B. Filaggrin
C. Keratohyalin granules
D. Membrane-coating granules
E. Tyrosinase activity
112.
The minimal placental barrier between maternal and fetal blood:
A. Depends for its integrity on the presence of tight junctions in the
syncytiotrophoblast
B. Develops in tertiary villi, but is not present in primary or secondary
villi
C. Includes cytotrophoblast but not syncytiotrophoblast
D. Includes the entire thickness of the chorionic plate
E. Includes the wall of maternal capillaries
113.
The periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction is specific for:
A. Carbohydrates and carbohydrate-rich macromolecules
B. Collagen
C. Elastic fibers
D. Lipids
E. Mitochondria
114.
Langerhans cells:
A. Are derived from the same stem cell population as keratinocytes
B. Are most common in the stratum lucidum
C. Are thought to act as a viral reservoir that can harbor the HIV virus
that causes AIDS
D. Can be identified by the numerous highly basophilic granules in
their cytoplasm
E. Have as their main function the secretion of lamellar bodies that
help prevent desiccation of the epidermis
115.
Sebaceous glands and apocrine sweat glands are alike in that both:
A. Are simple coiled tubular glands
B. Are stimulated to secrete by sympathetic innervation
C. Empty into hair follicles
D. Have myoepithelial cells surrounding their duct portions
E. Have serous demilunes
116.
The placenta is an organ jointly formed from maternal and fetal tissues.
The maternal component is known as the __________, and the fetal
component as the __________.
A. decidua basalis ……. chorion frondosum
B. decidua basalis ……. chorion laeve
C. decidua capsularis ……. chorion frondosum
D. decidua capsularis ……. chorion laeve
E. decidua parietalis ……. chorion frondosum
117.
Which of the following is part of the placenta:
A. Allantois
B. Anchoring villi
C. Myometrium of the uterus
D. Yolk sac
E. All the above
118.
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition caused by progressive thickening and
shortening of some of the fascia of the palm (the palmar aponeurosis).
Some of the fingers may become permanently bent (flexed) toward the
palm. In 17th century Scotland a condition similar or identical to this was
known as the “curse of the MacCrimmons” and was thought to be due to a
spell cast on clan MacCrimmon by the leader of clan McLeod, who was
similarly afflicted himself. We now know that Dupuytren’s contracture is
much more likely to be due to overabundance &/or overactivity of:
A. Macrophages
B. Mast cells
C. Myoepithelial cells
D. Myofibroblasts
E. Plasma cells
119.
Stress fibers:
A. And actin filaments are the two major components of the
erythrocyte cytoskeleton
B. Are bundles of parallel actin filaments that bind to membrane
junctions called focal contacts (focal adhesions)
C. Are composed of collagen type VII
D. Are found in the extracellular matrix of dense irregular connective
tissue
E. Are PAS-positive and stain with silver salts
DIRECTIONS: Each of the numbered items or incomplete statements in this
section is negatively phrased, as indicated by a capitalized word such as NOT,
LEAST, or EXCEPT. Select the ONE lettered answer or completion that is BEST
in each case.
120.
Identify the FALSE statement. A lipid droplet in the cytoplasm:
A. Can appear electron dense (dark) or electron lucent (light)
depending on how well the lipid was fixed
B. Can provide substrate for synthesis of steroid hormones
C. Has a core of neutral lipids that can be metabolized to provide
energy
D. Includes a monolayer of polar lipids that can be used in membrane
synthesis
E. Is directly surrounded by a membrane
121.
Identify the FALSE statement about mitochondrial DNA:
A. The mitochondrial matrix contains circular double stranded DNA
B. Both strands of mitochondrial DNA are transcribed
C. Mitochondrial DNA codes for gene products such as rRNA, tRNAs,
and proteins
D. Mitochondrial DNA codes for all the proteins found in a
mitochondrion
E. Mitochondrial DNA has a higher mutation rate than nuclear DNA
122.
All the following are classified as adhering junctions EXCEPT:
A. Desmosome
B. Focal contact
C. Gap junction
D. Hemidesmosome
E. Zonula adherens
123.
Identify the FALSE statement about the Golgi:
A. It is directly physically continuous with the RER and with the SER
B. It is well-developed in phagocytic cells
C. It is well-developed in secretory cells
D. It receives proteins from the RER and modifies them
E. It stains poorly with H&E
124.
Identify the FALSE statement regarding thin skin:
A. It is defined as skin that has a thin epidermis
B. It is found over most of the body surface
C. It is maximally keratinized
D. It is usually hairless
125.
Identify the FALSE statement. Eccrine sweat glands:
A. Are distributed over the entire body except for a few locations such
as the lips and parts of external genitalia
B. Are simple coiled tubular glands
C. Have ducts that are lined by a stratified cuboidal epithelium
D. Have myoepithelial cells surrounding their duct, but not around their
secretory portion
E. Secrete a watery fluid that cools the skin by evaporating
126.
Which of the following structures is/are NOT found in the nucleus:
A. Euchromatin
B. Heterochromatin
C. Nucleolus
D. Ribosomes
E. rRNA
127.
A smoker's lung has many cells that have phagocytized small black
particles from the smoke. These cells would also exhibit all of the following
characteristics EXCEPT:
A. A well developed Golgi complex
B. An activate plasmalemma with many projections
C. An irregular cell shape and a nucleus that is not perfectly round
D. Many lysosomes
E. Many large metachromatic secretory granules in the cytoplasm
128.
Several of the major cytoskeletal polymers are structurally polarized in the
sense that they have a “plus” end (“barbed end”) and “minus” end (“pointed”
end). Which of the following cytoskeletal polymers is/are NOT polarized:
A. Actin filaments
B. Microtubules
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Stress fibers
E. Both choices A & D
F. Both choices C & D
129.
The resolution of a light microscope depends on all the following EXCEPT:
A. The half-angle of the cone of light entering the objective lens, i.e.,
the design of the objective lens
B. The index of refraction of the medium between the specimen and
the objective lens
C. The magnification at which the specimen is viewed
D. The wavelength of the illumination
130.
All of the following can be observed in sections of lactating mammary
gland EXCEPT:
A. Apocrine secretion of milk lipids
B. Interlobular septa consisting of dense connective tissue
C. Lactiferous ducts lined with a stratified epithelium
D. Secretory product in the lumens of the alveoli
E. Striated ducts
131.
Identify the FALSE statement about the Golgi:
A. The Golgi can sort proteins into lysosomes or into secretory
vesicles
B. It receives lipids and proteins from the RER and sends them to
many destinations
C. Retrograde transport between the Golgi cisternae is regulated by
COP I protein
D. Secretory vesicles bud from the cis (convex) face for constitutive
secretion from the cell, and from the trans (concave) face for
regulated secretion
132.
Which of the following steps is NOT part of receptor-mediated endocytosis
of low-density lipoprotein (LDL)?
A. The ligand binds to a specific receptor on the cell’s plasma
membrane
B. The cytoplasmic tail of the receptor binds to a protein called clathrin
in a coated pit
C. The coated pit, carrying receptor-bound ligand, invaginates from the
cell membrane to form a coated vesicle in the cytoplasm
D. Once ligand is separated from its receptor within the vesicle, most
of the membrane and the receptors are degraded in a peroxisome
133.
Identify the FALSE statement. In comparing loose connective tissue and
dense irregular connective tissue, the loose connective tissue:
A. Contains a larger number of cells
B. Contains fewer types of connective tissue cells
C. Contains relatively fewer fibers and more ground substance
D. Contains thinner fiber bundles
E. Is found in the papillary layer of the dermis, while the dense
irregular is found in the reticular layer
134.
Identify the FALSE statement. Striated ducts:
A. Are found in the parotid gland
B. Are found only in simple glands
C. Are normally lined by a simple epithelium
D. Can modify the ionic content of the secretion that they carry
E. Of salivary glands receive secretions from intercalated ducts
135.
All the following statements concerning chromatin or chromosomes are
true EXCEPT:
A. Chromatin is a complex of DNA and proteins
B. Histones are the principal structural proteins of eukaryotic
chromosomes
C. The nucleosome is a basic unit of chromatin structure
D. The chromatids of a chromosome are joined together at a point
called the telomere
E. In an interphase nucleus each chromosome occupies a fairly welldefined territory rather than being randomly distributed
136.
Which of the following CANNOT be found as part of either the apical or
the lateral plasma membrane of an epithelial cell:
A. A glycocalyx
B. Gap junctions
C. Glucose transporters that carry glucose across the membrane
D. Hemidesmosomes
E. Junctional complexes
137.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present in a fibroblast that is
actively synthesizing collagen:
A. A more euchromatic nucleus than in an inactive fibroblast
B. A well-developed Golgi apparatus
C. A well-developed nucleolus
D. Abundant RER
E. Many large secretory vacuoles stored in the cytoplasm
138.
Identify the FALSE statement. White adipocytes:
A. Form a layer called the hypodermis beneath the skin that serves an
insulating function
B. Have a less extensive vascular supply than brown adipocytes
C. Perform a cushioning function in some areas, e.g., around the
eyeballs in the orbits of the skull
D. Secrete lipid constitutively and in an apocrine fashion
E. Serve as an energy reserve by storing triglycerides in their lipid
droplets
139.
Identify the FALSE statement. The syncytiotrophoblast:
A. Contains the stem cell population that gives rise to the
cytotrophoblast
B. Covers all the surfaces of the placenta that come into direct contact
with maternal blood
C. Is a true syncytium formed by the fusion of uninucleated cells
D. Secretes steroid and peptide hormones
E. Transports maternal immunoglobulin G (IgG) into the fetal
circulation
140.
All of the following are derived from the Golgi EXCEPT:
A. COP-1– coated vesicles that return to the RER and fuse with it
B. Lysosomes
C. Melanosomes
D. Membrane-coating granules of keratinocytes
E. Peroxisomes
141.
Mitochondria import many of their proteins from the cytosol. All the following
are involved in transport of at least some mitochondrial proteins EXCEPT:
A. “Stop transfer” signals that halt transfer of a protein and anchor it in
a membrane
B. ATP hydrolysis as an energy source for importing proteins
C. Chaperone proteins that keep the protein in an unfolded
configuration while it is passing through the membrane
D. The SAM complex to transport proteins from the intermembrane
space to the cytosol
142.
Identify the FALSE statement concerning PPARs (peroxisome proliferatoractivated receptors):
A. PPARs are transcription factors that bind to DNA when activated,
and alter the level of expression of certain genes
B. PPARs can be activated by substances such as fatty acids, aspirin,
or certain insecticides
C. PPARs affect only the genes that code for peroxisomal enzymes
D. Peroxisomal proliferation can cause oxidative damage if the
peroxisomes don’t contain enough catalase activity to break down
the H2O2 generated by other peroxisomal enzymes
143.
Identify the FALSE statement regarding mitochondria:
A. The inner mitochondrial membrane contains symporters
B. A symporter is a carrier protein that transports two different
molecules or ions across a membrane in the same direction
C. ATP synthase is an antiporter whose main function is to carry ATP
and ADP in different directions
D. The electron transport chain generates an electrochemical gradient
across the inner mitochondrial membrane by moving protons (H+)
from the matrix to the intermembrane space
144.
Identify the FALSE statement. Epithelia:
A. Are almost all avascular
B. Are derived embryologically from ectoderm and endoderm, but not
from mesoderm
C. Cover almost all the external and internal free surfaces of the body
D. Give rise to the majority of cancers, perhaps because of their
relatively high mitotic rate
E. That form multilayered sheets are classified partly on the basis of
the shape of the cells in their surface layer
145.
Identify the FALSE statement. White adipocytes:
A. Are more abundant than brown adipocytes in adults
B. Are the predominant cell type in the mucous connective tissue of
the umbilical cord
C. Differentiate from mesenchymal stem cells
D. Go through a developmental stage in which they are multilocular
rather than unilocular
E. Secrete a hormone that helps regulate appetite and body weight
146.
Which of the following statements IS NOT true of microtubules AND
ALSO of actin filaments:
A. Both are anchored to the cell membrane at either a tight junction or
a desmosome
B. Both exhibit structural polarity in that one end is more dynamic (i.e.,
polymerizes and depolymerizes more often) than the other
C. Both exist as alpha, beta, and gamma isoforms
D. Their formation requires energy derived from GTP hydrolysis for
one of these structures and from ATP hydrolysis for the other
147.
Which of the following types of proteins DOES NOT carry one or more
targeting signals that direct its localization within a cell:
A. Histones
B. Peroxisomal proteins
C. Proteins that remain free in the cytosol
D. Secretory proteins
PART II: MATCHING
DIRECTIONS: Each set of matching questions consists of numbered questions
that are printed below a diagram or a list of lettered choices. For each numbered
question, select the ONE lettered response that is most closely associated with it.
Each lettered response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Peroxisome
B. Early endosome
C. Residual body
D. Autophagic vacuole
E. Golgi apparatus
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
A site where substrate is being actively digested by acid hydrolases
A site containing lipofuscin or other undegraded substrates, but little or no
enzyme activity
Site where the mannose-6-phosphate marker is acquired by lysosomal
enzymes
A site where ethanol is oxidized in cells such as hepatocytes (liver cells)
Site where many endocytosed ligand/receptor complexes dissociate at
acidic pH
A. Clathrin
B. COP-I
C. COP-II
D. Exportin
E. Lamin
F. Laminin
G. Occludin
H. TIM complex
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
Protein necessary for transport of immature rRNA subunits from the
nucleus to the cytoplasm
A protein involved in the formation of coated pits during receptor-mediated
endocytosis
A protein necessary for transport of vesicles from the endoplasmic
reticulum to the Golgi apparatus
A specialized intermediate filament protein that participates in forming the
support structure of the inner nuclear membrane
A protein found in tight junctions
A. Nucleolus
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. COP II
E. Laminin
F. Importins
G. Plasma membrane
H. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
I. Porin
J. Arp 2/3 complex
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
Abundant in cytoplasmic regions that stain darkly with basophilic dyes
Regulate/s the passage of proteins between the cytoplasm and the nucleus
Loss of continuity of this structure is diagnostic of necrosis
Center for ribosomal RNA synthesis
Location where functional connexons are found
For questions #163-165: Use the following diagram to classify the
numbered epithelia.
163.
164.
165.
The respiratory epithelium lining the trachea
The epithelium lining the intestinal lumen
The epithelium lining the esophageal lumen
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. E
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. E
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. E
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. A
38. E
39. E
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. D
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. E
49. C
50. A
51. A
52. A
53. A
54. E
55. B
56. C
57. D
58. D
59. A
60. F
61. E
62. E
63. E
64. E
65. E
66. E
67. B
68. C
69. C
70. D
71. A
72. A
73. D
74. C
75. A
76. A
77. C
78. B
79. A
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. B
84. A
85. E
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. A
90. C
91. B
92. E
93. C
94. B
95. E
96. B
97. B
98. B
99. C
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
E
C
C
C
A
B
C
D
E
C
D
E
B
A
C
C
A
B
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
D
B
E
D
C
A
D
D
D
E
C
C
E
D
D
B
B
D
D
E
D
A
E
D
C
C
B
B
A
C
D
C
E
A
B
D
A
C
E
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
G
B
F
G
A
G
I
C
E