Examiners` Report - National Board of Accountants and Auditors

Transcription

(NBAA)
THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS
TANZANIA
EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT
83RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2016
NBAA,
Mhasibu House,
Bibi Titi Mohamed Street,
P.O. Box 5128,
Dar es Salaam,
Tanzania.
30TH JUNE 2016
Telephones: (022) 2211890/9
Mobile:
0713 320423
Fax:
(022) 2151746
Email:
[email protected]
Website: www.nbaa-go.tz
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Foreword & Acknowledgement ………………………………………
PAGE
(i)
Executive Summary of 83rd Examination session
……………………
(v)
CHAPTER 1
Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 83rd Examination
Session
1
CHAPTER II
Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise ………………….....................
• Accounting Technician Examination Level I ………..................
• Accounting Technician Examination Level II ………………….
• Foundation Level …………………………………
• Intermediate Level ……………………..................
• Final Level ………………………………………..
4
4
17
31
48
83
CHAPTER III
Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………...
105
CHAPTER IV
Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………...
113
CHAPTER V
Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to May 2016
129
CHAPTER VI TheThe
NBAA
NBAA
Special
Special
Awards
Awards
Programme
Programme
forfor
Candidates
Candidates
with
with Meritorious
Meritorious
Examination
Examination
Achievements
Achievements
…………….........................
……………........................
134
1
FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
________________
The current examination scheme has been tested for the fourth time in May 2016. The first
time was in November 2014. Unlike the phased out examination scheme the current
examination scheme is basically designed to test competencies rather than understanding of
knowledge. To realise this goal there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching
of the students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations.
Here it means that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to
speak the same language. If there is any mismatch between these stakeholders the aim of
competence based examination scheme cannot be realised. Lecturers are required to change
their teaching orientation to match with competence approach. They are required to guide
learners to acquire competencies rather than knowledge. Learners are supposed to change
their learning styles from rote learning to active learning that will enable them to learn the
required competencies. Those who are setting examination questions should also consider the
fact that they are testing understanding of skills and competencies rather than understanding
of information. How to orient all these stakeholders to have the same orientation has
remained a challenge in implementing the competence based examination scheme. But as we
move forward the situation is changing into better through trainings and acquisition of
experiences.
The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II
as shown below:
Code Name
Accounting Technician Level I
T01
Book keeping and Accounts
T02
Elements of Business Maths and Statistics
T03
Introduction to Information and Communication Technology
T.04
Business Communication Skills
Accounting Technician Level II
T.05
Principles of Accounting and Auditing
T.06
Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement
T.07
Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation
T.08
Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives
i
The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as follows:
(i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) Level, having five subjects,
(ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context )Level, having six subjects, and
(iii)Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) Level, having four subjects.
In total the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:
Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)
Exam Subject Name
Code
A1
Quantitative Techniques
A2
Business and Management
A3
Accounting
A4
Business Information
A5
Business Law
Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)
Exam Subject Name
Code
B1
Financial Management
B2
Financial Accounting
B3
Auditing Principles and Practice
B4
Public Finance and Taxation I
B5
Performance Management
B6
Management, Governance and Ethics
Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)
Exam Subject Name
Code
C1
Corporate Reporting
C2
Auditing and Assurance Services
C3
Business and Corporate Finance
C4
Public Finance and Taxation II
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER
Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations the Board has been able to
produce 13,901 Accounting Technicians. This category of Accounting Technicians covers 3,647
Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate
(BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates.
The Board has also been able to produce 7,171 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting
these examinations in May, 1975. In total, the Board has been able to produce 21,072 accounting
personnel (manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors
inside and outside Tanzania.
ii
EXAMINATION CENTRES
During the 83rd examination session, examinations were held in 11 examination centres located in
Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These centres accommodated 6,499 candidates sitting at
different levels of the Board’s examinations. The examination centres were as shown here below:
Dar Es Salaam Centres
1.
2.
3.
Patel Brotherhood
Diamond Jubilee Hall
Lamada Hotel
Upcountry centres
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA)
Dodoma – College of Business Education (CBE)
Kilimanjaro –Young Men Christian Association (YMCA) Moshi
Mbeya – Mkapa Conference Centre
Morogoro – CCT Women’s Training Centre
Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre
Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS)
Zanzibar – State University of Zanzibar (SUZA)
OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT
The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general
performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important
guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future
examinations.
Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 3 of this report while a detailed
analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers
is shown in Tables 10 to 11 of the report. Analysis of performance in each subject is presented in
Tables 5.1 to 9.1.8. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and Performance Report are
supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance in each examination
layer.
The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other prize donor
institutions. These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations
during the graduation ceremony to be held in October 2016.
iii
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to
all persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed
particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the
candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the
contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the
Education and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated cooperation during the whole process of the NBAA’s 83rd examination session. Last but not least, I
congratulate all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 83rd examinations of the
Board.
Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and
the Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous
experiences. I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive
suggestions on how to improve further the examination process and reports arising therein.
Yours sincerely,
CPA Pius A. Maneno
EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR
iv
EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 83RD EXAMINATION SESSION – MAY 2016
1.0
PREAMBLE:
The Board conducts its examinations twice in a year during the months of May and
November. This session is the 83rd examination session in which the examinations were
conducted from Tuesday 3rd to Friday 6th May 2016.
There were 7,106 candidates who applied for the examinations, out of whom 607 (8.5%)
were absent, 6,499 sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature
distribution this session is as shown below:
EXAMINATIO CANDIDATES
N LEVELS
APPLIED
TECHNICIAN LEVELS
115
ATEC I:
ATEC II:
168
CANDIDATES
ABSENT
%
CANDIDATES
SAT
%
5
4.3
110
95.7
8
4.8
160
95.2
PROFESSIONAL LEVELS
Foundation
484
39
8.1
445
91.9
Intermediate
3898
403
10.3
3495
89.3
Final
2441
152
6.2
2289
93.8
7,106
607
8.5
6,499
91.5
TOTALS
v
2.0
TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE
2.1
Candidature Exam Sitting
Candidature enrolment this session has slightly increased by 713 candidates
(11.0%) compared with the May 2015 examination session. There were 6,499
candidates who sat for the May 2016 examinations against 5,786 candidates who
sat for the May 2015 examinations.
Table 1 and Chart 1 shows candidature trend (candidates who sat for the
examinations) for the eight examination sessions: November 2012 to May 2016.
Table 1
EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT
EXAMINATION SESSIONS NOVEMBER 2012 TO MAY 2016
EXAMINATION
ATEC ATEC
I
II
FOUNDATION
INTERMEDIATE
FINAL
TOTAL
A
B
C
D
E
F
76th Session November, 2012
132
117
65
109
156
131
2,033 1,110
3,853
77th Session May, 2013
125
142
61
93
168
108
2,048 1,297
4,042
111
162
59
125
168
83
2,556 1,487
4,751
79h Session May, 2014
83
161
68
85
174
90
2,109 1625
4,395
159
125
372
3,109
2,021
5,786
83rd Session May, 2015
159
119
36537
3,163
2,011
5,817
82nd Session November, 2015
111
134
364
3,114
1,956
5,679
83rd Session May, 2016
110
160
445
3,495
2,289
6,499
vi
2.2
Candidature Distribution – May 2016
Candidature distribution for the May 2016 examination session shows that majority of the
candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level examinations.
The Chart below shows the candidature distribution
Chart 1
Candidature Distribution – May 2016
ATEC I,110,2%
ATEC II,160,2%
FINAL, 2,289,35%
FOUNDATION,
445,7%
ATECI
ATECII
FOUNDATION
INTERMEDIATE,
3,495,54%
INTERMEDIATE
FINAL
Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enrol at this
level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its
equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level
examinations. Currently, the Board has recognized 19 accountancy training institutions
whose programmes enjoy such exemption. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor
degree courses related to accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to
be given exemption in the Board’s examinations.
Furthermore, majority of the candidates at this level were those who sat for B5Performance Management subject who were referred in P19 Management Accounting in
the previous syllabus. Out of 3,495 candidates who sat for the Intermediate Level
examinations 2,526 (72.3) sat for Performance Management subject.
vii
3.0
EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
3.1
Pass rates for examination levels tested in May 2016
Table 2 (i) below shows pass rates in May 2016 examination session
EXAMINATION LEVEL
NUMBER OF PASSES
ATEC I
Passed
Part passed
PERCENTAGE
34
32
30.9
29.1
ATEC II
Passed
Part passed
FOUNDATION
Passed
Part passed
41
61
25.6
38.1
233
171
52.4
38.4
INTERMEDIATE
Passed
Part passed
366
1135
10.5
32.5
FINAL
Passed
Part passed
300
708
13.1
30.9
974
2,107
15.0
32.4
TOTAL PASSES
Passed
Part passed
NOTE:
Among the candidates who passed Intermediate and Final Levels there were ten (10)
candidates with foreign qualifications.
Table 2 (ii) below shows number of candidates with foreign CPA –equivalent
qualification who sat and cleared the subjects with local contents
Subject
Number of entries
00
09
10
A5 Business Law
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable
them register as members.
viii
3.2
Examination Performance by Gender:
Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels is as indicated on Table 3 below:
Male
No.
%
ATEC Level I
Passes
Female
No.
%
Total
Male
No.
%
No.
%
Partial Passes
Female
No.
%
No.
%
No.
%
Failures
Female
No.
%
Total
Male
Total
No.
%
Male
No.
%
Total
Female
No.
%
No.
%
Total
26
76
8
24
34
100
19
59
13
41
32
100
25
57
19
43
44
100
70
64
40
36
110
100
32
78
9
22
41
100
40
66
21
34
61
100
30
52
28
48
58
100
102
64
58
36
160
100
155
67
78
33
233
100
99
58
72
42
171
100
20
49
21
51
41
100
274
62
171
38
445
100
223
61
143
39
366
100
708
62
427
38
1135
100
1257
63
737
37
1994
100
2188
63
1307
37
3495
100
Final Level
202
67
98
33
300
100
443
63
265
37
708
100
817
64
464
36
1281
100
1462
64
827
36
2289
100
TOTAL
638
66
336
34
974
100
1309
62
798
38
2107
100
2149
63
1269
37
3418
100
4096
63
2403
37
6499
100
ATEC Level
II
Foundation
Level
Intermediate
Level
ix
CHAPTER I
ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE
OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE
During the 83rd examination session, 7,106 candidates were registered for the Board’s
examinations held in May, 2016, out of whom 607 (8.5%) candidates were absent from the
examinations, 6,499 candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 6,499 candidates who sat for the
examinations, 974 (15.0%) candidates passed while 2,017 (32.4%) candidates part passed and a
total of 3,418 (52.6%) candidates failed the examinations. (See Table 4 on page 3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I
The May 2016 examination session was the 4th session since the review of the examinations
structure and syllabi of ATEC. 115 candidates registered themselves for the examination. 5
(4.3.0%) candidates were absent. 110 candidates sat for the examination, out of whom 34
(30.9%) passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 32
(29.1%) candidates are part passed while a total of 44 (40%) candidates failed the examination.
(See Table 4 on page3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II
This examination was conducted for the 4th time since the review of the examination structure and
syllabi of ATEC II. Out of 168 candidates who registered for the examination, 08 (4.8%)
candidates were absent leaving a total of 160 candidates who wrote the examination. 41 (25.6%)
candidates passed and hence are recommended to be issued with CERTIFICATES OF
COMPLETION of the Accounting Technician Certificate Examination. 61 (38.1%) candidates
have part passed while a total of 58 (36.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on
page3).
FOUNDATION LEVEL
The Foundation Level examinations consist of five subjects. These subjects were tested for the
second time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 484 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom 39
(8.1%) candidates were absent. Of the 445 candidates who wrote the examination, 233 (52.4%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 171
(38.4%) candidates have part passed while a total of 41 (9.2%) candidates failed the examination.
1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation Level
examinations, these subjects were tested for the second time this session following the review of
the examination structure.
In this examination, 3,898 candidates registered themselves out of whom 403 (10.3%) candidates
were absent. Of the 3,495 candidates who wrote the examination, 336 (10.5%) candidates passed
hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 1,135 (32.5%)
candidates have part passed while a total of 1,994 (57.1%) candidates failed the examination.
FINAL LEVEL
The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested for the
second time following review of the examination structure.
In this examination, 2,441 candidates registered themselves for Final Level examinations, out of
whom 152 (6.2%) candidates were absent. Of the 2,289 candidates who wrote the examination,
300 (13.1%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at
this Level. 708 (30.9%) candidates have part passed while a total of 1,281 (56.0%) candidates
failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF
COMPLETION
In this examination session, 40 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the ATEC
programme, comprising 09 (22.5%) female candidates and 31 (77.5%) male candidates.
On the other hand 282 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA programme,
comprising103 (36.5%) female candidates and 179 (63.5%) male candidates.
2
TABLE 4
GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS
EXAMINATION
ATEC I
ATEC II
FOUNDATION
INTERMEDIATE
NO.
%
NO.
%
NO
%
NO.
%
115
100
168
100
484
100
3898
100
5
4.3
8
4.8
39
8.1
403
CANDIDATES
WHO SAT
110
95.7
160
95.2
445
91.9
PART
PASSED
32
29.1
61
38.1
171
PASSED
34
30.9
41
25.6
FAILURES
44
40
58
TOTAL
110
100
160
ENTRIES
ABSENTEES
FINAL
%
NO.
%
2441
100
7106
100
10.3
152
6.2
607
8.5
3495
89.7
2289
93.8
6499
91.5
38.4
1135
32.5
708
30.9
2107
32.4
233
52.4
366
10.5
300
13.1
974
15
36.3
41
9.2
1994
57.1
1281
56.0
3418
52.6
100
445
100
3495
100
2289
100
6499
100
3
NO
TOTAL
CHAPTER II
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject
at each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of
candidates’ performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each
topic examined is analyzed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary
guidance to trainers and students for the better results in the Board’s future
examinations.
The May 2016 examination is the fourth examination session under the revised
examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two tier system of five different
levels: two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level.
A total of 23 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;
Accounting Technician Level II with four papers;
The Foundation Level with five papers;
The Intermediate Level with six papers;
The Final Level with four papers.
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
110 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 34
(30.9%) candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF
SUCCESS for ATEC I 32 (29.1%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in this
level while 44 (40.0%) candidates failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 5.1
TABLE 5.1
ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2015 AND MAY
2016
Paper
Code
T.01
T.02
T.03
T.04
Performance
Subject
Bookkeeping and Accounts
Elements of Business Maths and
Statistics
Introduction to Information and
Communication Technology
Business Communication Skills
May 2015
May 2016
Entries
Pass
%
Entries
Pass
%
72
51
70.8
55
37
67.2
81
45
55.6
80
31
38.8
148
82
55.4
90
45
50.0
71
55
77.5
61
30
49.2
4
GENERAL COMMENTS
T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS
I:
PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply
knowledge of Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business
transactions in the book of accounts and preparation of accounting statement in
private and public sector accounts.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER
The paper comprised of three questions whereby candidates were required to
answer all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 60%.
III:
TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS - MULTIPLE CHOICES
Candidates were required to choose the correct answers among the given
four alternatives.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 55
candidates who answered the question, 36 (65.5%) candidates passed
while the remaining 19 (34.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 33 (60.0%) and 03 (5.5%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: A. INTRODUCTION TO BOOKEEPING AND ACCOUNTING
B. PREPARATION OF TRIAL BALANCE
Candidates were required to:
(a) Define cheque.
(b) Explain distinguishing features of cheque.
(c) Use the given information to prepare journal entries for rectification
of errors and prepare suspense account
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 55
candidates who answered the question only 20 (36.4%) candidates
passed while the remaining 35 (63.6%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 15 (27.3%), 02 (3.6%) and 03 (5.5%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Some candidates were incompetent in the correction of errors
particularly double entry.
5
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the provided information to
(a) Prepare income statement for the given year.
(b) Prepare statement of financial position for the given year.
passed 21 (38.2%), 5 (9.1%) and 16 (29.1%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively.
Some candidates failed to know which items should go into the income
statement and which ones should go into the statement of financial
position.
IV:
(a)
(b)
GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
Assessment of the paper
The panel of examiners observed that the questions were clear and fair.
Also they commented that the Paper was of the standard and rigour required
and could be answered within the allocated time.
Candidates’ overall performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 55
candidates who answered the examination, 37 (67.3%) candidates passed while
the remaining 18 (32.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 30 (54.5%)
and 07 (12.7%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper
The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table 5.1.1
TABLE 5.1.1
T01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks
0-49
50-69
70-79
80-100
TOTAL
18
30
07
00
55
32.7
54.5
12.7
0.0
100
No. of Candidates
(Frequency)
Percentage
TABLE 5.1.2
T.01.COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
No. of candidates passed
%
51
70.8
No. of
passed
May 2016
candidates %
37
6
% decrease
67.3
15.9
T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
I:
The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the
collection, processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and
statistical knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related
subjects at higher levels.
II:
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to
III:
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: MULTIPLECHOICE – VARIOUS TOPICS
Candidates were required to choose the correct answers from the given
alternatives.
Major weaknesses were noted in the arithmetic sequence, annuity, and
on the use of simple harmonic mean.
QUESTION 2: A. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
B. EQUATIONS AND INEQUALITIES
C. MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE
Candidates were required to:(a) Find the selling price at a given rate of commission and the owner’s
amount.
(b) Solve ‘’a’’ for the given equation.
(c) Find the range of final examination scores for a student to score an
A, given final average and midterm examination scores.
(d) Find exact simple interest for the given days, loan amount and
interest rate per annum.
7
Most of the candidates failed algebraic expressions, equations and
inequalities specifically on how to solve specified variable, formulate
equations and inequalities and the use of appropriate formula for solving
simple interest.
QUESTION 3: A. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
B. INTRODUCTION TO STATISTICS AND DATA
COLLECTION
(a) Calculate the population in the current year given same growth
rate.
(b) Find the time that given men can take to weed given acres.
(c) Find out the representative fraction, length and the area of a dam
with given properties.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of
80 candidates who answered the question only 15 (18.8%) candidates
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Majority of the candidates failed to apply the compound interest formula
Pn = Po (1 + i) n. Also they did not manage to deal with units’ conversion
(centimetre to kilometre, kilometre to centimetre) in the given scales of
units.
QUESTION 4: A. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
B. MEASURES OF DISPERSION
C. INTRODUCTION TO STATISTICS AND DATA
COLLECTION
D. PERMUTATION AND CONTRIBUTION
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Define the median.
Justify conclusion on the mode.
Use the given data to:(i) Calculate mean deviation
(ii) Interpret the results
(iii)Define population of interest.
(i) Determine the number of possible permutations
(ii) Use the given data to calculate the expected profit
candidates who answered the question only 11 (13.8%) candidates passed
question.
8
Some of the candidates failed to identify mode and median and majority
could not manage to apply the expected profit formula E(x) = ∑x P(x).
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that
the question paper was having a mixture of both easy and difficult questions
which demanded the skills and knowledge of the candidate. The question
paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated, and length of
questions for the level of candidates.
Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.
(b)
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory.
Out of 80 candidates who answered the examination only 31 (38.7%)
candidates passed while the remaining 49 (61.3%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 24 (30.0%), 04 (5.0%) and 03 (3.8%) candidates scored
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table
5.1.3
TABLE 5.1.3
T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-49
No of Candidates
49
(Frequency)
61.3
Percentage
50-69
24
30.0
70-79
04
80-100
03
5.0
3.8
TOTAL
80
100
TABLE 5.1.4
T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
May 2016
%
No. of
candidates
% decrease
%
passed
45
55.6
31
9
38.7
28.2
T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
I:
The principal learning outcome of the paper is to enable candidates apply
knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business
environment.
II:
The paper comprised of three questions whereby candidates were required to
III:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLECHOICE
Candidates were required to;
(a)
(b)
(c)
Choose the best answer from the four given alternatives (A, B, C
or D)
State whether the given statements were true or false.
Match each phrase from LIST A with the phrase from LIST B
appropriately
candidates, 49 (54.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 41
(45.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 45 (50.0%), 03
(3.3%) and 01 (1.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively
There were no weakness noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: A. INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
B. HARDWARE
C. COMPUTER SOFTWARE
D. INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE
E. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES
Candidates were required to:(a) Explain uses of intranets and extranets in supporting organization
communication.
(b) Explain the most likely cause of printer failures to work and how to
fix it.
(c) Give reasons to why digital products are great fit for consumer
focused (B2C) e-commerce.
(d) Distinguish between a software suite and an integrated package.
(e) Differentiate between what-if analysis as it applies to spreadsheet
programs and recalculation.
(f) Explain how ICTs can build new businesses.
10
candidates who answered the question, 06 (6.7%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 84 (93.3%) candidates failed. There were
neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions
Majority of the candidates could not distinguish how intranets and
extranets can support communication in organizations. They also failed
to differentiate ‘’what-if’’ and ‘’recalculation’’, stating causes of printer
failure and explaining ‘’software suite’’ and ‘integrated package’’.
QUESTION 3: A. HARDWARE
B. COMPUTER SOFTWARE
C. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES
Candidates were required to use the provided information to;
(a)
(b)
(c)
Differentiate application software and system software; network
operating system and stand-alone operating system; transistors and
integrated circuits; hacking and cracking; static RAM and dynamic
RAM.
Mention five benefits of an integrated accounting to a typical
business.
Explain practical limitations that organizations will likely to
encounter when using integrated accounting systems.
credit and distinction marks respectively
Majority of the candidates were unable to provide the meaning of standalone operating system, transistors and integrated circuits, hacking and
cracking, static RAM and dynamic RAM.
11
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the
paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the
syllabus. The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of
marks was fair in relation to the time allocated.
(b)
Candidates overall performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out
of 90 candidates, 45 (50.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 45
(50.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 40 (44.4%) and 05
(5.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
5.1.5
TABLE 5.1.5
0-49
No. of Candidates
(Frequency)
50-69
70-79
80-100
TOTAL
45
40
05
00
90
50.0
44.4
5.6
0.0
100
Percentage
TABLE 5.1.6
T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
MAY 2015
82
May 2016
%
55.4
45
12
% decrease
%
50.0
29.1
T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS
I:
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master Basic
English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in
business environment.
II:
This paper consisted of six compulsory questions.
III:
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
B. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
The question was in two parts and candidates were required to:
(a)
(b)
Read a passage and
(i) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
(ii) Summarize the passage given with at least 150 words.
Punctuate and use capital letter in the given paragraph.
marks respectively
Most candidates failed to use original sentences from the passage to
write the required summary such that, it was difficult to determine their
competence in grammar.
QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Candidates were required to use the given information to:(a) Rewrite the given sentences with personal pronouns.
(b) State functions of the underlined nouns in the given sentences.
(c) Revise the given sentences to establish subject-verb agreement.
(d) Identify the types of sentences in terms of structure.
Most candidates were unable to relate pronouns and nouns, use of tenses
correctly based on a number and identifying sentences by their structure.
13
QUESTION 3: A. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
B. DEMONSTRATE LISTENING SKILLS
Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(a) Define video conference, conversation, meeting, encoder and nonverbal communication.
(b) Explain how a sender can be an obstacle in communication process.
(c) Mention five differences between listening and hearing.
Some candidates gave too short responses to be understood by the
examiner.
QUESTION 4: A. DEMONSTRATE VISUAL AND ORAL COMMUNICATION
SKILLS
B. DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS
Candidates were required to use the given information to:(c) Explain lateral, vertical and diagonal communication patterns as
used in the organization.
(b) Distinguish between ‘scanning’ and ‘skimming’.
Majority of candidates were unable to answer this question. Obviously,
this content was not attempted at all. Most of them skipped it and those
who attempted scored zero.
QUESTION 5: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
The candidates were required to use the given information to;
Write a letter to the Executive Director of the given company requesting
him to deal with the issue of being paid salary.
marks respectively.
14
Some candidates were unable to punctuate especially when writing
addresses. Much weaknesses were noted on how to write correct title,
location of a name, writer signature and grammar.
QUESTION 6: VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLE CHOICE AND MATCHING
ITEMS
Candidates were required to read the case study and:
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given alternatives
(b) Match the items in column A with those in list B to produce
complete and meaningful sentences.
marks respectively
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question. Most of them
scored it well.
15
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well
spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach of
well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the
time allocated.
(b)
of 61 candidates who answered the examination, 30 (49.2%) candidates
who passed 26 (42.6%) and 04 (6.6%) candidates scored pass and credit
examination paper.
5.1.7
TABLE 5.1.7
No. of Candidates
(Frequency)
Percentage
0-49
31
50.8
50-69
26
70-79
04
42.6
6.6
80-100
00
TOTAL
61
0.0
100
TABLE 5.1.8
T.04
COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
55
May 2016
%
77.5
30
16
% decrease
%
49.2
29.4
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this level, 160 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 41 (25.7%) passed, 61
(38.1%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 58 (36.3%) failed the
examination. The 41 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is
as shown on table 6.1
TABLE 6.1
ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2015 AND MAY
2016
Paper
Code No.
Subject
Performance
Entries
T.05
T.06
T.07
T.08
Principles of Accounting and
Auditing
Principles of Cost
Accounting and Procurement
Elements of Commercial
Knowledge, Management
Practices and Taxation
Accounting for Public Sector
and Cooperatives
May 2015
Pass
%
Entries
May 2016
Pass
%
97
37
38.1
126
50
39.7
72
44
61.1
113
48
42.5
65
44
67.7
92
53
57.6
90
40
44.4
116
54
46.6
17
T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING
I:
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of
basic concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting
statements and reports on a practical context as per IAS 1 and apply audit
knowledge in appraising data and assisting audit staff during audit undertakings.
II:
The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
question which carried 40%.
III:
In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1:
VARIOUS TOPICS
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given alternatives.
(b) Write whether true or false for each of the given statements.
(c) Match the phrases given in List B with that best explain the meaning
of items in List A.
candidates who answered the question 79 (62.7%) candidates passed
The noted weakness on this question was that candidates who failed in
this question seemed to guess instead of making computation in order to
get the correct alternative, as a result ended up getting wrong answers.
QUESTION 2: TRIAL BALANCE AND ERRORS.
(a) Define a trial balance and list the objectives of preparing it.
(b) Use information given to audit the account of the given client for
the given year.
126 candidates who answered the question, only 50 (39.7%) candidates
The major weaknesses noted in this question is that most candidates who
failed this question seemed not to understand clearly what trial balance
is, also did not understand the requirement of the part (b) of question,
instead of auditing they prepared income statement and financial
position.
18
QUESTION 3: BANK RECONCILIATION
(a) Explain main purposes of preparing a bank reconciliation statement
(b) Use given information to:(i) Bring the cash balance up to the given date
(ii) Draw a bank reconciliation statement as at a given period.
marks respectively
Most of candidates who performed poorly in this question were not able
to prepare bank reconciliation.
QUESTION 4: RECORDING OF AUDIT WORK
(a) (i) Outline five contents of audit working paper
(ii)Outline circumstances in which auditors are required to provide
access of the audit working papers.
(b) Mention preparatory procedures which auditor should consider when
carrying out audit planning.
126 candidates who answered the question 8 (6.3%) candidates passed
passed 7 (5.5%) and 01 (0.7%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively
Majority of candidates completely failed this question despite the fact
that the question was very clear and straightforward. It seems that during
the study candidates concentrate more in accounting and put less efforts
in auditing.
19
IV:
(a)
Assessment of the Examination
The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair,
clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.
(b)
Out of 126 candidates who answered the examination, only 50 (39.7%)
candidates passed while the remaining 76 (60.3%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 41 (32.5%), 5(4.0%) and 4 (3.2%) candidates scored
pass, and credit marks respectively
6.1.2
TABLE 6.1.2
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
0-49
50-69
70-79
80-100
TOTAL
76
41
05
04
126
60.3
32.5
4.0
3.2
100
TABLE 6.1.3
May 2015
May 2016
%
%
%
increase
37
38.1
50
39.7
14.9
20
T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT
I:
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates on application of
terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and
Procurement for providing management with information for decision making,
planning and controlling business operations.
II:
The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which
carried 40%.
III:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given alternatives.
(b) Write whether is true or false for each of the given statements
(c) Match the phrases given in List B with that best explain the meaning
of items in List A
passed 61 (54.0%), 5(4%) and 11 (10.0%) 4 candidates scored pass, and
credit marks respectively.
There was no major weakness observed. Majority of candidates
attempted well this question and offered a good range of issues.
QUESTION 2: SIMPLE BUDGETS
Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Sales revenue budget
Production budget in units
Materials consumption budget in units
Direct material purchase budget in units and value
Direct manufacturing labour budget
candidates who answered the question, only 31 (27.4%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 82 (72.6%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 10 (8.8%), 5 (4.4%) and 16 (14.2%) candidates scored
Most candidates showed weaknesses in the preparation of direct
manufacturing labour budget.
21
QUESTION 3: INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Highlight advantages of global sourcing
Mention contents of purchase requisition document for materials
Differentiate single tender from limited tender
Identify criteria used in evaluating the supplier.
Candidates’ performance in this question was fairly satisfactory. Out of
113 candidates only 66 (58.4%) candidates passed while the remaining
47 (41.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 32 (28.3%),
18(15.9%) and 16(14.2%) scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
No specific weakness noted in this question
QUESTION4:
PROCEDURES FOR ACCUMULATING LABOUR COSTS.
(a)
Calculate
(i)Normal piece rate
(ii)Below standard piece rate
(iii)Above standard piece rate
(b)
Calculate
(i) Wages paid to given machine’s operator process on that date.
(ii) Calculate the wages paid to second machine’s operator on that
date.
113 candidates, only 11 (9.7%) candidates passed while the remaining
102 (90.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 07 (6.2%), 02
marks respectively.
The major weakness noted on this question is that majority of the
candidates failed to calculate labour rate required. Furthermore, most of
them lacked adequate knowledge on labour cost and efficiency
computations.
22
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded
and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well
mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could
have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the
allocated time of three hours.
(b)
Candidates Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this question paper was satisfactory. Out of
113 candidates who answered the examination, 48 (42.5%) candidates
who passed 35 (31.0%), 06 (5.3%) and 07 (6.2%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in
this examination paper.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 6.1.4
TABLE 6.1.4
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
0-49
65
57.5
50-69
35
31.0
70-79
06
5.3
80-100
07
6.2
TOTAL
113
100
TABLE 6.1.5
May 2015
44
May 2016
%
61.1
48
23
%
increase
%
42.5
4.3
T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE, MANAGEMENT
PRACTICES AND TAXATION
I:
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge of commerce, commercial law, management and taxation in managing
business functions.
II:
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective type which carried 40%.
III:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE
(a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given alternatives.
(b) Write whether is true or false for each of the given statements.
No specific weakness observed on this question.
QUESTION 2: (i) TAX ADMINISTRATION
(ii) LAW OF CONTRACT
(a) Discuss powers of TRA.
(b) Differentiate between ‘tax evasion’ and ‘tax avoidance’.
(c) Name and explain types of vitiating factors that undermine business
contracts.
candidates, only 19 (20.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 73
(6.7%) and 03 (3.3%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks
respectively
Weakness observed on this question was that majority of candidates
were not able to discuss powers of TRA as provided in marking guide,
likewise candidates were unable to explain vitiating factor that
undermine business contracts.
24
QUESTION 3: (i) INTRODUCTION TO INCOME TAX PRINCIPLES
(ii) OFFICE MANAGEMENT AND MECHANIZATION
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Identify and explain principles of taxation system
Explain conditions under which one can claim tax refund.
Name and explain importance of control function in an office
Identify two main qualities of a manager
(10.9) and 09 (9.8%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks
respectively.
Most of candidates who failed this question did not comprehend its
requirements, however the question was clear.
QUESTION 4: (i) INTERNATIONAL TRADE
(ii) LAW OF AGENCY
(a)
(b)
State at least five disadvantages that characterise international
business.
Enumerate five methods of terminating an agency
marks respectively.
The major weakness is that majority of candidates seemed to guess
answers and were unable to provide sufficient explanation as required by
the question.
25
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the
level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions
and could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an
average prepared candidate.
(b)
Candidates’ Overall Performance
passed while the remaining 39(42.4%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 42(64.7%) and 2 (3%) candidates scored pass and distinction
marks respectively.
TABLE 6.1.6
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
0-49
39
50-69
42
70-79
04
80-100
07
TOTAL
92
42.4
45.7
4.3
7.6
100
TABLE 6.1.7
May 2015
44
May 2016
%
67.7
53
26
% increase
%
57.6
9.1
T.08
ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES
I:
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
public sector and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage
government and cooperative funds economically, efficiently and effectively in
accordance with the constitution, laws, rules and regulations in one or more
specialised fields.
II:
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective type which carried 40%.
III:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLECHOICE
Candidates were required to choose the most correct answer among the
four given alternatives.
The noted weakness was that candidates showed poor mastering of
concepts of the tested topic particularly on government accounting.
QUESTION 2: (i) GOVERNMENT GENERAL CASH MANAGEMENT AND
CONTROL
(ii) TERMINAL BENEFITS AND PENSION CALCULATION
(a) Prepare statement of cash flows for the given company for the
given year.
(b) Identify pillars of the social security system in Tanzania.
(c) Explain mandatory social security scheme that are regulated by
Social Security Regulatory Authority in Tanzania.
Candidates’ performance in this question was poor as all 116 (100%)
candidates failed.
All candidates showed poor mastery and knowledge on the tested topic.
27
QUESTION 3: (i) ACCOUNTING FOR GOVERNMENT REVENUE AND
EXPENDITURE
(ii) ANNUAL FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND ACCOUNTS
(a) (i)Explain key sources of revenue available to the council from the
central government and two sources of council’s internally generated
revenue.
(ii) Mention bases that are used to classify expenditures in local
government authorities.
(b) Prepare a Statement of Financial Performance of given council for
the given year.
(c) Explain the meaning of the term “accrual basis of accounting’’
116 candidates, 41 (35.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 75
marks respectively.
Major weakness observed in this question was that majority candidates
had poor competency and understanding of performance statement.
QUESTION 4: ACCOUNTING FOR COOPERATIVES
Candidates were required to explain the statement below in relation to
the establishment and managing the cooperatives in Tanzania:(i) The differences between cooperatives and other forms of business
(ii) Spirit of cooperation and equity
(iii) Cooperatives rules have their own rules
(iv) Rules and regulations on using cooperative funds
candidates, 73 (62.9%) candidates scored pass marks while the
remaining 43 (37.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 45
(38.8%), 13 (11.2%) and 15 (12.9%) scored pass, credit and marks
respectively.
The noted weakness was that some of the candidates were not familiar
with cooperative principles.
28
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced
containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It
was further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done
within the time allocated of three hours.
(b)
Candidates’ Overall Performance
Out of 116 candidates who answered the examination 54 (46.6%) candidates
passed while the remaining 62 (53.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 51 (44.0%) and 03 (2.6%) candidates scored pass, and credit marks
respectively.
TABLE 6.1.8
0-49
62
50-69
51
70-79
03
80-100
00
TOTAL
PERCENTAGE
53.4
44.0
2.6
0.0
100
116
TABLE 6.1.9
May 2015
40
May 2016
%
44.4
54
29
%
%
46.6
increase
14.9
INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – ATEC I
AND ATEC II LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in
transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 42 candidates who sat examination papers
in the ATEC I and II Levels.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
S/No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
COMBINATION
Pass Both
Pass ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II
Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II
Partial Pass ATEC I, Pass ATEC II
Partial Pass Both
Partial Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II
Fail ATEC I, Pass ATEC II
Fail ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II
Fail Both
Total
30
ATEC I & II
Number
Percent
2
4.8
9
21.4
6
14.3
0
0.0
0
0.0
0
0.0
1
2.4
7
16.6
17
40.5
42
100.0
PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which
leads to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award.
The Foundation level examinations comprise of five subjects as indicated hereunder:
A1
A2
A3
A4
A5
Accounting
Business Law
The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely:(a)
Those candidates who have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting
Technician Level examinations.
(b)
Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)
qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized
by the Board.
During the May 2016 examination session, a total of 445 candidates sat for Foundation
Level examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 140 candidate who sat for both Foundation and
Intermediate level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of
Intermediate Level Report.
In this examination 445 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 233 (52.4%)
passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for the
Foundation Level. 171 (38.4%) have passed some of the subjects while 41 (9.2%)
candidates failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.1
TABLE 7.1
SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY 2015 AND MAY 2016
Performance
Paper
Code
No.
Subject
A1
193
133
68.9
182
128
70.3
A2
147
122
82.9
160
150
93.8
A3
Accounting
226
209
91.6
303
221
72.9
A4
251
202
80.5
321
254
79.1
A5
Business Law
138
81
58.7
180
127
70.6
May 2015
Entries
Pass
31
%
May 2016
Entries
Pass
%
QUESTION -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
I:
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and
tools in the day to day accounting, business functions and decision making.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective question which carried 60%.
III:
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
For each of the statements provided candidates were required to use the
given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer:Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 182
The multiple choices provided were clear, fair and appropriately set
based on the syllabus to the extent that majority did well and thus no
major common weakness was observed in this question.
QUESTION
2:
LINEAR
PROGRAMMING,
TRANSPORT
AND
ASSIGNMENT MODELS AND INVENTORY PLANNING AND
CONTROL.
The candidates were required to:
(a)
(b)
(c)
From the data given, they were required to:
(i) Calculate how the named item could be moved between sites
in order to minimize the distance travelled.
(ii) Determine the minimum total distance travelled.
(i) Write down three inequalities to represent the condition given.
(ii) Determine the number of each item given that could be
purchased to realize a maximum profit.
(iii)Determine the greatest profit.
(i) Find the optimum quantity to minimize inventory costs.
(ii) Determine the number of orders placed per year.
(iii)Determine the length of inventory cycle.
32
who passed 18 (9.9%), 07 (3.9%) and 02 (01.1%) candidates scored pass,
Not only most of the candidates failed to use the applicable methods
when solving questions but also they failed to formulate the required
three inequalities as the key component of the entire question.
QUESTION 3: LINEAR REGRESSION AND CORRELATION ANALYSIS
PROBABILITY AND RANDOM VARIABLE, PROBABILITY
DISTRIBUTION
AND
ELEMENTS
OF
DECISION
ANALYSIS
The candidates were required to:
(a)
(b)
(c)
Use the data given to:
(i) Find the mean of the given variables.
(ii) Calculate the correlation of the variables.
Find expected value of a given random variable with probability
distribution.
(i) Find the probability of a given event if the two given events
are mutually exclusive.
(ii) Find the probability of the same given event if the two given
events are independent.
passed 17 (9.3%), 10 (5.5%) and 03 (1.7%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively
Despite of the fact that the question was clear and within the scope of the
candidates’ level, they did not do it satisfactorily as candidates seem to be
not very much familiar with the topic tested.
33
IV:
(a)
Assessment of the Paper
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with
a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated
to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to complete
the examination.
(b)
Candidates’ performance
who passed 102 (56%), 24 (24.0%) and 02 (1.1%) candidates scored pass,
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.1
TABLE 7.1.1
A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
54
102
24
02
182
29.7
56.0
13.2
1.1
100
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
TOTAL
TABLE 7.1.2
A1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
May 2016
% decrease
%
%
133
68.9
127
70.6
34
2.3
A2 –
BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT
I:
Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply
concepts and principles of business and management in business environment.
II:
The paper consisted of three questions which were compulsory. Question one was
an objective question which comprised of 60%.
III:
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(31.3%) and 16 (10%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively
Majority of candidates attempted the question correctly, though few,
who failed, provided guess answers.
QUESTION 2: BASIC CONCEPTS OF COMPETITIVE ADVANTAGE AND
BASICS OF GOVERNANCE, SUSTAINABILITY, CORPORATE
SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY AND ETHICS
(a) (i)
Explain the meaning of competitive advantage.
(ii)
Identify and describe the importance of competitive
advantage to a company.
(iii)
Critically discuss three factors to work on to ensure that
competitive advantage is attained for a particular business.
(b) (i)
Explain the meaning of corporate governance.
(ii)
Identify and describe key principles of corporate
governance that managers have to exercise.
(iv)
Describe four major responsibilities of the Board of
Directors.
35
Despite that a good number of candidates did this question very well,
majority of them were unable to describe key principles of corporate
governance and major responsibility of the Board of Directors.
QUESTION 3:
BASICS OF GOVERNANCE, SUSTAINABILITY CORPORATE
SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY AND ETHICS
Candidates were required to:(a)
(i)
Explain four responsibilities of a business entity towards the
society.
(ii) Examine four common objectives of most business
organizations in the country and critically discuss how a
manager may obtain each objective and beat his competitors.
(b) (i) Identify and explain five benefits of the strategic planning
systems.
(ii) Describe any five major problems associated with the strategic
planning systems which are encountered by managers.
The question was clear and fair in such a way that majority of them did
well consequently no major weakness was identified.
36
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be well spread within the
syllabus which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.
(b)
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
(06.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 66 (41.3%), 67 (41.9%)
and 17 (10.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.2
TABLE 7.1.3
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
10
66
67
17
160
PERCENTAGE
6.3
41.3
41.9
10.6
100
TABLE 7.1.4
May 2015
May 2016
%
%
%
increase
122
82.9
150
93.8
10.3
37
A3 –
ACCOUNTING
I:
knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing financial
statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance with the
IFRSs and IPSASs,
II:
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
III:
The A3 – Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the following
topics:
marks respectively
No major weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATION OF TRIAL BALANCE AT THE END OF AN
ACCOUNTING PERIOD.
(a) (i) Use the given information to prepare the journal entries to
correct
the errors identified.
(ii) Use the given information to prepare suspense account showing
the original difference in the trial balance.
(b) Use the given information to prepare Receipts and Payment account
for the year ended.
Some candidates showed weaknesses on the preparation of journal entries
to correct the identified errors.
38
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF ACCOUNTS FROM INCOMPLETE
RECORDS
(a)
(b)
(c)
Use the given information to compute the figure of sales for
inclusion in the entity’s financial statements for the year ended.
Use the given information to determine the value of stock which
was destroyed by fire.
Use the given information to:
(i) Calculate the entity’s own drawings
(ii) Calculate the profit or loss of the business for the period
ended.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out
of 303 candidates who answered the question, only 46 (15.2%)
candidates passed while the remaining 257 (84.8%) candidates
failed. Out of those who passed 33 (10.9%), 10 (3.3%) and 03
(1.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Most of the students failed to calculate mark up and value of stock
destroyed by fire. They also failed to calculate the unknown values
using T- accounts and equation.
QUESTION 4: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS IN
ACCORDANCE WITH IFRS
(a)
Briefly explain two basic reasons as to why a business can be
making profits as shown in the statement of profit or loss and other
comprehensive income but still be running short of cash.
(b)Use the given information to prepare the Statement of Cash Flow
for the year ended using the indirect method.
303 candidates who answered the question only 126 (41.6%)
candidates passed while the remaining 177 (58.4%) candidates failed.
Out of those who passed 86 (28.4%), 37 (12.2%) and 03 (1.1%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Above average candidates failed to prepare the statement of cash flow
which was a very direct question.
39
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage
of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to
complete the examination within the allocated time.
(b)
Candidates’ Performance
of 303 candidates, 221 (72.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 82
marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table
7.1.5
TABLE 7.1.5
PERCENTAGE
0-39
82
27.1
40-59
186
61.3
60-79
32
10.6
80-100
03
1.0
TOTAL
303
100
TABLE 7.1.6
May 2016
209
May 2016
% increase
%
%
91.6
221
72.9
40
2.8
A4 –
BUSINESS INFORMATION
I:
knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce
accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and
its application in performance management.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
III:
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
For each of the statements provided candidates were required to use
the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer:Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 321
No common weakness was observed.
QUESTION 2:
REGRESSION ANALYSIS
From the cost structure given, students were required to:
(a) Use regression analysis to identify:
(i) Variable cost per unit.
(ii) Monthly fixed cost
(b) Estimate the cost of production for the given period and comment
on the accuracy of the estimate
Out of those who passed 48 (14.9%) and 22 (6.9%) candidates scored
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
marks in this question.
Most candidates failed to use regression analysis to identify variable
and fixed costs.
41
QUESTION 3: COSTING
(a) Prepare process A and B accounts from the given details
(b) Calculate the Net Present Value at a cost of capital given
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory.
Out of 321 candidates who answered the question, 274 (85.4%)
Out of those who passed 62 (19.4%), 77 (24%) and 135 (42%)
No common weakness was observed.
QUESTION 4: FORECASTING AND BUDGETING
(a) Describe four ways in which an organisation can improve its cash
cycle
(b) (i) Prepare a quarterly and annual cash budget for the given
period of time.
(ii) Suggest four ways that one may consider for improving cash
management for the given period.
Candidates were weak in expressing themselves and reasoning. They
were memorizing answers from the materials given.
42
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.
(b)
Overall Candidates performance
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.1.7
TABLE 7.1.7
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
0-39
67
40-59
170
60-79
79
80-100
05
TOTAL
321
20.9
52.9
24.6
1.6
100
TABLE 7.1.8
May 2015
202
May 2016
% increase
%
%
80.5
254
79.1
43
11.4
A5 –
BUSINESS LAW
I:
theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services
and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:
The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five
questions.
III:
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: LEGISLATIVE PROCESS
(a)
(b)
Define Law
Mention and explain steps involved in the legislative
process after a bill is presented in the Parliament.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of
139 candidates who answered the question 79 (56.9%) candidates
passed while the remaining 60 (43.1%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 45 (32.4%), 25 (18%) and 09 (6.5%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most of the candidates who failed in this question were unable to
explain in chronological order the stages which the bill passes until it
becomes a law.
QUESTION 2:
SOURCE OF LAW AND THE LEGAL SYSTEM
(a)
(b)
Mention and explain any four sources of business law in
Tanzania.
Discuss at least two rights and duties of the parties to a
transaction in any four legislations relating to business law
150 candidates who answered the question, 87 (58.0%) candidates
those who passed 60 (40.0%), 19 (12.7%) and 08 (5.3%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates who failed this question were not able to understand
the requirements of part (b) of this question.
44
QUESTION 3:
THE NATURE AND CHARACTERISTICS OF AGENCY
(a)
(b)
(c)
Discuss the legal differences between an “agent” and “subagent”.
(i) Explain the concept of “delegatus non protest delegare”
(ii) Mention any three (3) exceptions to “delegatus non protest
delegare”
Mention and explain any three types of agencies.
Candidates failed to relate the Latin Maxim “delegates non protest
delegare” with the law of agency.
QUESTION 4:
INTRODUCTION TO PUBLIC PROCUREMENT
(a) (i) Define a ‘tender’.
(ii) Mention and explain stages in the tendering process.
(b) Use the given case to explain under circumstances in which an
accounting officer of procuring entity loses his power to
entertain a complaint or a dispute arising out of procurement
proceedings
(c) Use the given case to advise the procuring entity on the best
method of procurement they should use in order to get the best
solution to their problem given.
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
marks in this question.
No candidate was able to advise on the best procurement method
basing on the given scenario.
45
QUESTION 5: COMPANY LAW AND INSOLVENCY
(a) Briefly identify and explain duties and responsibilities of an auditor
of a company.
(b) State the difference between an Annual General Meeting (AGM)
and an Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM).
(c) In relation to winding up of companies;
(i) Define an “administration order”
(ii) State at least two (2) purposes that an “administration order” is
intended to achieve.
No common weakness observed.
QUESTION 6: COMPANY LAW AND INSOLVENCY
(a)
(b)
Mention and explain the exceptions to the given general rule.
Read the given scenario and discuss issues relating to the
formation of a company and effects of incorporation.
passed 21 (28.4%), 4 (5.4%) and 1 (1.4%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively
No major common weakness was identified in this question.
.
QUESTION 7: PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND CONDUCT
(a) Mention and explain the fundamental principles underlying the
conduct of accountants and auditors while undertaking professional
assignments.
(b) Use the given scenario to:(i) Identify and explain ethical issues which can impede the given
accountant from taking the assignment with the given bank
(ii) Explain the validity and the legal implications arising from the
partnership relations between to the accountants in the auditing
firm in relation to capital ownership
46
No major weakness was identified in this question
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.
(b)
Overall Candidates performance
candidates who answered the Examination, 127 (70.6%) candidates passed
passed 110(461.1%) and 17 (9.4%) candidates scored pass and credit
Examination.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table
7.1.9
TABLE 7.1.9
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
TOTAL
53
110
17
00
180
29.4
61.1
9.4
0.0
100
TABLE 7.1.10
A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
81
May 2016
% increase
%
%
58.7
127
70.6
47
22.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional
examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level
consists of six subjects as shown hereunder:B1
B2
B3
B4
B5
B6
Auditing Principles and Practices
Public Finance and Taxation I
Management, Governance and Ethics
Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete
Foundation Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were
caught in the transition from the phased out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed
to cross the levels.
During the May 2016 examination session, a total of 3,495 candidates sat for
Intermediate Level examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 1,485 candidate who sat for both Intermediate and
Final level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of these levels’
report.
48
The examination draws candidates from the following sources:
(a)
Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding
subjects.
(b)
Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes from
recognized institutions.
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this session 3,495 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of
whom 366 (10.5%) have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 1,135 (32.5%) have passed some of the subjects while
1,994 (57.1%) candidates have failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 8.1
TABLE 8.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: MAY
2015 AND MAY 2016
Paper
Code
No.
Performance
Subject
May 2015
May 2016
Entries
Pass
%
Entries
Pass
%
B1
754
205
27.2
1,227
441
35.9
B2
745
318
42.7
1,109
502
45.3
B3
Auditing
Practices
662
355
53.6
916
415
45.3
B4
Public Finance & Taxation I
701
556
79.3
1,087
444
40.8
B5
2,567
754
29.4
2,526
316
12.5
B6
Management, Governance &
Ethics
560
526
93.9
733
539
69.7
Principles
and
49
B1
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
I:
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability
to apply financial management knowledge and skills in valuing various assets as
well as businesses, in evaluating investment opportunities, in forecasting and
planning financial needs of a firm, in deciding on the level of debt financing to
use relative to equity capital, in determining the level of working capital to carry
in a business and in deciding on the share of the earnings after tax between
retained earnings and shareholders.
II:
The paper had two sections A and B, with seven questions carrying 20 marks
each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other
four out of six questions in Section B.
III:
The following topics were tested in this paper:-
QUESTION 1: INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCIAL DECISION;
ENVIRONMENT; INVESTMENT DECISION
Candidates were required to:(a) Explain any three ways in which the management of a corporate
firm can be encouraged to achieve the objective of maximization of
shareholders’ wealth.
(b) Use the given information about a person who was working as an
assistant adviser at one finance company to prepare a brief note for
given person which covers on the following issues to advise him on
his proposed investment:
(i) Explanation of the terms portfolio theory, systematic and
unsystematic risk
(ii) The expected return and risk as measured by standard deviation
for each share and the proposed portfolio
(iii) The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) on the efficiency of
the proposed portfolio considering that its beta(s) is likely to be
0.843
Out of 1227 candidates who answered the question 851 (69.4%)
No major weakness was observed
50
QUESTION 2: FINANCING DECISIONS
Candidates were required to:(a)
(b)
Explain any three (3) factors that determine the capital structure of
a corporation.
Use the given information relating to a company which was
planning to raise TZA 15 million as new finance for major
expansion; to:
(i) Evaluate the financial performance of given Company.
(ii) Analyse and discuss the extent to which the company has
achieved its stated corporate objectives of maximizing the
wealth of its shareholders and achieving continuous growth
in earnings per share.
(iii) Calculate and comment on the effect of the right issue on the
share price, the earning per share and the debt equity ratio if
the new finance is raised using a right issue priced at
TZS.7.50 per share and the expansion has not yet started,
question.
Most candidates failed to state factors that determine the capital
structure of a corporation and objectives of maximizing the wealth of its
shareholders and achieving continuous growth in earnings per share
QUESTION 3: INVESTMENT DECISIONS:
Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning one
company which is listed on a major stock exchange; to:(a) Estimate the value of given Company using the price-earnings
ratio
method and discuss the usefulness of the variables that you have
used.
(b) Calculate the correct cost of equity of given Company Ltd and,
using this value, calculate the value of the company using the
dividend valuation model.
(c) Calculate the current weighted average after-tax cost of capital of
given Company Ltd and the weighted average after-tax cost of
capital following the new debt issue. Comment on the difference
between the two values.
(d) Identify the objectives of working capital management and discuss
the central role of working capital management in financial
management
51
Out of 631 candidates who answered the question, 303 (48.0%)
candidates passed while the remaining 328 (52%) candidates failed.
No major weakness was observed.
QUESTION 4: INVESTMENT IN SECURITIES AND PORTFOLIO THEORY
AND THE CAPM
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning a
given company’s capital structure at a given period; to calculate the
reformatted capital structure at a given period assuming that the
company declared a 5% stock dividend at the given period.
(b) Use the given statement on the company which has a policy of
paying out 70% of its earnings dividends to evaluate the policy,
assuming that most stockholders are:(i) Senior citizens (old people) in low tax brackets.
(ii) High network individual in high tax brackets.
(c) Examine any four factors which determine a company’s dividend
policy
952 candidates who answered the question, only 150 (15.8%)
Most candidates were weak in establish new capital structure of the
given company and to explain factors which determine a company’s
dividend policy.
QUESTION 5: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT
(a) Candidates were required to use the given statement about the net
working capital of a business which is related to the concepts of
overtrading and undertrading to explain the meaning of
‘overtrading’ and ‘undertrading’ and briefly discuss the major
causes of each.
(b) Use the given information concerning one company’s sales that are
expected to increase at a given period to:
(i) Calculate given company’s additional funds needed for the
given year end
(ii) Calculate the value of assets for the given year end.
(iii) Calculate the amount of notes payable at the end of the given
period if the additional funds are to be raised through notes
payable.
52
(c) Use the given assumption about the cost of a four year university
first degree education to:(i) Find the rate of interest that the given investment earn to pay
the cost of the four year university education
(ii) Find the annual payments assuming that in order to accumulate
the sum required under (i) have planned to make equal
payments at the end of every year
Candidates failed to understand the question requirements. Few who
tried to attempt failed to link the topic of working capital in practical
scenario of change in working capital
QUESTION 6: DIVIDEND POLICY AND INVESTMENT DECISIONS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning
one company which purchased a special machine one year ago at a
given cost to calculate:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(c)
The cost of initial investment of the new machine
The incremental cash inflow after taxes
The Net Present Value (NPV) of the new investment; and
The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of the new investment.
Use the given information about one company which has
developed a
new type of digital recorder to explain if the discount rate of 15%
would make the firm to conduct the test marketing or go directly to
the market
Discuss any four ways of incorporating risk into the investment
appraisal process.
question.
Those who failed were not able to calculate the NPV and IRR according
to the requirements of the question
53
QUESTION 7: INVESTMENT DECISIONS:
(INVESTMENT APPRAISAL: CAPITAL BUDGETING)
(a)
Candidates were required to identify the problems faced when
undertaking investment appraisal and explain how these problems
can be overcome in the following areas:
(i) Assets with replacement cycles of different lengths;
(ii) An investment project that has several internal rates of return;
(iii) The business risk of an investment project is significantly
different from the business risk of current operations.
(b) Explain the effect of leverage on the value of the firm:
(i) In a perfect market without taxes and financial distress.
(ii) In a world with taxes and financial distress.
(c) Use the given information about a successful UK based
multinational company which was considering to raise funds for
project in Tanzania during the following year; to establish the best
option for the company to raise finance. Compute the resulting
average cost of capital
who passed 15 (2.5%) and 02(0.3%) candidates scored pass and credit
question.
Candidates failed to answer the question in accordance to the
requirements.
54
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of
the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty
percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
theoretical and computational questions.
(b)
Out of 1227 candidates, only 441 (35.9%) candidates passed while the
(34.1%) and 23(1.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
8.1.1
TABLE 8.1.1
B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION
MARKS
OF
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
00-39
40-59
60-79
TOTAL
23
80100
00
786
418
64.1
34.1
1.8
0.0
100
1,227
TABLE 8.1.2
B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
205
May 2016
%
27.2
55
441
% increase
%
35.9
36.5
B2
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
I:
to apply knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate
entity and a group in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyse
financial statements to examine the suitability of the business entity.
II:
III:
QUESTION 1: PREPARATION OF CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL
STATEMENTS:
Candidates were required to use the given information which was about
a group of accounts which were already prepared with the exception of
consolidating the parent’s interest in the new joint; to prepare the
consolidated statement of financial position and the consolidated
statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income of a given
group of company at a given period.
1109 candidates, only 112 (10.1%) candidates passed while the
(4.9%), 26 (2.3%) and 32 (2.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively
Most candidates failed to prepare the consolidated statement of
financial position and the consolidated statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income.
QUESTION 2: ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING CONCEPTS, FRAMEWORKS
AND PRACTICES
Candidates were required to use the given information about the trial
balance for the given company to:
(a) Prepare the statement of Profit or Loss & Other Comprehensive
Income for given company for the year ended given period.
(b) Prepare the statement of changes in equity for given company for
the year ended given period.
(c) Prepare the statement of financial position of given company as at
given period.
56
Most candidates failed to prepare statement of financial position and
statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
QUESTION 3: PREPARING SINGLE ENTRY AND SINGLE COMPANY
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to
concerning the financial statement of one company for its most
recent two years to calculate the following for year ended at the
given period:
(i) Equivalent ratios (all six) to the given company based on its
reported figures; and
(ii) Equivalent ratios to the first four only for given company
excluding the effects of the purchase of given company.
Note: Assume the capital employed for given company is equal to
its purchase price of TZS.50 billion.
(b) Assess the comparative financial performance and position of
given company for the year ended given period.
Note: The answer should refer to the effects of the purchase of
given company.
Most of candidates failed to compute equivalent ratios as per the
question requirements.
57
QUESTION 4: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ANALYSIS AND EVALUATION
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning
consolidated financial statements to explain the justification for such
a treatment for subsidiaries whose equity is not fully owned in the
group, and state why this is normally not the case for associates
(b) Use the given information about one plc company which had
1,500,000 ordinary shares in issue and a give profit after tax to
calculate the basic and diluted Earnings per Share for the given
period
Most of candidates failed to compute basic and diluted earnings per
Share.
QUESTION 5: ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
one company’s Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31st
December 2015 to prepare a statement of cash flows of given
company for the given period using Indirect Method.
passed 289 (29.8%), 292 (30.1%) and 130 (13.4%) candidates scored
No major weakness was noted in this question
QUESTION 6: ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING CONCEPTS
FRAMEWORK AND PRACTICES
one public listed company that operates a number of leather products
factories to:
(i)
Define a qualifying asset using examples
(ii)
Explain the circumstances when, borrowing costs and the
amount at which, borrowing costs should be capitalized in
accordance with IAS 23.
(iii) Explain when capitalization of borrowing costs commences.
58
(b) Use the given information about the details of one company
constructing a new factory to calculate the net borrowing cost that
should be capitalized as part of the cost of the new factory and the
finance cost that should be reported in the Statement of Profit or
Loss for the year ended 31st March 2016
Most of candidates failed to define a qualifying asset and explain the
circumstances when, borrowing costs and the amount at which,
borrowing costs should be capitalized in accordance with IAS 23
QUESTION 7: ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
(a) Candidates were required to take prudence as the main consideration
to discuss under what circumstances, if any, revenue might be
recognized at the following stages of a sale:(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
Goods are acquired by the business which it confidently
expects to resell very quickly.
A customer places a firm order for goods.
Goods are delivered to the customer.
The customer is invoiced for goods.
The customer pays for the goods.
The customer’s cheque in payment for the goods has been
cleared by the bank.
(b) Use the give information about a company that signed a contract to
design and build a new golf course at one hotel, to calculate the total
contract revenue and costs that should be included in the financial
statements at a given year end.
No major weakness was noted in this question
59
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering over seventy
five percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
theoretical and computational questions.
(b)
1,109 candidates who answered the examination, 673 (45.3%) candidates
8.1.1
TABLE 8.1.3
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
00-39
607
40-59
457
60-79
43
80-100
02
TOTAL
1,109
54.7
41.2
3.9
0.2
100
TABLE 8.1.4
May 2015
318
May 2016
%
42.7
502
60
% increase
%
45.3
22.4
B3
AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
I:
to apply auditing principles and standards in executing external audit assignments
(carrying out audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as
implementing entity’s internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.
II:
III:
The following topics were tested in this paper:QUESTION 1: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION
OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
(a)
Candidates were required to use the given information to
concerning a
company which manufactures a range of motor vehicles and its
year end on 30th June, to:
(i) Evaluate the factors that a given Associates should consider
when placing reliance on the work of the independent valuer
(ii) Describe the substantive procedures the auditor should
perform to obtain
Sufficient and appropriate audit evidence in relation to:
1.
2.
(c)
The revaluation of land and buildings and the recently
purchased warehouse.
The valuation of work in progress.
Use the given information related to information given in part (a)
above that the auditing team has established that the given
company has applied some outdated information that lead to
unrealistic assumptions, to advise the given associates on steps to
be taken and the impact on the audit report in relation to the
directors’ refusal to amend the financial statements
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory.
Out of 916 candidates, only 323 (35.5%) candidates passed while
the remaining 593 (64.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 240 (26.2%), 78(8.5%) and 05 (0.5%) candidates scored
61
Most of candidates failed to explain factors that an external
auditor should consider when placing reliance on the work of the
independent valuer and substantive procedures the auditor should
perform to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence
QUESTION 2: BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORTS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning an
(b) audit report which has to be produced by auditors after gathering
evidence, to:(i)
(ii)
(c)
Identify and explain any five shortcomings in the above draft
audit report and suggest the necessary amendments to be
made.
Explain the meaning of an unmodified audit opinion in
accordance with ISA 700: Forming an opinion and reporting
on financial statements.
Use the give information about the International federation of
Accountants (IFAC) as a global organization for accountancy
professionals to explain briefly the five (5) fundamental principles of
the IESBA Code of Ethics for professional accountants.
QUESTION 3: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION
OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
Candidates were required to use the given information which was about
one external auditing firm for the given period where an auditor senior
had carried out preliminary assessment of the business to use the event
given in this case to:
(a) Describe the additional audit procedures you should carry out.
(b) With reasons state whether the financial statements for the yearend will need to be amended.
(c)
Discuss, with reasons, the impact on the audit report and indicate
the type of report that would be appropriate.
62
Most of the candidates failed to identify if the event occurred after the
balance sheet date would cause changes on statements or not as per the
requirements IAS 10 and their impact on auditors report as requirements
of ISASs 700 and 702
QUESTION 4: PROFESSIONAL ETHICS AND CONDUCT
(a) Candidates were required to use the given statement concerning
client confidentiality which underpins the relationship between
auditors and their clients explain the circumstances in which
NBAA’s Code of Ethics permits or requires external auditors to
disclose information relating to their clients to third parties without
the knowledge or consent of the client
(b) Use the given information concerning external auditors of a disposal
company which had breached various regulations to describe how
one would respond to the types of requests given in that case.
(c)
Use the information given about one company which manufactures
bottled drinks and has been an audit client for six years, to identify
and explain the ethical and professional matters rose during the
inventory count of given company.
Most of the candidates could not identify in which circumstances the
NBAA’s Code of Ethics permits or requires external auditors to disclose
information relating to their clients and ethical and professional matters
rose during the inventory count.
63
QUESTION 5: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT
AND ASSURANCE
Candidates were required to use the given information about Certified
Public Accountant firm which has recently obtained a new audit client,
to:(a) Explain how this new internal audit function can assist a given
company to deal with risk of fraud and error.
(b) Explain the responsibilities of external auditors in respect of the
risk of fraud and error in an audit of financial statements.
(c) Identify the additional roles the internal auditors may have within
the given company
Out of those who passed 144 (25.2%), 37 (6.5%) and 06 (1.1)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates could not explain how this new internal audit function
can assist a given company to deal with risk of fraud and error.
QUESTION 6: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT
AND ASSURANCE-PUBLIC SECTOR EXTERNAL AUDITING
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare
five questions that one would think an auditor should consider prior
to accepting a new client under each of the following headings:
(i)
Questions related to Industry/client knowledge
(ii)
Questions related to Independence of Auditors
(b) Use ISA 200 to explain the overall objectives of the auditor as
provided for in this standard
(c) Use the give statement about Article 143 of the constitution of the
United Republic of Tanzania to explain to which matters the
Controller and Auditor General has responsibility over as enshrined
under Article 143 of the Constitution cited in the given statement.
Most candidate failed to state the responsibility of Controller and Auditor
General as enshrined under Article 143 of the Constitution and questions
auditor should ask to understand the client as requirement of ISA 315.
64
QUESTION 7: BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORTS
Candidates were required to use the given information concerning the
definition of assurance engagement to:(a) Briefly explain the contents of an assurance engagement report.
(b) Give four reasons that make it impossible to reduce assurance
engagement risk to zero.
(c) Explain when accepting the assurance engagement what factors
would determine the extent of your planning activities.
65
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eight five
percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
questions.
(54.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 398 (43.4%) and 17
(1.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this question.
8.1.5
TABLE 8.1.5
B3
CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
00-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
TOTAL
501
398
17
00
916
54.7
43.4
1.9
0.0
100
TABLE 8.1.6
B3
COMPARISON
OF
PASS
RATE
WITH
MAY
2015
EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
355
May 2016
%
53.6
66
415
% increase
%
45.3
7.8
B4
PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION I
I:
to apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation
of tax liabilities, preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering
compliance with the tax laws; both in the public sector and in the private sector.
II:
four out of six questions in Section B
III:
QUESTION 1: INCOME TAX LAW: DETERMINATION OF TOTAL INCOME
AND TYPES OF ASSESSMENT
(a) Candidates were required to use the given statement to briefly state
the contents of the notice of assessment.
(b) Use the given statement which says that there is no clear definition
of trade in the Income Tax (R.E. 2014) to briefly explain at least
five objectives tests.
(c) Use the given information concerning a tour company which runs
tourist resort in one of the regions in Tanzania to compute the
company’s business income for the given year as per Income Tax
Act (R.E. 2014).
Most candidates could not provide the contents of the statement of
assessment as per the Income Tax Act (R.E. 2014).
67
QUESTION 2: TAXATION: TAX LAW, ADMINISTRATION AND PRACTICE
INCOME TAX LAW: PROCEDURES FOR PAYMENT OF TAX
the establishment of Tanzania Revenue Authority to analyse the role
of the (TRA).
(b) Candidates were required to use the information about a company
which conducts business and investment to:
(i) Compute tax to be paid in instalments.
(ii) Determine the Penalties according to S.98 (1) if instalments paid.
(iii) Compute interest according to S.100 if instalments not paid.
question.
Most candidates were unable to determine penalties and to compute
interest as required.
QUESTION 3: INCOME TAX LAW – DETERMINATION OF TOTAL INCOME.
(a) With examples the candidates were required to explain how business
activities differ from investment activities.
(b) Discuss briefly the tax treatment of the following items of income as
per the Income Tax Act (R.E. 2014):
(i)
Dividend
(ii)
Rent
(iii)
Interest
(iv)
Distribution from a resident trust
(c) Use the given information about a person who disposed various
assets during the tax year ended 31st December 2015 to calculate the
chargeable investment capital gain.
who passed 106 (18.2%) and 08 (1.4%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
Candidates were failed to calculate key issues required by the particular
question.
68
QUESTION 4: CUSTOM AND EXCISE DUTY
(a)
(b)
Explain important procedures which a person is required to go
through when goods are imported.
Use the given information concerning a business man who
imported a saloon car with 1,000cc on the given date for business,
to determine the Total duties/tax paid to the TRA.
question.
Most candidates did not have a clear understanding of the importation
procedures instead they answered by highlighting importation steps
without taking into consideration the custom procedures as per the
Custom Management Act.
QUESTION 5: PUBLIC FINANCE
Candidates were required to:(a) Explain the functions of the government in public finance.
(b) Extricate Public Finance from Private Finance
(c) Differentiate between ‘public goods’ and ‘private goods’.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,020
Some candidates failed to understand the question hence failed to
answer appropriately.
69
QUESTION 6: INCOME TAX LAW – DETERMINATION FROM TOTAL
INCOME
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information which was
about the Tanzanian new government which has been tough on tax
evasion and to cub insufficient tax revenue collection describe
procedures to recover unpaid tax.
(b) Use the information about a person who had been working for one
company in Arusha since 2010 and received a bonus of 10% of his
annual salary; to calculate the taxable employment income and
income tax payable.
question.
Many candidates failed to calculate the taxable employment income and
income tax payable in the section (b) of the question.
QUESTION 7: TAXATION – VAT AND OTHER INDIRECT TAXES
(a) Candidates were required to state the current registration thresholds
for VAT purposes.
(b) With reference to VAT Act 2014 to state the tax point for the
supply of goods and services.
(c) Use the given information about a trading company which is a
VAT registered trader dealing with building materials, to:
(i) State the due date for lodging VAT return.
(ii) Calculate the amount of VAT payable or refundable.
question.
No major weakness was noted. However those who failed were unable
to calculate the amount of VAT payable or refundable.
70
IV:
(a)
markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of
the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
computational questions.
(b)
Out of 1,087 candidates who answered the examination only 444 (40.8%)
candidates passed while the remaining 643 (59.2%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 439 (40.4%) and 05 (0.4%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in
this question.
8.1.1
TABLE 8.1.7
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
00-39
643
40-59
439
60-79
05
80-100
00
TOTAL
1,087
59.2
40.4
0.4
0.0
100
TABLE 8.1.8
May 2015
May 2016
% decrease
%
%
556
79.3
444
40.8
71
11.2
B5
PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
I:
to apply knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in
providing information and decision support to management for decision-making,
performance evaluation, and control.
II:
III:
QUESTION 1: DECISIONS-MAKING TECHNIQUES
one company which produces a variety of cosmetic creams and
lotions; to round all working to two decimal places using linear
programming to;(i) Calculate the optimum number of products.
(ii) Calculate the total contribution.
(b) Calculate the shadow price for the given silk powder and the slack
for silk amino acids.
2,526 candidates who answered the question only 449 (17.8%)
Most candidate failed to formulate the linear programing module and
also they failed to calculate shadow price.
QUESTION 2: BUDGETARY PLANNING AND CONTROL.
company which is based in Dar es Salaam and owns an island which
is located off coast of Dar es Salaam; to prepare the budgeted
statement of profit or loss.
(b) Calculate the percentage of maximum capacity of maximum
capacity at which the given zoo would break even during the given
period.
72
1,384 candidates who answered the question only 12 (0.9%) candidates
passed while the remaining 1,372 (99.1%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 09 (0.7%) and 03 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and
question.
Most candidates were not conversant with the topic tested in this
question.
QUESTION 3: VARIANCE ANALYSIS
business company which based its budget on the activity measure
during the given period and planned to serve 30,000 customers; to
prepare a performance report.
(b) Use the given information concerning a company which produces
three types of products where the CEO had discovered the total
contribution margin for the 1st quarter came in lower than expected;
to calculate all of the Contribution Margin variances and explain
what happened.
2,155 candidates who answered the question, 04 (0.2%) candidates
scored pass marks while the remaining 2,151 (99.8%) candidates failed.
There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Most candidates demonstrated poor understanding on sales margin
variance and most candidates didn’t understand the concept of
performance report and poor presentation of answers.
QUESTION 4: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES – INCOME EFFECTS OF
ALTENATIVE COST ACCUMULATION SYSTEMS
Candidates were required to use the given memo about the briefing that
was sent to the given person recently about variable costing and
absorption costing to write a memo in response to the given General
Manager’s concerns that he had raised.
The use of report confused most of candidates and majority were not
able to distinguish between direct and variable costing.
73
QUESTION 5: PERFOMANCE MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL –
DIVISIONAL PERFOMANCE AND TRANSFER PRICING.
Candidates were required to use the given information concerning two
subsidiary companies where one company produces components form
manufacturing finished products; to:(a)
(b)
Analyse the advantages of coercing a subsidiary to transfer a
component at a specified price and advice management on the
best course of action.
Point out the dysfunction effect of coercion and suggest how it
can be avoided.
passed while the remaining 1,932 (98.4%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 31 (1.5%) and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass and
question.
Most candidates were weak in terms of the computation of net realizable
value, they ended up giving generic advantage and disadvantage of
transfer pricing.
QUESTION 6: DECISIONS-MAKING TECHNIQUES: DECISION MAKING
UNDER ENVIRONMENT OF UNCERTAINITY AND RISK.
Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning two
persons who were planning their own wedding which was expected to
take place 5 months from then; to;(a) Draw a decision tree and calculate the expected number of invitees.
(b) Calculate which venue is expected to be hired and what is the
expected return obtained.
those who passed 13 (1.1%), and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively.
Most candidate did not know how to calculate expected number of
invitees, also most candidate did not know the use of decision tree.
74
QUESTION 7: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES – THROUGHPUT
ACCOUNTING.
private university which offers three types of CPA (T) review
classes; to;(i)
Calculate the throughput accounting ratio.
(ii)
Calculate optimum product mix and the maximum profit.
(b) Use the given information assumption to discuss whether the overall
profit of the company could be improved by equipping and using the
extra given lecture room.
1,638 candidates who answered the question, only 187 (11.4%)
candidates passed while the remaining 1,451 (88.6%) candidates failed.
Most candidates failed to understand the requirement of the question and
could not even find appropriate way to approach the question. Hence
answers were completely wrong.
75
IV:
(a)
markers also found the paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good
mixture of theoretical and computational questions.
(b)
Out of 2,526 candidates who answered the examination only 316 (12.5%)
candidates passed while the remaining 2,210 (87.5%) candidates failed.
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks
in this question.
8.1.9
TABLE 8.1.9
CLASSIFICATION
MARKS
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
OF
00-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
TOTAL
2,210
280
36
00
2,526
87.5
11.1
1.4
0.0
100
TABLE 8.1.10
May 2015
754
May 2016
%
29.4
76
316
% decrease
%
12.5
40.9
B6
MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
I:
to apply principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics
management and administrative functions of an organisation.
II:
III:
QUESTION 1: SUSTAINABLE BUSINESS STRATEGIES, MITIGATION OF
CONFLICTS BETWEEN MANAGEMENT AND BOARD OF
DIRECTORS, AND UNETHICAL PRICING STRATEGIES.
(a) Candidates where required to use given statement concerning the
need of companies to redefine their business strategies; to give
practical solutions to business companies as to why sustainable
business strategies are extremely important.
(b) Use the give case about discussion that went on in one of the Board
of Directors meeting; to discuss five ways of mitigating conflicts
between management and board of directors.
(c) Use the given information about the nature of competitive business
environment to discuss five unethical pricing strategies.
No major weakness was noted in this question.
77
QUESTION 2: INDUSTRIAL ANALYSIS (MARKETING ANALYSIS)
(a) Candidates where required to use the given information which was
about the Mhasibu Bookshop which is a leading company with a
monopoly in the market in selling CPA (T) books; to:(i) Explain the meaning of an ideal industry.
(ii) Describe the bases of industrial markets segmentation.
(b) Use the given information regarding a furniture company which is a
listed manufacturing company based in Dar es Salaam; to:(i) Explain the concept of asymmetric information in the context of
agency theory.
(ii) Generally explain what is meant by agency theory.
passed 169 (38.6), 78 (17.8%) and 18 (4.1%) candidates scored pass,
Some candidates failed to give out the practical explanations rather they
listed and guessed the answers.
QUESTION 3: STRATEGIC IMPLEMENTATION
(a) Candidates were required to use the given statement regarding
several ways managers can use to improve the operations of a
company; to state reasons that might force a manager to restructure a
company.
(b) Use the given phrase concerning a certainty of a company whether it
was pursuing best strategy or not; to briefly describe the purpose of
conducting and approach used to perform external and internal
analysis.
(c) Name and explain the characteristics of a good strategic decisions.
question.
No major weakness was noted in this question, however, those who
failed did not know how internal analysis is conducted.
78
QUESTION 4: BOARD OF DIRECTORS, ORGANISATION CULTURE, AND
AUDITING
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information regarding the
study of corporate governance which focuses on the processes,
mechanisms and structures; to:
(i) Account for components of corporate governance approaches.
(ii) Analyse Board of Director’s responsibilities that are involved in
policy formulation.
(b) Discuss five main responsibilities of an audit committee as audit
committee is a key element of ensuring good governance.
(c) Analyse key advantages of culture to an organization by assuming
that one has been appointed to address a forum which was attended
by human resource officers on the importance of culture in bringing
about health organization.
No major weakness was noted in this question, most of those who failed
did not understand the requirement of the question.
QUESTION 5: GOVERNANCE: AUDITING WORK; ROLE OF BOARD OF
DIRECTORS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given quotation that ‘Auditors
are enemies of management; to discuss factors that affect external
auditors’ independence when executing their roles as auditors.
(b) Discuss how the board of directors oversees the functions of
management in an organization as one of the major roles of the
Board of Directors is to oversee the management of the organisation.
Most candidates had problem with question number 5 (b). They were just
answering on how the board of directors oversees the functions of
management. They simply did not know the answers.
79
QUESTION 6: ETHICS
Candidates were required to:(a) Briefly identify and explain fundamental principles and criteria
which show that corruption is immoral.
(b) Illustrate how probity operates at the level of an individual and at the
level of the organization.
(c) Discuss five main unethical practices in business operations on the
basis that ethical and unethical business depends on how someone
defines these terms and the environment where business operates. .
(d) Explain the difference that exist between moral duties and legal
duties.
370 candidates who answered the question only152 (41.1%) candidates
question.
Most candidates attempted question like guessing the answers, some of
them listed the points and not explaining as the question demanded.
QUESTION 7: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT: STRATEGIC EVALUATION.
Candidates were required to use the given information to:(a) Analyse the stages and steps in evaluating business plan concept on
the basis that business concept is an important factor in any business
undertaking.
(b) State the categories of responsibilities that the company has fulfilled
by taking the measures mentioned in the given case. The case is
about one small company which deals with designing shows for
women. .
passed 60 (19.0%) and 05 (1.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
Most candidates who failed this question were not prepared themselves
enough for this topic.
80
IV:
(a)
the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider
spread of topics within the syllabus.
(b)
examination paper.
TABLE 8.1.11
NO. OF CANDIDATES
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE
00-39
234
40-59
516
60-79
23
80-100
00
TOTAL
773
30.3
66.8
3.0
0.0
100
TABLE 8.1.12
May 2015
526
May 2016
%
93.9
539
81
% increase
%
69.7
1.2
INTRA LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE
PERFORMANCE
–
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabi, the Board does not allow its
candidates to sit both levels. However, it allowed those who were referred to sit for a
referral paper and a full level, during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 258 candidates who sat for examination
papers in both Foundation and Intermediate levels.
The performance is as indicated hereunder:
S/No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE
Number
Percent
26
10.1
102
39.5
87
33.7
0
0.0
11
4.3
16
6.2
0
0.0
3
1.2
13
5.0
258
100%
COMBINATION
Pass Both
Pass FOUND, Partial Pass INTER
Pass FOUND, Fail INTER
Partial Pass FOUND, Pass INTER
Partial Pass Both
Partial Pass FOUND, Fail INTER
Fail FOUND, Pass INTER
Fail FOUND, Partial Pass INTER
Fail Both
Total
82
FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination
system of the Board.
The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder:C1
C2
C3
C4
Corporate Reporting
Auditing and Assurance
These examination papers have been tested for the fourth time in this examination
session.
The examination draws candidates from:(a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary
Issues in Accounting in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1
Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus
(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased
out syllabus where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current
syllabus and
(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased out
syllabus where these candidates sat for C4 Public Finance and Taxation II in the
current syllabus
The performance of the candidates who attempted both modules is shown at the end of
the level’s report.
During the May 2016 examination session, 2,289 candidates sat for Final Level
examinations out of whom 300 (13.1%) have passed this level and therefore eligible
for the award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 107 (30.9%) have passed some of the
subjects while 1,281 (56.0%) have failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise for the Final level examination in this session is as
shown on Table 9.1
TABLE 9.1
MODULE E SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS:
MAY 2015 AND MAY 2016
Code
Subject
Performance
May 2015
C1
C2
C3
C4
May 2016
Entries
Pass
%
Entries
Pass
%
1288
1211
672
777
539
596
212
563
41.8
49.2
31.5
72.5
1,296
1,095
1,050
880
376
399
291
465
29.0
36.4
27.7
52.8
Corporate Reporting
Auditing and Assurance
83
C1
CORPORATE REPORTING
I:
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial
reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analysing and evaluating
corporate reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates
were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % was
compulsory
III:
In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:
QUESTION 1:
PREPARATION AND REPORTING INFORMATION FOR
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND NOTES
Candidates were required to use the given information to concerning a
group which consists of a parent entity and subsidiaries to:
(a) Explain why consolidated financial statements are useful to the
users
of financial statements as opposed to just the parent company’s
separate (entity) financial statements.
(b) State and explain any four practical reasons why parent company’s
own financial statements cannot show the full picture of the parent
investments, unless presenting consolidated financial statements.
(c) Use the given information about one company which is a
multinational group which carries on a business as a distributor to
prepare a consolidated statement of financial position of the given
company at the given period of time using the full goodwill method.
candidates passed while the remaining 1,179 (90.0%) candidates
failed. Out of those who passed 99 (7.6%) and 18 (1.4%) candidates
scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this question.
Major weakness in this question was that candidates mixed between
the usefulness of consolidated financial statements and practical
reasons as to why parent company accounts alone cannot show the
full picture of the parent investment. Otherwise there were a lot of
entries that could be picked straight away form the question without
any workings.
84
QUESTION 2:
REPORTING THE FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE OF
ENTITIES: FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS
Candidates were required to use given information to:(a) Evaluate whether each of the listed items (i) to (v) is a financial
instrument and whether it should be accounted for under IAS 32:
Financial Instrument Presentation.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Cash deposited in banks.
Prepaid expenses
Gold bullion deposited in banks
Finance lease receivables or payables
Trade accounts receivable
(b) Use the given extract from a trial balance of one company to
prepare
the extracts o that company in a given period of time in terms of:(i)
Statement of Profit or Loss and other comprehensive
income
(ii)
Statement of financial position
of 935 candidates who answered the question only 116 (12.4%)
failed. Out of those who passed 109 (11.7%) and 07 (0.7%)
candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
Most candidates failed to identify the financial instruments as per
IAS 32. Most failed to prepare the required financial statements.
QUESTION 3:
IFRS 8-OPERATING SEGMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information which was
about a group of company incorporated in Tanzania and operates in
other countries to:(a) Determine and show the reportable segments of the given company
following other criteria(s) set by IFRS 8: Operating segment
(Round all percentages to the nearest whole number).
(b)
Prepare a segment report for the given company for the year ended
31st December 2015 that complies with IFRS operating segment.
failed. Out of those who passed 25 (5.1%) and 05 (1.1%)
85
candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
Most candidates expressed poor understanding of IFRS 8. Those
who answered the question gave descriptive reports rather than
financial statements as required by IFRS 8 and section (b) of the
question.
QUESTION 4:
IAS 37-PROVISIONS, CONTINGENT ASSETS, CONTINGENT
LIABILITIES; IAS 10 EVENT AFTER REPORTING PERIOD
Candidates were required to use given information concerning one
company which was a regional brewer in East Africa to assess and
advise how each of the given scenarios should be treated in the
accounts of the given company for the year to 30th June 2015.
Most candidates were not aware about the application of IAS 37 and
IAS 10 in the treatment of various scenarios stated in the question.
QUESTION 5: REPORTING FRAMEWORK AND CREATIVE ACCOUNTING
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information related to
creative accounting to:(i) Describe the methods used in creative accounting and the ways
to curb creative accounting
(ii) Analyse four objectives management tries to achieve through
creative accounting
(iii) Explain the extent to which creative accounting can be
practised in line with IFRSs.
(b) Use the given information regarding the International Accounting
Standards Board, to:(i)
Discuss the main principles of fair value management as set
out in IFRS 13: Fair Value Measurement
(ii)
Describe the three-level hierarchy for fair value
measurements used in IFRS 13: Fair Value Measurement
86
those who passed 307 (31.2%), 99 (10.1%) and 45 (4.6%)
No major weakness noted in this question.
QUESTION 6: IAS PRESENTATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information related to IAS 8:
Accounting Policies, to:(a) Present the extract from the statement of Profit or Loss and other
comprehensive income so as to reflect the change in accounting
policy, in accordance with IAS 8.
(b) Compute the company’s retained earnings at 31st December 2015
and the restated retained earnings as at 31st December 2013 and
2014.
(c) Evaluate how Statement of changes in equity for the year ended
31st December 2015 should be presented in the company financial
statements.
Candidates’ performance in this question was fairly satisfactory. Out of
481 candidates who answered the examination, 191 (39.7%) candidates
Most candidates had problems with computing retained earnings for the
years 2013 and 2014.
87
IV:
(a)
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was
adequate. The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within
the prescribed syllabus.
(b)
Candidates’ overall performance of the paper
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not
satisfactory. Out of 1,296 candidates who answered the paper only
376 (29.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 920 (71.0%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 356 (27.5%) and 20
(1.5%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
TABLE 9.1.1
C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
Total
No. of Candidates (Frequency)
920
356
20
00
1,296
Percentage
71.0
27.5
1.5
0.0
100
TABLE 9.1.2
C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH MAY 2015 EXAMINATIONS
May 2015
539
May 2016
%
41.8
376
88
%
%
29.0
decrease
17.8
C2
AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES
I:
auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing
auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.
II:
STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was
compulsory
III:
QUESTION 1: ACCEPTING ENGAGEMENT AND MANAGING
ASSIGNMENT; DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND
REPORTING; OBJECTIVE, PROCESS AND NEED FOR
EXTERNAL AUDIT ASSURANCE; ASSESSMENT OF RISK,
INTERNAL CONTROL AND FINANCIAL CONTROLS
(a) Candidates were required to use given information concerning one
audit firm operating in Tanzania and in other countries; to give a
brief advice to the given partners on the possibility of undertaking
both, external and internal audit, assignments in the given city and
Da es Salaam.
(b) Use the given information relates to an audit manager for two of
the clients in the audit firm and he is reviewing audit files and audit
draft reports submitted by two subordinates to comment on the
suitability of the recommended audit opinions clearly stating the
arguments for or against the recommendations.
(c) Use the given information about the auditors of one company
which deals with insurance services and hence regulated by TIRA
to describe the elements of an assurance engagement such as the
one which firm has got into with the given company.
(d) Distinguish between an ‘emphasis of matter paragraph’ and ‘any
other matters paragraph’ in an auditor’s report.
(e) Use the given statement about internal control to explain briefly
the process of designing and operating the internal controls.
scored pass marks while the remaining 1,086 (99.2%) candidates
failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this
questions.
Most candidates demonstrated a very weak understanding of auditing
and assurance concepts. Further and more importantly they did not
understand how to apply the auditing and assurance knowledge in an
audit case.
89
QUESTION 2: PLANNING AND UNDERTAKING AUDIT WORK
(a) Candidates were required to use given information about one
company which operates two coal mines which has been listed in the
National Stock Exchange, to:(i)
Describe the matter that your firm will consider before placing
reliance on the work of the internal audit department of the
given company
(ii) State how reliance on internal audit would be applied by the
firm.
(b) Evaluate the composition of the Board of Directors of the given
company and give recommendations you consider necessary in this
set up.
(c) Explain what is meant by independent non-executive directors and
state their importance to companies such as that of the given
company.
Most candidates failed to state how reliance in internal audit would be
applied by a firm instead most of them were explaining the reasons for
either reliance or not reliance to the work of the internal audit. Others
failed to evaluate the composition of Board of Directors and good practice
on corporate governance as per the case that has been given.
QUESTION 3: LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES; ACCEPTING
ENGAGEMENTS AND MANAGING ASSIGNMENTS
Candidates were required to use given information which was about a
staff training session on internal control organised by one company to
discuss the possibility that the given company had impaired their
independence or otherwise acted unprofessionally in each of the
situations described.
Most candidates failed to put the theories that have acquired into
practical situations as each section’s case required. They just explained,
mentioned and discuss those theories as they were -instead of linking
them and state clearly and briefly how can they be applied in each
section.
90
QUESTION 4: PLANNING AND UNDERSTANDING WORK
(a) Candidates were required to use given information concerning an
extract from the statements for the year ended 31st December 2015
to base on the given information, perform analysis on the sales,
wages, salaries and debtors by using the following analytical
procedures:
(i) Comparison
(ii) Ratio analysis
(iii) Reasonableness test
(b) Use the given information about ISA 710 which has been
restructured to explain the following terms as applied in the ISA
710:
(i) Corresponding figures
(ii) Comparative financial statements.
(iii) The auditor’s responsibilities for corresponding figures.
(c) Explain any four generally accepted objectives for statement of
financial position/balance sheet audit.
question.
Most of candidates did not know how to perform analytical procedures.
Some did not know even the formula of gross profit margin.
Many candidates demonstrated poor understanding of generally
accepted objectives for statement of financial position audit. Many of
them answered the question out of the context of audit.
QUESTION 5: EXTERNAL AUDIT IN PUBLIC SECTOR
the role of government agencies in assisting the Controller and
Auditor General (CAG) to identify and explain stages involved in
developing performance indicators.
(b) Use the information about the requirement of CAG to report to the
Parliament on the spending of audited entities to describe the main
approaches used by public sector auditors in performing value for
money audit, depending on the information available, nature of the
entity’s operations and other factors.
(c) Use the given information about the general framework of auditing
standards for the International Organisation of Supreme Auditing
91
Institutions (INTOSAI) to describe and explain general standards
required by INTOSAI.
(d) With examples discuss challenges of auditing public sector entity in
Tanzania.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory as all 431
candidates who answered the question failed.
Most candidates failed to distinguish between weaknesses faced by public
sector auditors from those faced by public sector organisations.
QUESTION 6: NATURE OF AUIDT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION OF
SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE; PLANNING AND
UNDERSTANDING WORK
(a) Candidates were required use the information about various ways
which the auditors employ in the process of gathering audit evidence
to:(i)
Discuss the meaning of ‘management representations’ giving
six items that could be included in a management
representation letter.
(ii) Distinguish between ‘management experts’ and ‘auditor
experts’, stating clearly the extent of the auditor expert’s
responsibility over the audit opinion.
(b) Use the given information concerning a company which engages in
the passenger transportation services to:(i) Comment on the matters that you should consider in respect of
the audit of finance lease assets and expenses.
(ii) State the audit evidence you should obtain to verify the figure
of finance lease assets in the financial statements of the given
company.
Those who failed this question they kept on explaining the balance sheet
and income statement assertions instead of answering the question. They
also failed to use the various audit procedures to obtain audit evidence in
verification of finance lease assets in financial statements.
92
IV:
(a)
(b)
9.1.3
TABLE 9.1.3
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
Total
696
369
30
00
1,095
Percentage
63.6
33.7
2.7
0.0
100
TABLE 9.1.4
MAY 2015
596
May 2016
%
49.2
399
93
%
%
36.4
decrease
19.8
C3
BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE
I:
business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating
and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as
financial engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.
II:
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was
compulsory
III:
QUESTION 1:
(a)
Candidates were required to use given information about one company which
manufactures sports equipment to:(i)
Identify and explain the strategic position of each of product within the
given city. Assess the implications of this positioning within the city, in
determining the extent that should be invested in each of its products.
(ii)
As an external consultant write a memorandum to the directors of ME
outlining the merits and demerits of each of the following joint
development strategies in respect of Raba shoes:
•
•
•
•
(b)
FINANCING ANALYSIS
Licensing
Franchising
A joint venture
A merger
Use the given information regarding one company which is an all equity financed
listed companied which develops customised software for clients to:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Calculate, using the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the required
rates of return on equity of the given two companies
Calculate the beta of Imelda Co. assuming its required annual rate of return
on equity is 17% and the stock market uses the Capital Asset Pricing Model
(CAPM) and explain the significance of the beta factor.
Help the Finance Director to write a memorandum to the Chairman in
language understandable to a non-finance manager.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 1,050
candidates who answered the question only 38 (3.6%) candidates passed while the
remaining 1,012 (96.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 37 (3.5%) and
01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
94
Candidates did not understand the question clearly as they rushed to answer it in a
wrong way and very brief.
QUESTION 2: DIVIDEND POLICY AND SHARE EVALUATION
(a)
Candidates were required to use given information about
company’s dividend decisions and their implications for both its
investment and its financing decisions to:(i)
Describe the alternative dividend policies that companies
can adopt and their significance.
(ii)
Discuss the dividend relevance and dividend irrelevance
schools of thought.
(iii) Explain any two alternatives other than cash dividends of
rewarding shareholders.
(b) Candidates were required to given information about a company
which could afford to pay TZS.5 per share dividend annually
forever to determine:(i)
(ii)
The current value of the share.
The cost of the resolution not to pay dividend for the next
20 years for each shareholder.
Most candidates failed to determine the current value and the cost of
resolution not to pay dividend.
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS ANALYSIS
(a) Candidates were required to use given information about a company
which is a food-processing firm that was considering an investment
opportunity to:(i)
Evaluate the project using the Adjusted Present Value (APV)
method and suggest whether it should be undertaken or not.
(ii)
With calculations and reasons, suggest whether or not you
would recommend the project assuming the firm pays no
corporate tax.
(iii)
Based on the answers above, briefly explain why it is
important to consider taxes in project evaluation.
(b) Discuss how sensitivity analysis can help managers to assess the risk
of an investment project.
95
215 candidates who answered the question, 12 (5.6%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 203 (94.4%) candidates failed. There
were neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Candidates were weak in calculating the Present Values with and
without tax.
QUESTION 4: FINANCIAL ENGINEERING AND PLANNING
(a)
(b)
Candidates were required to use given information concerning a
bank branch which had surplus funds to invest to explain at which
centre will the investment be made and what will be the net gain (to
the nearest TZS.) to the bank on the funds. Candidates were
required to ignore brokerage and other expenses.
Candidates were required to use the given information about
someone who had been appointed as a financial analyst to assist
estimating the firm’s cost of capital for use to prepare a brief note
for the managing director to include:(i)
(ii)
Details on the estimation of the market value weighted
average cost of capital of the given company.
A discussion of why the cost of equity is greater than the
cost of debt.
question.
Most candidates failed to notice that the exchange rates were to be
adjusted for the discounts and premiums and therefore they did not make
adjustments.
Others also had little idea of how to perform calculations on weighted
average cost of capital.
96
QUESTION 5: MANAGING RISK
the Financial Director of one company based in the UK who is
concerned that interest rates could become more volatile to illustrate
the possible results of hedging interest rate risk using interest rate
futures if interest rate in six months’ time increase by 3% and the
September future-market price increases by 2%.
(b) Use the given information about one company that manufactures
footwear for the past ten years to advise company’s board whether it
should use forward contract or money market hedge when managing
the above dollar transaction over the next six months.
Candidates failed to apply knowledge on hedging to calculate hedge
position and efficiency. ’ performance in this question was not
satisfactory. Out of 300 candidates who answered the examination only
candidates failed. There was neither credit nor distinction marks in this
question.
QUESTION 6: FINANCIAL ANALYSIS (PORTFOLIO THEORY)
one company which engages in the printing business to:(i)
Explain in what proportion of available investment funds
should the company invest in the projects in order to have the
best possible capital allocation?
(ii) Determine what will the risk and return of such a portfolio be
(iii) Explain if is it a good idea to invest in portfolios that are
positively correlated
(iv) Describe to the given company the meaning of an optimum
portfolio.
(b) Critically discuss any three factors that a corporate treasurer of a
multinational company needs to consider in managing a debt
portfolio.
97
question.
Candidates showed weakness in doing the required calculations.
IV:
(a)
(b)
9.1.5
TABLE 9.1.5
Classification
of
Marks
No. of Candidates
(Frequency)
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
Total
759
286
05
00
1,050
Percentage
72.3
27.2
0.5
0.0
TABLE 9.1.6
MAY 2015
No.
of
candidates
May 2016
%
No. of
passed
candidates
% increase
%
passed
212
31.5
291
98
27.7
15.7
C4
PUBCLI FINANCE AND TAXATION II
I:
knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and
Corporate Law in preparing, analysing and evaluating corporate reports by
entities, both in the private and public sectors.
II:
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% which was
compulsory
III:
QUESTION 1:
PUBLIC FINANCE
(a) Candidates were required to use given information concerning
Gross
National Product (GDP) per person to explain any five limitations
of GNP as a measure of a person’s welfare.
(b) Use the given information about the national income figures for a
particular country in the given period to calculate the following:
(c)
(i) GDP at factor cost
(ii) GDP at market price
(iii) GNP at market price if net factor income from abroad was
negative 37 million.
Use the given information which is about major government efforts
of the current regime in Tanzania in reducing government
expenditure to explain main principles of public expenditure.
(d)(i) What do you understand by ‘Taxable capacity’?
(ii) Discuss the determinants of taxable capacity of an individual or a
nation.
(e) Use the given statement concerning the experience that shows less
developed countries face deficit budget to discuss the features of
deficit budget using an example of any country of your choice.
(f) Use the given information which was about the issue of Less
Developed Countries that are facing persistent increase in public debts
to discuss the given contention.
99
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Many candidates failed to explain the limitations of GNP as a measure of
person’s welfare. They also failed to state clearly the main principles of
public expenditure.
QUESTION 2: INCOME TAXATION (BASIC PROVISIONS OF THE INCOME
TAX ACT)
Candidates were required to:(a) Identify who is required to file return of income under section
91(1) and what are the exceptions under Section 92 of Income Tax
Act (ITA) (Cap 332) ?
(b) Enumerate the contents of a return of income as provided under
section 91(2) of Income Tax Act, (Cap 332) .
(c) Use the information given about Section 39 of the Tax
Administration Act, 2015 which gives powers to Commissioner of
Income Tax to grant extension of time to the person who is
required to file return of income to state the limitations of the
powers (provided) to the Commissioner as stipulated in the law (on
granting the extension of time.
(d) Use the given information about one company which is established
in the URT since 1990s to:(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Explain what was the due date for filling the provisional
returns for the company as per S.89 of the ITA, Cap 332,
State the due date for filling the final return for the company
as per the provisions under the ITA, Cap. 332.
Compute the amount of income tax paid by the company on
1st instalment and 4th instalment.
Compute the amount of income tax paid by the company on
30th June 2015 (ignore any interest and/or penalty thereof).
Ascertain the amount of penalty payable by the company as
per S.78 of the Tax Administration Act, 2015 (if any).
failed. Out of those who passed 56 (17.2%), 31 (9.5%) and 06
(1.8%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
Most candidates failed to make necessary computations.
100
QUESTION 3: BASIC PROVISIONS OF INCOME TAX ACT
Candidates were required use the given information concerning one
Professor of accounting and head of research and publication
committee; to calculate the employment income, business income,
investment income and total taxable income of the said Professor for
the year of income 2014.
The major weakness was related with proper categorisation of income
between employment, business and investment.
QUESTION 4: INTERNATIONAL TAXATION
Candidates were required to:(a) Explain “the test of residence of an individual” as enshrined under
Section 66 of the Income Tax Act, Cap. 332.
(b) What is the significance of classifying a person as resident in the
United Republic of Tanzania (URT) for income tax purposes?
(c) Candidates were required to study the three given scenarios to state
whether the person mentioned in the scenarios was a resident in the
United Republic of Tanzania for the given year of income.
and marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks.
No major weakness noted in this question.
101
QUESTION 5: TAXATION AND ECONOMIC EFFICIENCY
Candidates were required to use the given statement about a common
practice for government revenue authorities to discuss the implication of
changes in taxes on each of the following:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Demand and supply of goods and services.
Savings of individuals and companies.
Producer and consumer surplus.
Tax impact on consumption on wages and employment.
Most candidates were unable to identify key requirements of the
question, failure to argue and express points clearly and poor graphical
representation.
QUESTION 6: TAXATION OF SPECIALISED ENTITIES: MINING
COMPANIES
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information about a
resident mining company which has been engaged in mining
operations since 2010 to calculate taxable income and tax to be
paid by the company during the year ended 30th June 2014.
Assume corporate income tax rate is 30%.
(b) Use the given information which was about the assumption that
after the discovery, the mining company mentioned in part (a)
above did not carry business of mining during the given year; to
indicate and quantify all tax consequences to the parties concerned
due to the sale of the mines.
question.
Candidates expressed poor understanding of the treatment and
identification of allowable and non-allowable expenditures for mining
companies.
102
IV:
(a)
(b)
Out of 880 candidates who answered the paper 465 (52.8%)
Out of those who passed 435 (49.4%), 30 (3.4%) candidates scored
pass marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
examination paper
9.1.7
TABLE 9.1.7
0-39
40-59
60-79
80-100
Total
415
435
30
00
880
Percentage
47.2
49.4
3.4
0.0
100
TABLE 9.1.8
MAY 2015
563
MAY 2016
%
72.5
465
103
%
%
52.8
decrease
9.5
INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE –
INTERMEDIATE AND FINAL LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in
transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 1485 candidates who sat examination
papers in the Intermediate and Final Levels respectively.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
S/No.
1
2
3
4
5
7
8
9
10
COMBINATION
Pass Both
Pass INTER, Partial Pass FINAL
Pass INTER, Fail FINAL
Partial Pass INTER, Pass FINAL
Partial Pass Both
Partial Pass INTER, Fail FINAL
Fail INTER, Pass FINAL
Fail INTER, Partial Pass FINAL
Fail Both
Total
104
INTERMEDIATE & FINAL
Number
Percent
55
3.7
112
7.5
60
4.0
1
0.1
90
6.1
35
2.4
66
4.4
275
18.5
791
53.3
1485
100%
CHAPTER III
EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS
In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both
Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance.
These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the
candidates’ scripts.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS
Guidance to the candidates
1.
Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues
and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally.
This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at
the same time improve their vocabulary.
2.
Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while
preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who
have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit
for the Board’s examinations.
3.
Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of
exercises. They should discourage students from cramming the questions and
their solutions as this will not assist them during the examinations.
4.
Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help
them to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects.
5.
Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to
tackle a question in on examination room.
Teaching and learning materials
6.
Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that
can be made available to their students.
7.
Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of
training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital
role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.
8.
Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and
orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study
questions.
105
9.
Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning
Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the
syllabus adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that
guide them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.
10.
Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and
Training of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging
professional issues.
Evaluating the candidates
11.
Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would
test the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom
should be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to
register for the examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical
examination questions in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the
students to similar conditions that they would encounter when taking their
examinations.
Effective teaching
12.
Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during
the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students
be aware of what has to be covered and at what time.
13.
Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching
materials in order to avoid misleading the students.
14.
Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching
methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern
teaching methodologies.
15.
Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been
summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will
understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the
markers.
16.
For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much
better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics.
17.
Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply
various participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning
among the students.
18.
Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their
students and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject
matter especially on new statutes.
106
19.
Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and
should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner
think more rather than cramming.
20.
Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that
are required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi
21.
Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively
learning
RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS
Applying appropriate learning styles
22.
Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various
textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of
the subject matter.
23.
Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the
preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and
every topic in the syllabus.
24.
Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and
hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example
definitions and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified
since the adoption of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students
need to know these changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of
study and in their work places.
25.
Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems
they do not give special attention on the area.
26.
Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their
competence and confidence.
27.
Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question
asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate
their own questions and provide their own answers.
28.
Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base
their preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.
107
Self motivation towards learning
29.
Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English
Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily
newspapers, magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language
limitations has affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves
properly let alone giving them flexibility in answering the questions.
30.
Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should
seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.
31.
Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend
entirely on their trainers.
Assurance of knowledge mastery
32.
Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they
have assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should
not take chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling),
hoping that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They
need to ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and
examination fees.
33.
Students to take seriously initiative and effort to cover the whole syllabus
requirement material through reading various books, journals and published
articles not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past
examinations.
34.
Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a
major part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group
discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.
35.
Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve
their learning
36.
Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead
they have to study and understand subject matters in details
Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques
37.
When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the
instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the
question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the
choice of questions they should start attempting.
38.
Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination
attempts. This can be achieved through practice.
108
39.
Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many
questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self exercise to
build their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand
different term used in examinations.
40.
Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses
for not enrolling to these reviews.
41.
Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published
regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to
acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.
42.
Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in
order to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus.
43.
Students should make use of group discussions in order to enhance their
understanding through such discussion.
44.
Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and
computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study
sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as
at the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.
45.
Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions
and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of
the subject matters.
46.
Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by reading
extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are getting
from the review classes.
47.
Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to
pass their examinations.
47.1 Ensuring that the syllabus is well covered
Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether
they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates
is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a
review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to
know what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some
candidates instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately
they rely on Question and Answers (Qs and As) booklets. Questions and
Answers of previous examinations are good but they are not supplements of the
syllabus. By reading Question and Answer booklets students cannot get
sufficient knowledge about the subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs
and as is after the completion of the syllabus to see how examination questions
are set and the best ways to approach them.
109
47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions
The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare
students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant
teaching method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings
including: subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive,
learning is difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just
listening to lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class
waiting for a trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically
learning becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the
learners to take effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that
students who ask questions and pose challenges during the learning process they
do well in their examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a
trainer does not come from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to
what he is learning. An interested student in the learning process is the one who
takes trouble to read what is going to be taught before entering the class.
Therefore trainers are required to prepare course outlines derived from the
prescribe syllabus so as to enable students to follow. Students can make use of
the course outline to prepare on their own before they go to the classroom. The
lesson becomes enjoyable when both students and the trainers are prepared
before entering the classroom. The secret behind this is that, if trainers know that
the students are prepared in advance, they also do extra work. They ensure that
they are well prepared before they enter into the classroom. In short, student’s
active role in the class is fundamental factor in the effective learning process.
47.3 Review class attendance
Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal
schooling context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance.
They can penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does
not happen in the review classes because those who are attending review classes
are heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self employed, and others are
fresh graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social
responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such
categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education,
classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any
candidate who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it,
such a student must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student
missing a class without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But,
generally there is lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the
case of classroom attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending
classroom sessions appropriately should be self motivated.
110
There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with
confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for
examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are
attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than
those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only
when they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to
refer or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They
claim to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on
their own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by
the nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials
compared the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of
time. The results were as follows:
After 1 day
After 7 days
After 14 days
After 21 days
After 28 days
After 63 days
54% was remembered.
35% was remembered.
21% was remembered.
18% was remembered.
19% was remembered.
17% was remembered.
Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall
because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you
take excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students
forgot more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle,
Susan: Context is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co,
1999). If that is the case then there is no way a candidate may decide not to
attend review classes.
47.4
Group discussions
By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter
a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes
into examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat
himself that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of
sharing knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily selfstudy is not a direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you
are taught something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter,
the knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group
discussions are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and
experiences due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who
are preparing for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize
group discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that
sometimes it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the
library for self study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is
ignored by most candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group
discussions to discuss various topics especially those which are most difficult or
complicated.
111
47.5
Practise learning of materials in deep
One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is
learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do
not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to
study’. But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find
themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’
preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote
learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids
understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being
learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled
by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning
"just for the test".
The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition,
based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the
more they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related
disciplines, this can often produce poor results.
Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a
subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and
express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he
has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing
it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many
things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should
also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you
memorize new materials the old ones fade out.
47.6
Conclusion
Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing
examinations rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in
the examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study
techniques have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their
examinations. Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than
becoming cumbersome to the candidates. This is possible if the candidates apply
appropriate techniques in their studies.
112
CHAPTER IV
CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION
The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition
Providers) in the country. The May 2016 examination session drew candidates from the
following institutions as per Table 10:
TABLE 10
NAME OF
INSTITUTION
PRIVATE
PT ATTITUDE
PT CCA
PT
CORNERSTONE
PT DBC
PT EXCELMOSHI
PT FANI
PT KAS
PT PAC- ARUSHA
PT PTC MWANZA
PT REHOBOTH
CONSULT.
PT SJCS
PT PERFECTSONGEA
PT PERFECT –
FUTURE
PT RUTER
PT FC
PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
PT INSPIRE
PT EVIN
PT MMK
DODOMA
PT NAO
PT WAME
PT WETA
PT APT
PT BHC
PT WADE
ARUSHA
PT ZIBCO
PT BETA
ATEC
I
16
ATEC
II
29
20
15
23
42
NO. OF CANDIDATES
FOUNDATION
INTERMEDIATE
LEVEL
LEVEL
71
495
3
172
6
7
1
45
203
2
1
FINAL
LEVEL
348
116
2
TOTAL
105
418
959
291
50
4
1
1
14
75
62
153
19
12
1
32
11
8
30
30
3
5
17
164
22
1
2
78
10
14
100
295
36
1
1
1
2
6
2
7
9
5
16
3
2
5
3
41
6
2
11
41
3
15
76
37
131
1
8
8
52
552
21
474
83
1035
2
3
56
29
90
20
18
6
7
10
17
7
4
1
4
37
30
10
12
14
11
8
25
17
17
12
10
29
27
2
5
2
2
3
3
113
NAME OF
INSTITUTION
PT B&P
PT COVENANTFC
PT UPTAKE
PT AFC
PT ACG
PT FILADEFIA F.C
DODOMA
PT FTC
PT ZENJI
PT CCU
PT TCCG
PT IDIANA
CONSULT.
PT PYTHAGORAS
F.C
TOTAL APPLIED
ABSENTEEISM
TOTAL SAT
ATEC
I
NO. OF CANDIDATES
ATEC FOUNDATION
INTERMEDIATE
LEVEL
LEVEL
II
1
19
25
115
5
110
KEY
1 PRIVATE
2 PT ATTITUDE
3 PT CCA
4
PT CORNERSTONE
5
PT DBC
6
PT EXCEL- MOSHI
7
PT FANI
8
PT KAS
9
PT PAC- ARUSHA
10
PT PTC MWANZA
11
12
PT REHOBOTH
PT SJCS
13
PT PERFECT- SONGEA
14
PT PERFECT –
FUTURE
15
PT RUTER
16
PT FC
-
TOTAL
1182
659
2044
11
468
35
10
288
32
21
756
67
9
60
31
100
2
1
2
3
13
1
75
4
159
168
8
160
-
FINAL
LEVEL
1
484
39
445
2
33
5
26
2
110
13
7
24
14
10
24
3898
403
3495
2441
152
2289
7106
607
6499
13
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Commercial College of Arusha
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Cornerstone Financial
Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Delve Business Consultants Co.
Ltd. of DSM
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax Solutions
of Moshi
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Fani Business Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by KAS Institute of Professionals
(T) Ltd. – DSM.
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Professional Training Centre Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Rehoboth Consultancy - DSM
St. Joseph’s Commercial School – Tanga
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Perfect Trainers and Business
Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by The Perfect Future Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Ruter Business and Management
Services
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by First Contact Institute of
Business Administration & Information Technology
114
18
PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
PT INSPIRE
19
PT EVIN
20
21
22
PT MMK DODOMA
PT NAO
PT WAME MWANZA
23
PT WETA - KIGOMA
24
PT APT
25
PT BHC ARUSHA
26
PT WADE ARUSHA
27
PT ZIBCO
28
29
PT BETA
PT B&P
30
PT COVENANT- FC
31
PT UPTAKE
32
PT AFC
33
35
PT ACG
PT FILADEFIA F.C.
DODOMA
PT FTC
36
PT ZENJI
37
PT CCU
38
PT TCCG
17
34
39
40
PT IDIANA
CONSULTANCY
MBEYA
PT PYTHAGORAS F.C.
-
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Bright Professionals Tanzania Morogoro
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Inspire Consultants Ltd - DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Evin School of Management DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by MMK - Dodoma
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by National Audit Office – DSM
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by WAME Investment - Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Western Tanganyika College Kigoma
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by APT Financial Consultants –
DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Business Horizon Consultants Arusha
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WADE Through Financial
Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zanzibar Intellectual and
Business Consultants
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Beta Business Consultants - DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Inter Consultant
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Covenant Financial Consultants DSM
Part Time review classes conducted by UPTAKE Business Resources (T)
Ltd - DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial
Consultants Ltd
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Accountant General’s Office
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Filadefia Financial Consultancy
-
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Financial Training Centre
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zenji Review and Consultancy Zanzibar
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Chuo cha Uchumi Zanzibar
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Tanzania Centre for Corporate
Governance DSM
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy Mbeya
-
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Pythagoras Financial Consultants
-
115
INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE
The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:
1. Best Candidate Approach:
The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best
Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a
single examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the
Board’s examination levels is as follows:
Examination
Best Candidates came from
ATEC Level I
PT KAS
ATEC Level II
PT CORNERSTONE
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
PT CORNERSTONE
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
PT CONVENANT F.C
FINAL LEVEL:
PT CONVENANT F.C
2. Performance Approach:
Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade
Point Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A ,B, C, F grades obtained by
candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.
The following formula is applied
Subject GPA =
Where
Na =
Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at
that level
Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that
level
Nc =
Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that
level
Nf =
Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that
level
Pa =
The weight of Grade A = 3
Pb =
The weight of Grade B = 2
Pc =
The weight of Grade C = 1
Pf =
The weight of Grade F = 0
116
Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each
examination level are as indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to
154 of this report).
Examination Level
ATEC I:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates
Category B: Above 5 Candidates
ATEC II:
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
FINAL LEVEL:
Best Institution
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT SJCS
PT INSPIRE
DBC & PTC MWANZA
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT CORNERSTONE
PT PAC ARUSHA
PT COVENANT.FC
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT EXCEL - MOSHI
PT BRIGHT-MOROGORO
PT MMK-DODOMA
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT CORNERSTONE
PT COVENANT F.C
PT KAS
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT SJCS
PT PTC MWANZA
PT IDIANA CONSULT.
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT CORNERSTONE
PT COVENANT F.C
PT FC
1st
3rd
-
PT APT & FANI
PT RUTER
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT COVENANT F.C
PT MMK DODOMA
PT PTC MWANZA
1st
3rd
-
PT APT & PT FANI
PT RUTER
1st
2nd
3rd
-
PT EXCEL MOSHI
PT COVENANT F.C
PT TCCG
117
TABLE 11.1
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
Institution
PT - SJCS
PT - INSPIRE
PT - DBC
PT - PTC
MWANZA
PT - EXCEL
MOSHI
Subtotals
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
No of
A
% of A
No of
B
% of B
No of
C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
1
2
1
0
0
0
1
2
1
4
8
4
0
1
0
0.0%
12.5%
0.0%
2
1
0
50.0%
12.5%
0.0%
2
3
2
50.0%
37.5%
50.0%
0
3
2
0.0%
37.5%
50.0%
1.50
1.00
0.50
1
2
3
1
0
1
2
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
50.0%
1
50.0%
0.50
3
1
1
0
0
5
18
0.0%
5.6%
0
3
0.0%
16.7%
0
8
0.0%
44.4%
0
6
0.0%
33.3%
5
1
0
1
0.00
6
RANKING
1ST
2ND
2ND
-
PT SJCS
PT INSPIRE
PT DBC & PTC MWANZA
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
Number of Grades
– Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
118
TABLE 11.1
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
Institution
PT Cornerstone
PT - PAC ARUSHA
PT - Covenant
F. C.
PT - KAS
PT - CCA
Subtotals
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
23
0
23
59
12
0
12
35
19
0
19
52
19
20
93
3
1
4
16
19
89
35
53
234
No of A
% of
A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
1
1.7%
5
8.5%
25
42.4%
28
47.5%
0.64
1
0
0.0%
1
2.9%
20
57.1%
14
40.0%
0.63
2
0
1
0
2
0.0%
2.9%
0.0%
0.9%
3
3
2
14
5.8%
8.6%
3.8%
6.0%
24
7
17
93
46.2%
20.0%
32.1%
39.7%
25
24
34
125
48.1%
68.6%
64.2%
53.4%
0.58
0.46
0.40
3
4
5
RANKING
1ST
2ND
3RD
-
PT Cornerstone
PT PAC Arusha
PT Covenant F. C.
Key:
Number of Grades
– Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?
119
TABLE 11.2
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
Institution
PT - EXCEL
MOSHI
PT-BRIGHT
MORO
PT - MMK
DODOMA
PT - WADE
ARUSHA
PT- PERFECT
SONGEA
PT - EVIN
PT - APT
Subtotals
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
1
0
1
4
3
0
3
12
2
0
2
8
3
0
3
6
2
0
2
6
1
2
14
1
1
2
0
1
12
0
2
38
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
4
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
1
1
8.3%
1
8.3%
5
41.7%
5
41.7%
0.83
2
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
4
50.0%
4
50.0%
0.50
3
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
33.3%
4
66.7%
0.33
4
0
0
0
1
0.0%
0.0%
0.0%
2.6%
0
0
0
1
0.0%
0.0%
0.0%
2.6%
2
0
0
17
33.3%
0.0%
0.0%
44.7%
4
0
2
19
66.7%
0.0%
100.0%
50.0%
0.33
0.00
0.00
4
6
6
RANKING
1ST
1ST
3RD
-
PT EXCEL MOSHI
PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
PT MMK DODOMA
Key:
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
120
TABLE 11.2 (b)
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
Institution
PT Cornerstone
PT - Covenant
F. C.
PT - KAS
PT - CCA
PT - PAC ARUSHA
Subtotals
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
42
2
40
136
25
0
25
70
32
15
2
1
30
14
88
37
11
0
11
24
125
5
120
355
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
17
12.5%
9
6.6%
60
44.1%
50
36.8%
0.95
1
0
0
0
0.0%
0.0%
0.0%
5
1
0
7.1%
1.1%
0.0%
29
27
11
41.4%
30.7%
29.7%
36
60
26
51.4%
68.2%
70.3%
0.56
0.33
0.30
2
3
4
0
17
0.0%
4.8%
0
15
0.0%
4.2%
6
133
25.0%
37.5%
18
190
75.0%
53.5%
0.25
5
RANKING
1ST
2ND
3RD
-
PT Cornerstone
PT Covenant F. C.
PT KAS.
Key:
Number of Grades
– Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
121
TABLE 11.3 (a)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS
1- 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
Institution
PT- SJCS
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
6
2
4
9
3
33.3%
1
11.1%
5
55.6%
0
0.0%
1.78
1
PT - PTC Mwanza
PT – IDIANA CONSULT.
3
4
0
0
3
9
7
0
0.0%
3
33.3%
6
66.7%
0
0.0%
1.33
2
4
0
0.0%
3
42.9%
3
42.9%
1
14.3%
1.29
3
PT - RUTER
3
0
3
9
0
0.0%
3
33.3%
5
55.6%
1
11.1%
1.22
4
PT - TCCG
2
0
2
5
0
0.0%
2
40.0%
2
40.0%
1
20.0%
1.20
5
PT - MMK Dodoma
PT - INSPIRE
3
8
0
2
3
5
20
1
20.0%
0
0.0%
3
60.0%
1
20.0%
1.20
5
6
1
5.0%
5
25.0%
11
55.0%
3
15.0%
1.20
5
PT - EXCEL - MOSHI
14
0
14
41
1
2.4%
12
29.3%
20
48.8%
8
19.5%
1.15
8
PT - FANI
PT - BRIGHT
MOROGORO
PT- WADE ARUSHA
PT-REHOBOTH
CONSULT
8
0
8
32
0
0.0%
7
21.9%
21
65.6%
4
12.5%
1.09
9
15
1
13
43
1
2.3%
9
20.9%
23
53.5%
10
23.3%
1.02
10
3
0
3
6
0
0.0%
1
16.7%
4
66.7%
1
16.7%
1.00
11
1
0
1
2
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
11
PT - FTC
PT - EVIN
2
8
1
2
1
1
9
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
11
6
0
0.0%
1
11.1%
6
66.7%
2
22.2%
0.89
14
PT - WAME MWANZA
5
0
5
17
1
5.9%
0
0.0%
11
64.7%
5
29.4%
0.82
15
PT - FILADEFIA
PT - CCA
9
6
1
1
8
0
0.0%
1
5.6%
12
66.7%
5
27.8%
0.78
16
5
18
15
0
0.0%
1
6.7%
8
53.3%
6
40.0%
0.67
17
PT - DBC
2
0
2
6
0
0.0%
1
16.7%
2
33.3%
3
50.0%
0.67
17
PT - APT
2
1
1
5
0
0.0%
1
20.0%
1
20.0%
3
60.0%
0.60
19
PT - ATITTUDE
3
0
3
5
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
40.0%
3
60.0%
0.40
20
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0.00
21
265
8
3.0%
51
19.2%
148
55.8%
58
21.9%
PT - CCU
1
0
1
Subtotals
108
11
96
RANKING
1ST
PT SJCS
2ND
PT PTC MWANZA
3RD
PT IDIANA CONSULT.
Key:
122
TABLE 11.3 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
Institution
PT Cornerstone
PT - Covenant
F. C.
PT - AFC
PT - KAS
PT- PAC
ARUSHA
Subtotals
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
45
5
40
117
159
9
150
391
41
30
2
0
39
30
84
91
30
4
26
68
305
20
285
751
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
14
12.0%
30
25.6%
52
44.4%
21
17.9%
1.32
1
5
0
0
1.3%
0.0%
0.0%
77
19
15
19.7%
22.6%
16.5%
229
45
59
58.6%
53.6%
64.8%
80
20
17
20.5%
23.8%
18.7%
1.02
0.99
0.98
2
3
4
0
19
0.0%
2.5%
15
156
22.1%
20.8%
25
410
36.8%
54.6%
28
166
41.2%
22.1%
0.81
5
RANKING
1ST
2ND
3RD
-
PT Cornerstone
PT Covenant F.C
PT FC
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
123
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
PT - FTC
3
2
1
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
1
PT - RUTER
6
1
5
9
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
6
66.7%
3
33.3%
0.67
2
PT - APT
7
2
5
11
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
7
63.6%
4
36.4%
0.64
3
PT - WETA
6
0
6
9
0
0.0%
1
11.1%
4
44.4%
5
55.6%
0.60
4
PT - FANI
5
1
4
10
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
5
50.0%
5
50.0%
0.50
5
PT - B&P
1
0
1
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0.00
17
PT-WADE ARUSHA
11
0
11
28
0
0.0%
1
3.6%
11
39.3%
16
57.1%
0.46
6
PT-WAME MWANZA
PT - IDIANA
CONSULT.
PT-KAS
18
0
18
47
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
15
31.9%
32
68.1%
0.32
7
13
3
10
24
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
7
29.2%
17
70.8%
0.29
8
17
2
15
38
0
0.0%
1
8
21.1%
29
76.3%
0.26
9
PT-ZIBCO
PT-PYTHAGORAS
F.C
PT - NAO
17
2
15
33
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
8
24.2%
25
75.8%
0.24
10
14
0
14
38
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
9
23.7%
29
76.3%
0.24
11
20
6
14
23
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
4
17.4%
19
82.6%
0.17
12
PT - BETA
17
0
17
26
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
4
15.4%
22
84.6%
0.15
13
PT - CCA
7
0
7
19
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
10.5%
17
89.5%
0.11
14
PT - ZENJI
PT - PERFECTSONGEA
PT-UPTAKE
13
3
10
12
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
8.3%
11
91.7%
0.08
15
9
2
7
12
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
8.3%
11
91.7%
0.08
15
11
1
10
11
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
11
100.0%
0.00
17
PT - BHC
PT - PERFECTFUTURE
PT - CCU
10
1
9
16
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
16
100.0%
0.00
17
3
0
3
6
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
6
100.0%
0.00
17
1
0
1
4
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
4
100.0%
0.00
17
PT REHOBOTH
1
0
1
2
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
100.0%
0.00
17
PT - DBC
1
0
1
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0.00
17
Subtotals
211
26
185
381
0
0.0%
3
0.8%
93
24.4%
286
75.1%
Institution
124
RANKING
1ST
3RD
-
PT APT & PT FAN
PT RUTER
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
125
TABLE 11.4 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Institution
PT - COVENANT F.C
Entered
1182
Absent
79
Sat
1103
No of
papers
2832
No of
A
% of
A
No of
B
% of
B
No of
C
% of
C
No of
F
% of
F
GPA
Ranking
2
0.1%
86
3.0%
1135
40.1%
1609
56.8%
0.46
1
PT - MMK DODOMA
56
3
53
117
0
0.0%
2
1.7%
50
42.7%
65
55.6%
0.46
2
PT - PTC MWANZA
22
5
17
36
0
0.0%
1
2.8%
14
38.9%
21
58.3%
0.44
3
PT - EXCEL MOSHI
75
4
71
141
0
0.0%
1
0.7%
56
39.7%
84
59.6%
0.41
4
PT - FILADEFIA FC
60
6
54
120
0
0.0%
3
2.5%
42
35.0%
75
62.5%
0.40
5
PT- CORNERSTONE
203
15
188
428
0
0.0%
6
1.4%
156
36.4%
266
62.1%
0.39
6
PT - TCCG
75
8
67
130
0
0.0%
5
3.8%
38
29.2%
87
66.9%
0.37
7
PT - INSPIRE
52
7
45
115
0
0.0%
2
1.7%
38
33.0%
75
65.2%
0.37
8
PT - ATTITUDE
172
12
160
318
0
0.0%
6
1.9%
99
31.1%
213
67.0%
0.35
9
PT-BRIGHT MORO
76
8
68
169
0
0.0%
3
1.8%
49
29.0%
117
69.2%
0.33
10
PT - EVEN
552
101
451
842
0
0.0%
14
1.7%
232
27.6%
596
70.8%
0.31
11
PT - AFC
468
48
420
863
0
0.0%
6
0.7%
244
28.3%
613
71.0%
0.30
12
PT - PAC ARUSHA
164
10
154
403
0
0.0%
1
0.2%
115
28.5%
287
71.2%
0.29
13
PT - ACG
35
8
27
32
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
3
9.4%
29
90.6%
0.09
14
Subtotals
3192
314
2878
6546
2
0.0%
136
2.1%
2271
34.7%
4137
63.2%
RANKING
1ST
2ND
3RD
-
PT Covenant F. C.
PT MMK DODOMA
PT PTC- MWANZA
Key:
126
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
PT - APT
1
0
1
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
PT - FANI
1
0
1
1
0
0.0%
0
PT - RUTER
2
0
2
3
0
0.0%
PT - PERFECT- FUTURE
2
0
2
2
0
PT - PERFECT- SONGEA
5
1
4
5
PT - WETA
4
0
4
5
PT - BHC
4
0
4
6
PT - PYTHAGORAS F.C
10
0
10
21
PT - ZIBCO
12
0
12
18
PT - PTC MWANZA
10
2
8
PT - WAME MWANZA
7
0
7
PT - IDIANA CONSULT.
7
1
PT - BETA
10
PT - UPTAKE
Institution
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
1
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
1
0.0%
1
100.0%
0
0.0%
1.00
1
0
0.0%
2
66.7%
1
33.3%
0.67
3
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
50.0%
1
50.0%
0.50
4
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
40.0%
3
60.0%
0.40
5
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
40.0%
3
60.0%
0.40
5
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
33.3%
4
66.7%
0.33
7
0
0.0%
1
4.8%
5
23.8%
15
71.4%
0.33
7
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
6
33.3%
12
66.7%
0.33
7
19
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
6
31.6%
13
68.4%
0.32
10
19
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
5
26.3%
14
73.7%
0.26
11
6
12
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
3
25.0%
9
75.0%
0.25
12
1
9
16
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
12.5%
14
87.5%
0.13
13
10
2
8
11
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
9.1%
10
90.9%
0.09
14
PT- ZENJI
13
2
11
25
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
8.0%
23
92.0%
0.08
15
PT - WADE ARUSHA
8
0
8
14
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
7.1%
13
92.9%
0.07
16
PT - NAO
17
1
16
32
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
6.3%
30
93.8%
0.06
17
PT - B & P
1
0
1
1
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
1
100.0%
0.00
18
PT - CCA
2
0
2
3
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
3
100.0%
0.00
18
PT - KAS
2
0
2
2
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
2
100.0%
0.00
18
128
10
118
216
0
0.0%
1
0.5%
44
20.4%
171
79.2%
Subtotals
No of C
RANKING
1ST
3RD
-
PT APT & PT FANI
PT RUTER
Key:
127
TABLE 11.5 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
Entered
Absent
Sat
No of
papers
No of A
% of A
No of B
% of B
No of C
% of C
No of F
% of F
GPA
Ranking
PT - EXCEL MOSHI
62
4
58
127
0
0.0%
4
3.1%
62
48.8%
61
48.0%
0.55
1
PT - COVENANT F.C
659
33
626
1274
0
0.0%
54
4.2%
562
44.1%
658
51.6%
0.53
2
PT - TCCG
33
6
27
60
0
0.0%
1
1.7%
28
46.7%
31
51.7%
0.50
3
PT - CORNERSTONE
105
9
96
168
0
0.0%
5
3.0%
65
38.7%
98
58.3%
0.45
4
PT- FILADEFIA F.C
31
4
27
44
0
0.0%
3
6.8%
10
22.7%
31
70.5%
0.36
5
PT - ATTITUDE
116
4
112
219
0
0.0%
3
1.4%
69
31.5%
147
67.1%
0.34
6
PT - AFC
288
16
272
499
0
0.0%
6
1.2%
151
30.3%
342
68.5%
0.33
7
PT- PAC ARUSHA
78
1
77
169
0
0.0%
1
0.6%
52
30.8%
116
68.6%
0.32
8
PT- INSPIRE
21
0
21
41
0
0.0%
1
2.4%
11
26.8%
29
70.7%
0.32
9
PT- MMK DODOMA
29
1
28
50
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
15
30.0%
35
70.0%
0.30
10
PT - EVIN
474
29
445
817
0
0.0%
3
0.4%
222
27.2%
592
72.5%
0.28
11
PT - ACG
32
0
32
82
0
0.0%
0
0.0%
18
22.0%
64
78.0%
0.22
12
PT - BRIGHT MORO
37
4
33
64
0
0.0%
1
1.6%
9
14.1%
54
84.4%
0.17
13
1965
111
1854
3614
0
0.0%
82
2.3%
1274
35.3%
2258
62.5%
Institution
Subtotals
RANKING
1ST
2ND
3RD
-
PT EXCEL MOSHI
PT COVENANT F. C.
PT TCCG
Key:
128
CHAPTER V
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO MAY 2016
In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel in the country,
the Board has been able to create cumulatively 21,072 accounting manpower since its
inception in May 1975.
These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in the following groups:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Certified Public Accountants (CPA)
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)
(Phased out in November 1991)
7,171
1,537
National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)
(phased out in May 1991)
Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)
(phased out in November 1990)
5,746
2,971
Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC)
3,647
Table 12 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May
1975 to November 2013
NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS
MAY 1975 –MAY 2015
TABLE 12
EXAMINATION
SESSION
1ST SESSION
MAY 1975
2ND SESSION
NOV. 1975
3RD SESSION
MAY 1976
4TH SESSION
NOV. 1976
5TH SESSION
MAY 1977
6TH SESSION
NOV. 1977
7TH SESSION
MAY 1978
8TH SESSION
NOV. 1978
9TH SESSION
MAY 1979
10TH SESSION
NO.
BBC
CUM.
NABOCE
NO.
CUM.
ATEC
NO.
CUM.
NO.
NAD
CUM.
NO.
CPA
CUM.
TOTAL
NO.
CUM.
-
-
04
04
-
-
01
01
NE
NE
05
05
-
-
32
36
-
-
10
11
NE
NE
42
47
-
-
158
194
-
-
25
36
02
02
185
232
-
-
73
267
-
-
43
79
02
04
118
350
-
-
174
441
-
-
36
115
08
12
218
568
-
-
98
539
-
-
17
132
03
15
118
686
-
-
193
732
-
-
57
189
13
28
263
949
-
-
172
904
-
-
56
245
11
39
239
1188
-
-
199
1103
-
-
46
291
27
66
272
1460
-
-
75
1178
-
-
31
322
13
79
119
1579
129
EXAMINATION
SESSION
NOV. 1979
11TH SESSION
MAY 1980
12TH SESSION
NOV. 1980
13TH SESSION
MAY 1981
14TH SESSION
NOV. 1981
15TH SESSION
MAY 1982
16TH SESSION
NOV. 1982
17TH SESSION
MAY 1983
18TH SESSION
NOV. 1983
19TH SESSION
MAY 1984
20TH SESSION
NOV. 1984
21ST SESSION
MAY 1985
22ND SESSION
NOV. 1985
23RD SESSION
MAY 1986
24TH SESSION
NOV. 1986
25TH SESSION
MAY 1987
26TH SESSION
NOV. 1987
27TH SESSION
MAY 1988
28TH SESSION
NOV. 1988
29TH SESSION
MAY 1989
30TH SESSION
NOV. 1989
31ST SESSION
MAY 1990
32ND SESSION
NOV. 1990
33RD SESSION
MAY 1991
34TH SESSION
NOV. 1991
35TH SESSION
MAY 1992
36TH SESSION
NO.
NAD
CUM.
NO.
-
22
344
22
101
167
1746
-
-
24
368
20
121
163
1909
1649
-
-
53
421
13
134
295
2204
124
1772
-
-
23
444
21
155
168
2372
-
172
1945
-
-
37
481
19
174
228
2600
-
-
236
2181
-
-
36
517
20
194
292
2892
-
-
248
2429
-
-
47
564
21
215
316
3208
-
-
200
2629
-
-
28
592
14
220
242
3450
-
-
199
2828
-
-
36
628
17
246
252
3702
-
-
215
3043
-
-
37
665
12
258
264
3966
18
18
306
3349
-
-
41
706
12
270
377
4343
40
58
194
3543
-
-
44
750
09
279
287
4630
62
120
123
3666
-
-
54
804
21
300
260
4890
86
206
168
3834
-
-
48
852
11
311
313
5203
64
270
205
4039
-
-
25
877
06
317
300
5503
93
363
129
4168
-
-
40
917
14
331
276
5779
298
661
175
4343
-
-
32
949
14
345
519
6298
292
953
179
4522
-
-
72
1021
22
367
565
6863
332
1285
201
4723
-
-
40
1061
16
377
589
7452
446
1731
232
4955
-
-
78
1139
31
414
787
8239
482
2213
235
5190
-
-
118
1257
17
431
852
9091
758
2971
211
5401
-
-
114
1371
40
471
10214
-
2971
345
5746
-
-
111
1482
61
532
112
3
517
-
2971
-
5746
56
56
55
1537
64
596
175
10906
-
2971
-
5746
136
192
-
1537
-
596
136
11042
-
2971
-
5746
186
378
-
1537
11
607
197
11,239
NO.
BBC
CUM.
NABOCE
NO.
CUM.
-
-
123
1301
-
-
-
119
1420
-
-
229
-
-
-
130
ATEC
NO.
CUM.
CPA
CUM.
TOTAL
NO.
CUM.
10731
EXAMINATION
SESSION
NOV. 1992
37TH SESSION
MAY 1993
38TH SESSION
NOV. 1993
39TH SESSION
MAY 1994
40TH SESSION
NOV. 1994
41ST SESSION
MAY 1995
42ND SESSION
NOV. 1995
43RD SESSION
MAY 1996
44TH SESSION
NOV. 1996
45TH SESSION
MAY 1997
46TH SESSION
NOV. 1997
47TH SESSION
MAY 1998
48TH SESSION
NOV. 1998
49TH SESSION
MAY 1999
50TH SESSION
NOV. 1999
51ST SESSION
MAY 2000
52ND SESSION
NOV.2000
53RD SESSION
MAY,2001
54TH SESSION
NOV. 2001
55TH SESSION
MAY 2002
56TH SESSION
Nov. 2002
57TH SESSION
MAY 2003
58th SESSION
NOV. 2003
59th SESSION
MAY 2004
60TH SESSION
NOV. 2004
61ST SESSION
MAY 2005
62ND SESSION
NOV. 2005
NO.
BBC
CUM.
NABOCE
NO.
CUM.
ATEC
NO.
CUM.
NO.
NAD
CUM.
NO.
CPA
CUM.
TOTAL
NO.
CUM.
-
2971
-
5746
119
497
-
1537
12
619
131
11,370
-
2971
-
5746
104
601
-
1537
12
631
116
11,486
-
2971
-
5746
110
711
-
1537
16
647
126
11,612
-
2971
-
5746
207
918
-
1537
19
666
226
11,838
-
2971
-
5746
122
1040
-
1537
28
694
150
11,988
-
2971
-
5746
117
1157
-
1537
29
723
146
12,134
-
2971
-
5746
87
1244
-
1537
36
759
123
12,257
-
2971
-
5746
111
1355
-
1537
53
812
164
12,421
-
2971
-
5746
109
1464
-
1537
28
840
137
12,558
-
2971
-
5746
107
1571
-
1537
40
880
147
12,705
-
2971
-
5746
124
1695
-
1537
40
920
164
12,869
-
2971
-
5746
60
1755
-
1537
29
949
89
12,958
-
2971
-
5746
80
1835
-
1537
52
1001
132
13,090
-
2971
-
5746
80
1915
-
1537
47
1048
127
13,217
-
2971
-
5746
104
2019
-
1537
42
1090
146
13,363
-
2971
-
5746
91
2110
-
1537
71
1161
162
13,525
-
2971
-
5746
45
2155
-
1537
77
1238
122
13,647
-
2971
-
5746
64
2219
-
1537
33
1271
97
13,744
-
2971
-
5746
41
2260
-
1537
28
1299
69
13,813
-
2971
-
5746
42
2302
-
1537
53
1352
95
13,908
-
2971
-
5746
55
2357
-
1537
49
1401
104
14,012
-
2971
-
5746
58
2415
-
1537
55
1456
113
14,125
-
2971
-
5746
85
2500
-
1537
165
1621
250
14,375
-
2971
-
5746
113
2613
-
1537
134
1755
247
14,622
-
2971
-
5746
65
2678
-
1537
142
1897
207
14,829
-
2971
-
5746
75
2753
-
1537
131
2028
206
15,035
131
EXAMINATION
SESSION
63RD SESSION
MAY 2006
64TH SESSION
NOV. 2006
65TH SESSION
MAY 2007
66TH SESSION
NOV. 2007
67TH SESSION
MAY 2008
68TH SESSION
NOV. 2008
69TH SESSION
MAY 2009
70TH SESSION
NOV. 2009
71ST SESSION
MAY 2010
72ND SESSION
NOV. 2010
73RD SESSION
MAY 2011
74TH SESSION
NOV. 2011
75th SESSION
MAY 2012
76th SESSION
NOV. 2012
77th SESSION
MAY 2013
78th SESSION
NOV. 2013
79th SESSION
MAY 2014
80th SESSION
NOV. 2014
81st SESSION
MAY 2015
1st Mid-SESSION
AUGUST 2015
82nd SESSION
NOVEMBER
2015
2ND MIDSESSION
FEBRUARY
2016
83rd SESSION
MAY 2016
NO.
BBC
CUM.
NABOCE
NO.
CUM.
ATEC
NO.
CUM.
NO.
NAD
CUM.
NO.
CPA
CUM.
TOTAL
NO.
CUM.
-
2971
-
5746
62
2815
-
1537
92
2120
154
15,189
-
2971
-
5746
35
2850
-
1537
83
2203
118
15,307
-
2971
-
5746
102
2952
-
1537
97
2300
199
15,506
-
2971
-
5746
61
3013
-
1537
177
2477
238
15,744
-
2971
-
5746
21
3034
-
1537
184
2661
205
15,949
-
2971
-
5746
49
3083
-
1537
97
2758
146
16,095
-
2971
-
5746
45
3128
-
1537
179
2937
224
16,319
-
2971
-
5746
61
3189
-
1537
146
3083
207
16,525
-
2971
-
5746
32
3221
-
1537
164
3247
196
16,722
-
2971
2971
-
5746
5746
33
29
3254
3283
-
1537
1537
176
185
3423
3608
209
214
16,931
17,145
-
2971
-
5746
31
3314
-
1537
268
3876
299
17,444
-
2971
-
5746
35
3349
-
1537
259
4135
294
17,738
-
2971
-
5746
23
3372
-
1537
188
4323
211
17,949
-
2971
-
5746
26
3398
-
1537
468
4791
494
18,443
-
2971
-
5746
36
3434
-
1537
377
5,168
413
18,856
-
2971
-
5746
46
3480
-
1537
478
5,646
524
19,380
-
2971
-
5746
43
3523
-
1537
369
6,015
412
19,792
-
2971
-
5746
42
3565
-
1537
600
6,615
642
20,434
-
2971
-
5746
-
3565
-
1537
03
6,618
03
20,437
-
2971
-
5746
42
3607
-
1537
270
6,888
312
20,749
-
2971
-
5746
-
3607
-
1537
01
6,889
01
20,750
-
2971
-
5746
40
3647
-
1537
282
7,171
322
21,072
132
Table 13 below shows the statistics of CPA (T) equivalent graduates per session and
cumulatively since May 2015 to May 2016.
TABLE 13: CPA (T) EQUIVALENT CERTIFICATES FROM MAY 2015 – MAY
2016
EXAMINATION
SESSION
80TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2014
81ST SESSION MAY 2015
1ST MID-SESSION AUGUST 2015
82ND NOVEMBER 2015
2ND MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2016
83RD SESSION MAY 2016
TOTAL
NO.
01
08
04
03
08
10
133
CUM.
01
09
13
16
24
34
CHAPTER VI
CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – MAY 2016 EXAMINATION
SESSION
1.0
PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA
NBAA offers prizes in the following categories:
1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize
1.0.2 Single Subject Prize
1.0.3 Best Female Prizes
1.1
Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize
In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum
requirement is for a candidate to obtain an overall pass in a level, having
attempted whole set of subjects in that level and passing at a single examination
attempt.
1.2
Amount offered in each Examination level:
1.2.1
NBAA Best Level Performance Prize
This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination
level in the first attempt and scores highest marks in aggregate in that
level.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II
Foundation Level
Intermediate Level
Final Level
1.2.2
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes
Tshs.
T01 – T08
50,000
A1 – A5
60,000
B1 – B6
80,000
C1 – C4
100,000
Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize
The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark – 70% or above in the Accounting
Technician Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional
Examination Scheme.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II
Foundation Level
Intermediate Level
Final Level
134
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes
Tshs.
T01 – T08
40,000
A1 – A5
50,000
B1 – B6
60,000
C1 – C4
70,000
1.2.3
Best Female Prizes
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and
perform better in the Board’s examination, two categories of prizes are
offered to female candidates as follows:
1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize:
This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60%
and above in professional examinations.
Foundation Level
Intermediate Level
Final Stage Level
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes
Tshs.
T01 – T04
50,000
T05 – T08
50,000
A1 – A5
60,000
B1 – B6
80,000
C1 – C4
100,000
1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:
The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is
offered to the female candidate who scores highest marks in
aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award
Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award
1.3
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes
Tshs.
T05 – T08
250,000
C1 – C4
500,000
Prizes won by Candidates:
1.3.1
NBAA Best Level Performance Prize:
Code and Subject Name
Name
Accounting Technician Level JAMES, JERLINE
I
Accounting Technician Level GEORGE, GIDEON
II
Foundation Level
SONELO, ERASTO
1027538
Amount
Tshs.
50,000/=
2027484
50,000/=
3025227
60,000/=
Intermediate Level
SOMBOI EMMANUEL
4027414
80,000/=
Final Level
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
100,000/=
135
Index No.
1.3.2
Subject to Subject Performance Prize
The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark -70% or above in Accounting Technician
Examination Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination
scheme.
The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:
Name
T.01 - Bookkeeping and
Accounts
T.02 - Elements of Business
Maths and Statistics
KIHIYO, DISMAS L.
1027802
Amount
Tshs.
40,000/=
JAMES, JERLINE
1027538
40,000/=
T.03 - Introduction to
Information and
Communication
Technology
T.04 - Business Communication
Skills
KIHIYO, DISMAS L.
1027802
40,000/=
KIMBALI, JOHN P.
1027539
40,000/=
Name
Index No.
T.05 - Principles of Accounting
and Auditing
BUCHEYE, JONAS
2027807
Amount
Tshs.
40,000/=
T.06 – Principles of Cost
Accounting and
Procurement
GEORGE, GIDEON
2027484*
20,000/=
RUKOKERWA, DICKSON E. 2026281*
20,000/=
T.07 – Elements of Commercial
Knowledge,
Management
Practices and Taxation
RAMADHAN, BAKARI
2027485*
20,000/=
UBWE, SHANNA N.
2027502*
20,000/=
T.08 – Accounting for Public
Sector and Cooperatives
LUSUBILO, DANIEL
2027483
40,000/=
136
Index No.
FOUNDATION LEVEL
Name
Index No.
A1 – Quantitative Techniques
SONELO, ERASTO
3025227
Amount
Tshs.
50,000/=
A2 - Business and Management
SONELO, ERASTO
3025227
50,000/=
A3 – Accounting
A4 - Business Information
SONELO, ERASTO
JAMES, EUTROPIA N.
3025227
3024638*
50,000/=
25,000/=
SONELO ERASTO
3025227*
25,000/=
SAMSON, ABESTER B.
3027007
50,000/=
A5 - Business Law
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Name
Index No.
B1 - Financial Management
BYEMERWA, KENNETH
4026805*
Amount
Tshs.
20,000/=
MASKINI, OLIMPIA P.
4026853*
20,000/=
SOMBOI,EMMANUEL E.
4027414*
20,000/=
B2 - Financial Accounting
SOMBOI,EMMANUEL E.
4027414
60,000/=
B3 - Auditing Principles and
Practice
B4 - Public Finance and
Taxation I
PASCHAL, EDSON
4026975
60,000/=
B5 - Performance Management
MWAKAJE, FAHAD A.
4027221
60,000/=
B6 - Management, Governance
and Ethics
PASCHAL, EDSON
4026975
60,000/=
No Candidate qualified for
the award
137
60,000/=
FINAL LEVEL
Name
Index No.
C1- Corporate Reporting
DOMINICK, AGNESS
5026713
Amount
Tshs.
70,000/=
C2 - Auditing and Assurance
NYAISARA, EZEKIEL K.
5025111
70,000/=
5026679
70,000/=
5026445
70,000/=
C3- Business and Corporate
DAMAS, LEONARD
Finance
C4 - Public Finance and RICHARD, GLADY’S
Taxation II
1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes:
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and
perform better in the Board’s examinations, two categories of prizes shall
be offered to female candidates.
1.3.3.1
NBAA Female Prizes:
This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60%
and above in professional examinations.
Name
Index
No.
1027537
Amount
Tshs.
50,000/=
ALWANI, AAMNA A.
Accounting Technician Level No candidate qualified for the
II
prize
Foundation Level
No candidate qualified for the
prize
Intermediate Level
No candidate qualified for the
prize
Final Level
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
50,000/=
138
60,000/=
80,000/=
100,000/=
1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes
The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered
to the female candidates who scores highest marks in aggregate among female
candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
The following female candidates qualify for the award:
Level
Name
Amount
Tshs.
250,000/=
5026445
500,000/=
ATEC GRADUATE
CPA
GRADUATE
No candidates qualified for the
prize
(T) RICHARD, GLADY’S
Index No.
139
2.0
PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS
In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance
a number of professional progressive institutions have willingly offered different
prizes for the best performers.
The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are
indicated hereunder:
2.1
PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes:
2.1.1
2.1.2
PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance (C2)
Prize
PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.1,000,000
2.1.3
Best Female CPA (T) Graduate
Ths.500,000
2.2
Tanna Sreekumar & Co: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.400,000
2.3
STANBIC Tanzania Ltd: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
US$ 100
2.4
TAC Associates: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize
Tshs.200,000
2.5
Khatri & Company: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize
Tshs.200,000
2.6
Ernst & Young: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize
Tshs.310,000
2.7
IPP: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.200,000
2.8
TaxPlan Associates: Best Public Finance and Taxation II
Tshs.400,000
Tshs.600,000
(C4) Prize
2.9
TIB INTERNATIONAL FINANCE PRIZE
1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize
Tshs.500,000,
2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize
Tshs.350,000
&
Tshs.200,000
3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize
2.10
Dar es Salaam Stock Exchange: Business and Corporate
Tshs.150,000
Finance (C3) Prize
2.11
Deloitte &Touche: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize
Tshs.500,000
2.12
Tshs.100,000
2.13
Capital Markets and Securities Authority: Best Financial
Management (B1) Prize
KPMG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
2.14
Accountant General’s Office Prize Awards:
140
US$ 100
2.14.1
Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize
Tshs.800,000
2.14.2
Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize
Tshs.500,000
2.14.3
Performance Management (B5) Prize
Tshs.500,000
2.14.4
Best Core Subject Prizes:
2.14.4.1
Accounting (A3) Prize
Tshs.30,000
2.14.4.2
Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize
Tshs.30,000
2.14.4.3
Business Information (A4) Prize
Tshs.30,000
2.14.4.4
Financial Accounting (B2) Prize
Tshs.50,000
2.14.4.5
Financial Management (B1) Prize
Tshs.50,000
2.14.4.6
Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.14.4.7
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.14.4.8
Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.15
2.16
NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business
AdviserPrize Awards:
NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best
Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize
NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best
Performance Management (B5) Prize
Innovex Prize Awards:
2.16.1
Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.150,000
2.16.2
Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize
Tshs.150,000
2.17
CAG Prize Awards
2.17.1
CAG: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize
Tshs.300,000
2.17.2
CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.18
Peoples Bank of Zanzibar: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
Tshs.500,000
2.19
BM Associates Prize Awards
2.19.1
Best CPA(T) Female Graduates Prize
2.19.2
Best ATEC Female Graduates Prize
2.20
TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes
2.20.1
TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes
2.15.1
2.15.2
141
Offer of
Employment
Offer of
Employment
Tshs.100,000
Tshs.50,000
Tshs.100,000
2.20.2
TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes
2.21
RSM Ashvir: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize
2.22
Cornerstone Financial Consultants
2.22.1
Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.22.2
Overall Best Candidate in Foundation Level Prize
Tshs.100,000
2.22.3
Overall Best CPA (T) Candidates Prizes
Tshs.100,000
1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
PWC: AUDITING AND
ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE
PWC BEST CPA (T)
RICHARD, GLADY’S
GRADUATE PRIZE
2. TANNA SREEKUMAR & CO. PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
TANNA SREEKUMAR
RICHARD, GLADY’S
BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE
PRIZE
3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
STANBIC TANZANIA
RICHARD, GLADY’S
LIMITED BEST CPA [T]
GRADUATE PRIZE
4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
TAC ASSOCIATES:
AUDITING AND
5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
KHATRI AND COMPANY
DOMINICK, AGNESS
FINANCIAL: CORPORATE
REPORTING (C1)
142
Tshs.200,000
Tshs.500,000 &
Employment
Index No.
5025111
Amount
600,000/=
5026445
1,000,000/=
Index No.
5026445
Amount
400,000/=
Index No.
5026445
Amount
US$100
Index No.
5025111
Amount
200,000/=
Index No.
5026713
Amount
200,000/=
6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
ERNST & YOUNG:
AUDITING AND
7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
IPP BEST CPA (T)
RICHARD, GLADY’S
GRADUATE PRIZE
Index No.
5025111
Amount
310,000/=
Index No.
5026445
Amount
200,000/=
Index No.
5026445
Amount
400,000/=
Index No.
5026679
Amount
500,000/=
8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES
Name of Prize
TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES:
PUBLIC FINANCE AND
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
Name of Winner
RICHARD, GLADY’S
9. TANZANIA INVESTMENT BANK PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
TIB: BUSINESS AND
DAMAS, LEONARD
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE
No candidate qualified for the prize
No candidate qualified for the prize
10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
DSE: BUSINESS AND
DAMAS, LEONARD
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE
11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
DELOITTE & TOUCHE:
AUDITING AND
350,000/=
200,000/=
Index No.
5026679
Amount
150,000/=
Index No.
5025111
Amount
500,000/=
12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
Index No.
CMSA: BEST FINANCIAL
BYEMERWA, KENNETH
4026805*
MANAGEMENT (B1)
MASKINI, OLIMPIA P.
4026853*
PRIZE
SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E.
143
4027414*
Amount
33,333.3
33,333.3
33,333.3
13. KPMG PRIZES
Name of Prize
KPMG: BEST CPA (T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
Name of Winner
RICHARD, GLADY’S
Index No.
5026445
Amount
US$100
14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES
The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates
with excellent performance in the Board’s examinations. The awards worth
Tshs.2,440,000 are offered in each examination session.
The conditions of winning the prizes are:
A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination
attempt and must score a credit pass (60%) or above either overall, or in the subject
be awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be.
Candidates winning the prizes for the May 2016 examinations are as shown below:
Name of Prize
AG’S: BEST CPA [T]
GRADUATE PRIZE
Name of Winner
RICHARD, GLADY’S
AG’S: AUDITING AND
AG’S: BEST
PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5)
PRIZE
Index No.
5026445
Amount
800,000/=
5025111
500,000/=
MWAKAJE, FAHAD
4027221
500,000/=
3025227*
15,000/=
3024638*
4066805*
15,000/=
16,666/=
4026853*
16,666/=
4027414*
4027414
16,666/=
ACGEN’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES
ACCOUNTING (A3) PRIZE
BUSINESS INFORMATION SONELO ERASTO
(A4) PRIZE
JAMES, EUTROPIA N
FINANCIAL
BYEMERWA, KENNETH
MANAGEMENT (B1)
MASKINI, OLIMPIA P.
PRIZE
SOMBOI, EMMANUEL
FINANCIAL
ACCOUNTING (B2) PRIZE
SOMBOI, EMMANUEL.E
144
50,000/=
AUDITING PRINCIPLES
AND PRACTICE (B3)
PRIZE
CORPORATE REPORTING
(C1) PRIZE
BUSINESS AND
CORPORATE FINANCE
(C3) PRIZE
PUBLIC FINANCE AND
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
PASCHAL, EDSON
4026975
50,000/=
DOMINICK, AGNESS
5026713
100,000/=
DAMAS, LEONARD
5026679
100,000/=
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
100,000/=
15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS
PRIZES:
Name of Prize
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS
ADVISER:PUBLIC FINANCE
AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS
ADVISER:Best Performance
Management (B5) Prize
16. INNOVEX PRIZES
Name of Prize
INNOVEX BEST CPA (T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
INNOVEX BEST CPA (T)
FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
Name of Winner
Index No.
Amount
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
Employment
MWAKAJE, FAHAD A.
Employment
Name of Winner
RICHARD, GLADY’S
Index No.
5026445
Amount
150,000/=
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
150,000/=
17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
CAG: AUDITING AND
CAG: BEST CPA (T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
4027221
RICHARD, GLADY’S
145
Index No.
5025111
5026445
Amount
300,000/=
150,000/=
18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
PBZ: BEST CPA (T)
RICHARD, GLADY’S
GRADUATE PRIZE
19. BM ASSOCIATES PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
BM ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA
RICHARD, GLADY’S
(T) FEMALE GRADUATE
PRIZE
BM ASSOCIATES: BEST ATEC
FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
Index No.
5026445
Amount
500,000/=
Index No.
5026445
Amount
100,000/=
No candidate qualified for
the prize
50,000/=
20. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
Index No.
TAA: BEST ATEC II
GEORGE, GIDEON
2027484
CANDIDATE PRIZE
TAA: BEST CPA (T)
RICHARD, GLADY’S
5026445
CANDIDATE PRIZE
21. RSM ASHVIR PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
RSM ASHVIR: BEST CPA RICHARD, GLADY’S
(T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
22. CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS PRIZES
Name of Prize
Name of Winner
CORNERSTONE: OVERALL
GEORGE, GIDEON
BEST CANDIDATE IN ATEC
II LEVEL PRIZE
CORNERSTONE:OVERALL
SONELO, ERASTO
BEST CANDIDATE IN
FOUNDATION LEVEL
PRIZE
CORNERSTONE :OVERALL
RICHARD, GLADY’S
BEST CPA (T) CANDIDATES
PRIZES
___________p_________
146
Index No.
5026445
Amount
50,000/=
100,000/=
Amount
500,000/= &
Employment
Index No.
2027484
Amount
100,000/=
3025227
100,000/=
5026445
100,000/=

Examiners` Report - National Board of Accountants and Auditors

Transcription

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