CRCT Preparation Workbook

Transcription

CRCT Preparation Workbook
TO THE STUDENT
Do you need to practice answering test questions? If so, this booklet
will help you. The CRCT Preparation Workbook is an important tool for
helping you prepare for the Criterion-Referenced Competency Test.
The workbook has multiple worksheet pages of questions for each chapter
in your textbook. Use these worksheets to test your understanding of
chapter concepts and to practice answering questions in the CRCT format.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston
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registered in the United States of America and/or other jurisdictions.
Printed in the United States of America
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Possession of this publication in print format does not entitle users to convert this
publication, or any portion of it, into electronic format.
ISBN-13: 978-0-03-093540-4
ISBN-10: 0-03-093540-7
Print Code TK 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 5 03 02 01 00
Contents
CRCT Preparation
The World of Earth Science .................................................................................................. 1
Maps as Models of the Earth ................................................................................................ 4
Minerals of the Earth’s Crust ............................................................................................... 7
Rocks: Mineral Mixtures ...................................................................................................... 11
Energy Resources ................................................................................................................. 14
The Rock and Fossil Record .............................................................................................. 18
Plate Tectonics ...................................................................................................................... 22
Earthquakes ............................................................................................................................ 25
Volcanoes ................................................................................................................................ 29
Weathering and Soil Formation ......................................................................................... 33
The Flow of Fresh Water ...................................................................................................... 36
Agents of Erosion and Deposition ................................................................................... 40
Exploring the Oceans ........................................................................................................... 44
The Movement of Ocean Water ......................................................................................... 48
The Atmosphere .................................................................................................................... 52
Understanding Weather ....................................................................................................... 55
Climate ..................................................................................................................................... 59
Studying Space ...................................................................................................................... 63
Stars, Galaxies, and the Universe...................................................................................... 66
Formation of the Solar System .......................................................................................... 70
A Family of Planets ............................................................................................................... 74
Exploring Space .................................................................................................................... 78
Original content Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. Additions and changes to the original content are the responsibility of the instructor.
Holt Science and Technology
iii
Table of Contents
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. You are preparing for an experiment in which you will use a Bunsen
burner to heat a substance. Which of the safety symbols below would
you most likely see in the directions for this experiment?
A
C
B
D
_____ 2. Which of the following SI units would a scientist use to express the
mass of an object?
A. liters
B. kilograms
C. cubic meters
D. meters
_____ 3. What must a scientist always be sure of when testing a hypothesis?
A. that observations meet expectations
B. that records of observations are accurate
C. that observations are supported by opinions
D. that observations prove that a hypothesis is true
_____ 4. Which of the following physical properties does a graduated cylinder
determine?
A. the density of an object
B. the mass of an object
C. the volume of an object
D. the temperature of an object
_____ 5. Which of the following types of models is based on making
comparisons with familiar things to help illustrate or explain an idea?
A. conceptual models
B. climate models
C. physical models
D. mathematical model
1
The World of Earth Science
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
CRCT Preparation continued
Use the diagram below to answer question 6.
_____ 6. Which step belongs at point A in the flowchart of scientific methods
above?
A. Present the Findings
B. Organize the Data
C. Construct a Theory
D. Test the Hypothesis
_____ 7. How have mathematics and technology changed the way scientists
create models?
A. Scientists can create models that prevent natural catastrophes.
B. Scientists can create models that make exact predictions about the
future.
C. Scientists can create models from large amounts of data from many
different variables.
D. Scientists can create models that no longer require them to use
scientific methods.
_____ 8. When does the scientific community accept the results of a scientific
experiment?
A. when other scientists have carefully reviewed the completed
experiment
B. before the results of an experiment have been communicated
C. after a hypothesis has been developed
D. during data gathering
2
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. Why do scientists sometimes communicate different results about the
same topic?
A. Not all scientists use scientific methods.
B. The results of scientific experiments can never be reproduced.
C. Scientists support only their own opinions.
D. Scientific data can be interpreted in different ways.
_____ 10. What do scientists do when the results of an experiment do not support
a theory?
A. Scientists conduct further experiments.
B. Scientists reject the results of the experiment.
C. Scientists reject the theory.
D. Scientists change the scientific method.
_____ 11. Why do scientists keep accurate records of their data and share their
data with other scientists?
A. The data support the scientists’ hypothesis.
B. The data can be analyzed by other scientists.
C. The data prevent experiments from having to be repeated.
D. The data will help all scientists to reach the same conclusions.
OPEN RESPONSE
12. A group of Georgia mineralogists studies the properties of the clay minerals
and clay deposits that are common in Georgia. Another group studies the
mineralogy of the Elberton granite, a rock deposit found in Elberton County,
Georgia. Why would these geologists focus on studying the natural resources
found in Georgia?
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_______________________________________________________________
13. A model is used to estimate the height of storm surges generated by hurricanes.
The model uses information about local geography and the hurricane itself to
predict surge height. What kind of model is this model? What kind of
geographical and meteorological data would be included in this model?
_______________________________________________________________
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3
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Which of the following types of projections is best for determining
distance on a map?
A. azimuthal projection
B. conic projection
C. cylindrical projection
D. equal-area projection
_____ 2. Which of the following types of projections shows increasing distortion
as you move away from the poles?
B. conic projection
_____ 3. Which of the following types of projections shows increasing distortion
as you move away from the equator?
B. conic projection
_____ 4. Topographic maps are primarily used to show which of the following
features?
A. the shapes of continents and oceans
B. lines of latitude and longitude
C. highways and other roads
D. the shape and size of surface features
_____ 5. Which of the following types of projections is best for mapping large
areas of land that have more area from east to west than from north to
south?
B. conic projection
4
Maps as Models of the Earth
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 6. Which of the following observations led the ancient Greeks to think
that Earth was a sphere?
A. The winds and ocean currents have curved paths across Earth’s
surface.
B. A ship sinks below the horizon as it sails into the distance.
C. Gravity keeps the moon in orbit around Earth.
D. High tides occur on the side of Earth that faces the moon.
_____ 7. Why does a map need a scale?
A. A scale shows the relationship between distance on Earth’s surface
and distance on the map.
B. A scale is a list of symbols used on the map and explanations for the
symbols.
C. A scale shows you how the map is oriented relative to true north.
D. A scale identifies when the information was recorded on the map.
Use the map below to answer question 8.
D
A
C
B
_____ 8. Which of the paths marked on the map above would you choose if you
did not want to climb up or down hills?
A. path A
B. path B
C. path C
D. path D
_____ 9. Lines that connect points of equal elevation on topographic maps are
called
A. index contours.
B. contour intervals.
C. contour lines.
D. relief.
5
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. Which of the following statements about contour lines on topographic
maps is true?
A. Contour lines that are far apart show a steep slope.
B. If a stream flows through a valley, the V of a contour line points
downstream.
C. The highest point of a hill or mountain is shown by a contour line.
D. All points along a contour line represent equal elevation.
Use the map below to answer question 11.
_____ 11. Which point on the topographic map has the lowest elevation?
A. point A
B. point B
C. point C
D. point D
OPEN RESPONSE
12. Which type of map projection would be best for comparing the sizes of
countries—cylindrical, conic, or azimuthal? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
13. Which map scale would be more useful for a road map of the state of Georgia:
1 cm equals 500 m or 1 cm equals 5 km? Which map would be more detailed?
Explain your answer.
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6
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Which of the following definitions best describes a mineral?
A. a substance that cannot be separated or broken down into simpler
substances by chemical means
B. a substance made up of atoms of two or more different elements
joined by chemical bonds
C. a naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a definite crystalline
structure
D. a solid whose atoms, ions, or molecules are arranged in a definite
pattern
_____ 2. Which of the following substances is a mineral?
A. coal, which forms from the remains of living things
B. fluorite, which is a crystalline solid with the chemical formula CaF2
C. obsidian, which is a volcanic glass and is not crystalline
D. brass, which is a metal that is made by humans
_____ 3. Minerals that contain one or more elements combined with silicon and
oxygen are called
A. sulfides.
B. silicates.
C. oxides.
D. halides.
7
Minerals of the Earth’s Crust
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the table below to answer question 4.
Mohs Hardness Scale
Hardness
Mineral
1
Talc
2
Gypsum
3
Calcite
4
Fluorite
5
Apatite
6
Orthoclase
7
Quartz
8
Topaz
9
Corundum
10
Diamond
_____ 4. On the Mohs hardness scale, which of the following minerals is harder
than topaz?
A. apatite
B. talc
C. corundum
D. quartz
_____ 5. Which of the following is a nonsilicate mineral?
A. orthoclase, KAlSi3O8
B. talc, Mg3Si4O10(OH)2
C. almandine, Fe3Al2(SiO4)3
D. magnetite, Fe3O4
_____ 6. Which of the following is NOT a way to reduce the impact of mining?
A. recycling products that are made from minerals
B. reducing the use of minerals to make products
C. reclaiming land that has been disturbed by mining
D. inventing new things to make out of minerals
8
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. Which of the following minerals can be identified by taste?
A. magnetite
B. fluorite
C. calcite
D. halite
_____ 8. Minerals such as gypsum and halite form
A. from hot-water solutions.
B. when a rock is altered by metamorphism.
C. when bodies of salt water evaporate.
D. from the cooling of magma that rises upward through the crust.
_____ 9. Why are gemstones valuable?
A. They can be used in concrete and to build buildings.
B. They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
C. They are beautiful and rare.
D. They taste good.
Use the table below to answer Question 10.
Chemical
Symbol
Mineral
Mineral
Class
Au
gold
native
element
CaCO3
calcite
FeS2
pyrite
sulfide
SiO2
quartz
silicate
_____ 10. Which of the following terms correctly completes the entry in the table
above?
A. sulfate
B. oxide
C. carbonate
D. halide
9
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
11. What is the difference between an element, a mineral, and a rock?
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12. A chemical analysis of a mineral sample shows its chemical composition as
SiO2. In what group of minerals does this sample belong? How do you know?
_______________________________________________________________
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10
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Igneous rock forms when
A. magma cools and hardens.
B. minerals crystallize out of water.
C. heat and pressure change the composition and texture of a rock.
D. natural cement binds rock fragments together.
_____ 2. Which of the following processes occurs at point C on the diagram of
the rock cycle?
A. deposition
B. uplift
C. heat and pressure
D. melting and cooling
_____ 3. Volcanic activity on Earth’s surface most likely results in the formation
of which of the following types of rock?
A. intrusive igneous rock
B. extrusive igneous rock
C. clastic sedimentary rock
D. chemical sedimentary rock
11
Rocks: Mineral Mixtures
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. How does clastic sedimentary rock form?
A. Rock fragments are cemented together by a mineral such as calcite
or quartz.
B. Dissolved minerals crystallize out of solution in water to form solid
minerals.
C. Heat and pressure turn partially decomposed plant material into
rock.
D. Skeletons of sea animals that collected on the ocean floor are
cemented together.
_____ 5. Stratification occurs as the result of which of the following processes?
A. the cooling and solidification of magma
B. the partial or complete melting of rock
C. the deformation of rock by heat and pressure
D. the deposition of sediments in a body of water
Rock Type
Rock
Sample
Texture
Composition
Sample A
coarse-grained
mica, quartz,
and feldspar
Sample B
mediumgrained
quartz sand in
quartz cement
Sample C
foliated
biotite mica
Sample D
coarse-grained
marine fossils
in calcite
cement
_____ 6. Which of the four rock samples in the table most likely formed in the
process of regional metamorphism?
A. Sample A
B. Sample B
C. Sample C
D. Sample D
12
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. Buried rock is exposed at Earth’s surface by the combination of which
two processes?
A. weathering and deposition
B. uplift and erosion
C. erosion and deposition
D. deposition and uplift
_____ 8. Which of the following processes forms sediment?
A. deposition
B. weathering
C. erosion
D. compaction and cementation
_____ 9. Rock in which the composition and texture of the rock have been
changed by heat and pressure is called
A. felsic rock.
B. mafic rock.
C. igneous rock.
D. metamorphic rock.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Kaolin is a white claystone that is composed of kaolinite and other minerals.
Over 8 million tons of kaolin are mined in Georgia each year. Kaolin is used
as a coating on glossy paper. It is also used in the production of ceramics,
paints, plastics, and rubber. What type of rock is kaolin? How is kaolin rock
formed?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Tim is studying the geology of Georgia. He discovers that the LexingtonOglesby Blue Granite Belt lies beneath Elberton County in Georgia. This
deposit contains Elberton granite, also called “Georgia Gray” because of its
color. The stone consists of coarse light-gray and dark-gray grains. Elberton
granite can be seen all over the United States, in buildings, monuments, and
gravestones. What was the process that formed Elberton granite? What can you
infer about the properties of this stone from its uses?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
13
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Which of the following is one way to conserve water?
A. using geothermal energy
B. using hydroelectric energy
C. keeping lakes and rivers free of pollution
D. leaving the faucet on while brushing one’s teeth
_____ 2. What process releases the energy that is used in nuclear power plants to
generate electrical energy?
A. the burning of radioactive fuel
B. the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen to form water
C. the splitting of radioactive nuclei into two or more smaller nuclei
D. the joining of two or more nuclei to form a larger nucleus
_____ 3. Which of the following determines whether a resource is a renewable
resource or a nonrenewable resource?
A. the cost for obtaining and using the resource
B. the effects of the resource on the environment
C. whether the resource is used to generate energy or is made into
products
D. the rate at which the resource can be replaced
14
Energy Resources
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. What is the source of energy shown in the diagram, and how is the
energy being used?
A. Geothermal energy is being used to generate chemical energy.
B. Geothermal energy is being used to generate electrical energy.
C. Hydroelectric energy is being used to generate chemical energy.
D. Hydroelectric energy is being used to generate electrical energy.
_____ 5. Which of the following is a way of conserving soil?
A. riding a bike instead of driving a car
B. turning off lights when they are not in use
C. restoring land after the surface mining of coal
D. making sure that the washing machine is full before starting it
_____ 6. Which of the following statements about all fossil fuels is true?
A. Fossil fuels are liquids.
B. Fossil fuels are found only on land.
C. Fossil fuels move through permeable rock.
D. Fossil fuels form from the remains of ancient organisms.
_____ 7. Which type of fuel forms when pressure and heat cause changes in the
remains of swamp plants?
A. coal
B. gasohol
C. petroleum
D. natural gas
15
Energy Resources
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
The Top Four Renewable Energy
Sources Used to Generate Electric
Power in the United States in 2003
Energy source
Percentage of
electric power
generated
Hydroelectric power
82
Solid biomass power
11
Geothermal power
4
Wind power
3
_____ 8. What percentage of the electric power generated in 2003 came from
sources that originated from the sun?
A. 85%
B. 93%
C. 96%
D. 100%
_____ 9. Why is the energy that is generated at a hydroelectric dam dependent
on the sun?
A. The sun’s gravity causes water to flow.
B. Energy from the sun powers the water cycle.
C. Sunlight gets rid of the pollution created by hydroelectric dams.
D. Sunlight is the source of energy in the fuels burned by hydroelectric
dams.
_____ 10. Which of the following resources is nonrenewable?
A. wind
B. wood
C. sunlight
D. natural gas
_____ 11. What is the most common way to release biomass energy?
A. to burn it
B. to recycle it
C. to compress and heat it
D. to convert it into petroleum
16
Energy Resources
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
12. What is the ultimate source of almost all energy? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
13. In what ways is the production of wind energy limited by time and place?
_______________________________________________________________
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17
Energy Resources
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The death of every member of a species is called
A. catastrophism.
B. uniformitarianism.
C. superposition.
D. extinction.
_____ 2. Which of the following provides evidence that environmental
conditions on Earth have changed?
A. a fossilized footprint found in lava rock
B. an insect fossil found in amber
C. a marine fossil found on a mountaintop
D. a dinosaur fossil found in sedimentary rock
_____ 3. Which of the following vertebrate animals dominated Earth during the
Mesozoic Era?
A. reptiles
B. amphibians
C. mammals
D. birds
_____ 4. The carbon-14 method of radiometric dating would most likely be used
to date
A. archaeological artifacts.
B. meteorites that have struck Earth.
C. Earth’s oldest rocks.
D. dinosaur bones and teeth.
18
The Rock and Fossil Record
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Isotope Ratios
Parent
isotope (mg)
Daughter
isotope (mg)
Rock forms
20
0
20,000
years
10
10
40,000
years
_____ 5. According to the table, what will the composition of the rock be in
40,000 years?
A. The rock will contain 0 mg of the parent isotope and 20 mg of the
daughter isotope.
B. The rock will contain 2.5 mg of the parent isotope and 17.5 mg of
the daughter isotope.
C. The rock will contain 5 mg of the parent isotope and 15 mg of the
daughter isotope.
D. The rock will contain 15 mg of the parent isotope and 5 mg of the
daughter isotope.
_____ 6. Which of the following statements correctly describes information
contained in the fossil record?
A. The fossil record contains more information on soft-bodied
organisms than on hard-bodied organisms.
B. The fossil record provides paleontologists with a continuous record
of changes in organisms.
C. The fossil record contains information on the majority of organisms
that have lived.
D. The fossil record reveals a history of environmental change.
19
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. Which of the following statements best describes present ideas about
geologic change?
A. All geologic change occurs gradually and uniformly.
B. Most geologic change occurs gradually and uniformly.
C. All geologic change occurs rapidly and catastrophically.
D. Most geologic change occurs rapidly and catastrophically.
_____ 8. A small reptile of the genus Mesosaurus lived 260 million years ago
and is now extinct. Fossils of this reptile have been found in both South
America and southern Africa. Which of the following statements best
explains why the fossils were found on both continents?
A. At one time, the continents were joined.
B. The reptile swam across the Atlantic Ocean.
C. The reptile traveled across a land bridge.
D. People brought the reptile to South America.
_____ 9. Which of the following would be an example of gradual geologic
change?
A. a volcanic eruption
B. an earthquake-generated tsunami
C. a global rise in sea level
D. an asteroid striking Earth
20
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. Determine what sequence of events occurred in the rock layers shown
above.
A. An intrusion formed, and then the rock layers formed around the
intrusion.
B. First, the bottom rock layer formed. Then, the intrusion formed.
Finally, the other rock layers formed.
C. The rock layers were folded, and then an intrusion cut through the
layers.
D. The rock layers formed, and then an intrusion cut through some of
the layers.
OPEN RESPONSE
11. Fossils of coniferous leaves and wood that date to the Early Eocene Epoch
have been found in Antarctica. The trees are similar to species found today in
southern Argentina and in Chile. What does the presence of these fossils
suggest about the past environment of Antarctica?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. What two methods could geologists use to determine the youngest rocks in a
sequence in which the rocks appear to have been disturbed?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
21
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. How do mid-ocean ridges support both the idea of continental drift and
the theory of plate tectonics?
A. Oceanic lithosphere is destroyed at mid-ocean ridges.
B. New crust forms at mid-ocean ridges.
C. Tectonic plates collide at mid-ocean ridges.
D. The crust at mid-ocean ridges is old oceanic lithosphere.
_____ 2. Which of the following compositional layers makes up the greatest
percentage of Earth’s mass?
A. continental crust
B. oceanic crust
C. the mantle
D. the core
_____ 3. How does fossil evidence support Wegener’s hypothesis of continental
drift?
A. Similar fossils found on far apart landmasses suggest that the
continents were once a single landmass.
B. Fossil evidence suggests that the continents have always been in their
current positions.
C. No similarities exist between fossils on different continents.
D. Plant and animal fossils show evidence of changes in Earth’s
polarity.
_____ 4. Most of the world’s folded mountains formed as a result of
A. oceanic-oceanic separation at mid-ocean ridges.
B. continental-continental separation at rift zones.
C. continental-oceanic collision at subduction zones.
D. continental-continental collision at convergent boundaries.
22
Plate Tectonics
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. Which of the following geologic features forms as a result of tension?
A. an anticline
B. a syncline
C. a normal fault
D. a reverse fault
_____ 6. Scientists think that all of the present-day continents were once joined
in a single supercontinent called
A. Pangaea.
B. Panthalassa.
C. Laurasia.
D. Gondwana.
_____ 7. Which of the following structures is shown in the diagram above if the
bottom layer is the oldest?
A. a monocline
B. a fault
C. an anticline
D. a syncline
_____ 8. The sinking of Earth’s crust to lower elevations is called
A. rebound.
B. subsidence.
C. uplift.
D. deformation.
_____ 9. Sea-floor spreading occurs at which of the following types of tectonic
plate boundaries?
A. transform
B. convergent
C. divergent
D. strike-slip
23
Plate Tectonics
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Earth’s Composition
Density (g/cm3)
Layer
Thickness (km)
Continental crust
~2.7
~30 to 100
Oceanic crust
~3.0
~5
Mantle
~3.4 to 5.6
~2,900
Core
~9.9 to 13.1
~3,430
_____ 10. According to the table above, which of the following statements is true?
A. Oceanic crust is Earth’s thinnest and least dense compositional layer.
B. Continental crust is Earth’s thinnest and densest compositional layer.
C. The mantle is Earth’s thickest and densest compositional layer.
D. The core is Earth’s thickest and densest compositional layer.
OPEN RESPONSE
11. The Appalachian Mountains and the Himalaya Mountains were both formed
by folding. The Himalayas are still growing taller. The Appalachian
Mountains are losing height and becoming more rounded. Why are these
mountains changing in different ways?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
12. The Cartersville fault formed when metamorphic rocks from Georgia’s
Piedmont region were pushed over sedimentary rock layers in the Valley and
Ridge region to the west. What kind of fault is the Cartersville fault? Explain
your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
24
Plate Tectonics
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. What happens when two tectonic plates push against each other?
A. Potential energy is released.
B. Kinetic energy is released.
C. Potential energy builds up.
D. Nothing happens.
_____ 2. A seismologist is setting up an earthquake research laboratory. Which
of the following pieces of laboratory equipment would be the most
useful for measuring the magnitude of an earthquake?
A. Richter scale
B. seismograph
C. shake table
D. epicenterometer
_____ 3. An earthquake model that uses gelatin to simulate rock is limited
because
A. rock does not shake during earthquakes.
B. gelatin has a different density than rock has.
C. you cannot eat rock.
D. gelatin has a different color than rock has.
_____ 4. Earthquake waves that cause the ground to move up and down, much
like ocean waves move water particles, are known as
A. S waves.
B. body waves.
C. surface waves.
D. P waves.
25
Earthquakes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the graph below to answer question 5.
_____ 5. The seismogram shows the ground movement that occurred during a
recent earthquake in northwestern Georgia. Which wave type caused
the largest ground movements?
A. P waves
B. S waves
C. body waves
D. surface waves
_____ 6. As part of an earthquake-modeling lab experiment, Dale must
determine the density of a sample of rock. Density is determined by
dividing the mass of the sample by its volume. Which pieces of
laboratory equipment would be the best choice for making the
necessary measurements?
A. beaker, graduated cylinder
B. petri dish, balance
C. balance, graduated cylinder
D. graduated cylinder, stopwatch
_____ 7. What is the difference between plastic deformation and elastic
deformation?
A. In plastic deformation, tectonic plates move on top of a layer of
plastic rock; in elastic deformation, they remain fixed.
B. In plastic deformation, blocks move over one another; in elastic
deformation, blocks slide past one another.
C. In plastic deformation, earthquakes occur; in elastic deformation,
they do not.
D. In plastic deformation, rock is reshaped; in elastic deformation, rock
is stretched to its breaking point.
26
Earthquakes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Hebert is drawing a diagram of an earthquake as part of a field
investigation. What label should Hebert apply to the point inside Earth
where the earthquake begins?
A. epicenter
B. focus
C. ground zero
D. plate boundary
_____ 9. Which of the following statements best describes elastic rebound?
A. Rock loses cohesion and allows water to flow into newly opened
spaces.
B. Rock slips along a fault, releases energy as seismic waves, and
returns to its original shape.
C. Rock changes shape, but does not release significant amounts of
energy.
D. Rock becomes compacted under pressure and realigns its mineral
grains.
Worldwide Earthquake Frequency
Description
Magnitude
Yearly average
Great
8.0+
1
Major
7.0–7.9
18
Strong
6.0–6.9
120
Moderate
5.0–5.9
800
_____ 10. The table above summarizes the frequency of earthquakes of various
sizes throughout the world. Based on the data given in the table,
approximately how many earthquakes in the range 4.0–4.9 happen each
year?
A. 50
B. 400
C. several thousand
D. several million
27
Earthquakes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
11. There are three types of faults: strike-slip, reverse, and normal. With what type
of plate motion is each associated? Describe how the Earth’s crust is affected by
each type of motion.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. A small earthquake struck Menlo, Georgia, on April 29, 2003. Menlo was
either the earthquake’s focus or its epicenter. Tell which is correct and explain
your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
28
Earthquakes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. An underground surge in magma causes a sudden and significant
increase in the ground temperature of a glacier-covered volcano. This
will most likely result in
A. flooding or a mudslide.
B. a global temperature increase.
C. a tidal wave.
D. a forest fire.
_____ 2. A student models a volcanic eruption by using a syringe to inject blue
colored water through a dome-shaped gelatin mold. What is one of this
model’s most significant limitations?
A. Gelatin is clear, whereas actual volcanoes are opaque.
B. Gelatin does not accurately simulate the materials of which actual
volcanoes are made.
C. Actual volcanoes have red lava, not blue.
D. Actual volcanoes erupt with more force than a syringe.
_____ 3. When a volcanic explosion fills the atmosphere with a large amount of
volcanic ash, which of the following is a likely result?
A. The average global temperature will decrease.
B. The average duration of a day will become shorter.
C. Ocean tide levels will be affected.
D. Only the area near the volcano will be affected.
29
Volcanoes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the illustration below to answer question 4.
_____ 4. What is the term for the area to which the arrow is pointing?
A. lava
B. crater
C. vent
D. magma chamber
_____ 5. Which of the following situations represents the greatest amount of
potential energy?
A. A large boulder is blown into the air by an explosive eruption.
B. Low viscosity lava flows quickly downhill.
C. A huge boulder is perched atop a cliff and is on the verge of falling
1000 m to the ground below.
D. A tree that was blown over by a powerful eruption lies flat on the
ground.
_____ 6. A model of a volcano that uses vinegar and baking soda is limited
because
A. the eruption is unpredictable.
B. baking soda is white, while lava is red.
C. real volcanoes are much larger than the model.
D. most volcanoes are extinct.
30
Volcanoes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. In which of the following situations would there be the greatest amount
of kinetic energy?
A. just prior to eruption, when incredible pressure has built up inside a
volcano
B. during an explosive eruption in which pyroclastic material is blown
high into the atmosphere
C. just after an explosive eruption, when most of the debris has settled
back to the ground
D. long after a shield volcano has moved from a “hot spot”
Magma Viscosity
Magma Type
Viscosity
Felsic
High
Intermediate
Intermediate
Mafic
Low
Ultramafic
Very Low
_____ 8. According to the data collected above, which type of magma is least
likely to cause an explosive eruption?
A. felsic magma
B. intermediate magma
C. mafic
D. ultramafic
_____ 9. One of the active volcanoes on the island of Hawaii is named Kilauea.
If Kilauea is a shield volcano, which of the following is a valid
conclusion?
A. Kilauea formed from repeated eruptions of low viscosity lava that
have spread over a wide area.
B. Kilauea formed from repeated moderately explosive eruptions of
pyroclastic material.
C. Kilauea is primarily made up of alternating layers of lava and
pyroclastic material.
D. Kilauea has formed a cinder cone through repeated eruptions of high
viscosity lava.
31
Volcanoes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. A large volcanic eruption covers nearby farmland in several meters of
ash. Which is a true statement about the ash in the immediate future?
A. The ash will be an effective plant fertilizer and will result in record
crop yields.
B. The ash will smother the crops, possibly leading to food shortages in
the immediate area.
C. The ash will be a nuisance, but it can easily be removed from the
area.
D. The ash may cause thunderstorms.
OPEN RESPONSE
11. Georgia has no volcanoes. Yet, Georgia’s climate can still be affected by
volcanoes. How?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. How does magma form at a convergent boundary?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
32
Volcanoes
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Water chemically breaks down rock because
A. water expands when it freezes.
B. acids in the water react with chemicals in the rock.
C. materials dissolved in the water are deposited.
D. water is not affected by wind.
_____ 2. The component of soil that is made up of organic material is called
A. abrasion.
B. humus.
C. bedrock.
D. leaching.
_____ 3. Which of the following areas would experience the most weathering?
A. an area with high winds, significant rain, hot summers, and freezing
winters
B. an area with heavy rains, constant temperatures, and gentle winds
C. an area with constant heat, minimal rain, and high winds
D. all areas are subject to the same amounts of weathering
_____ 4. The dissolving of rock by acids that occur naturally in water
A. is known as acid precipitation.
B. is known as oxidation.
C. is known as chemical weathering.
D. causes most of the mechanical weathering of rocks.
_____ 5. Which of the following statements describes how a rock changes after
it is in a riverbed for a long time?
A. The rock rapidly breaks into smaller pieces.
B. Chunks of the rock break off, and the rock becomes rougher.
C. The edges of the rock are worn away, so its surface becomes
smoother.
D. The rock absorbs water from the riverbed and becomes softer.
33
Weathering and Soil Formation
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the picture below to answer question 6.
_____ 6. The picture above shows the process of mechanical weathering that can
cause cracks in rocks in Georgia’s northern mountains to widen. What
is this process called?
A. abrasion
B. dissolution
C. ice wedging
D. oxidation
_____ 7. Why does air chemically weather rock?
A. The air molecules are abrasive.
B. Air fills cracks in the rock and later expands, causing the cracks to
enlarge.
C. The oxygen in the air combines with elements in the rock in a
process called oxidation.
D. The rock wears away after wind blows sand against the rock.
_____ 8. Which of the following is an everyday example of a chemical
phenomenon?
A. Fast moving river water rushes over rocks.
B. Organic acids produced by lichens break down rock.
C. Rocks tumble down a mountain during a rockslide.
D. Ice forms in a crack in a rock and makes the crack larger.
_____ 9. Which human activities can help prevent soil erosion?
A. planting cover crops and employing contour plowing methods
B. strip mining and deforestation
C. building cities and highways
D. growing crops and burning fossil fuels
34
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. Naomi made the pie graph above during a laboratory experiment in
which she analyzed the composition of loam found in Georgia. Based on
this chart, which of the following is a valid conclusion?
A. Approximately 95% of the material that makes up loam is useless to
plants.
B. Decayed organic matter is the least abundant component of loam.
C. Only about 9% of loam’s composition is useful to plants.
D. Only about 16% of loam’s composition is useful to plants.
OPEN RESPONSE
11. The soil of the Southern Piedmont areas of Georgia is thin and low in
nutrients. Much of this terrain was cleared at one time for lumber, fuel, and
agricultural land. This led to negative environmental impacts. Why might
farmers move from one plot of this land to another, and how might this
movement increase the negative environmental impact?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. Why is the soil of tropical rain forests thin and nutrient-poor?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
35
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. In the water cycle, the sun’s energy causes
A. evaporation.
B. condensation.
C. precipitation.
D. percolation.
_____ 2. Which one of the following landforms results from river and stream
erosion?
A. mountains
B. glaciers
C. river channels
D. aquifers
_____ 3. The water cycle involves energy changes and the continuous movement
of water between Earth and its atmosphere. Condensation primarily
takes place
A. on Earth’s surface.
B. in the atmosphere.
C. in the oceans.
D. in the polar ice caps.
_____ 4. In a shower, many small streams of water combine to form larger
streams, which eventually combine and flow down the drain. This is a
simple model of which feature?
A. a youthful river
B. a divide
C. a mature river
D. a watershed
_____ 5. Lakes form in areas where
A. wells are drilled.
B. the water table is below Earth’s surface.
C. the water table is above Earth’s surface.
D. there are placer deposits.
_____ 6. In which steps of the water cycle does water lose energy?
A. evaporation
B. condensation
C. precipitation
D. all steps
36
The Flow of Fresh Water
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Year
Dissolved Oxygen (mg/L)
1950
8.1 mg/L
1960
7.6 mg/L
1970
7.0 mg/L
1980
6.4 mg/L
1990
5.8 mg/L
2000
5.0 mg/L
_____ 7. The table above shows average levels of dissolved oxygen (DO) in a lake
every ten years from 1950 to 2000. In this time period, the DO level in
the lake decreased from 8.1 milligrams per liter (mg/L) to 5.0 mg/L. What
was the average decrease per year in the DO level over this 50-year
period?
A. 3.1 mg/L
B. 0.162 mg/L
C. 0.100 mg/L
D. 0.062 mg/L
_____ 8. Where does a natural spring occur?
A. where water enters an aquifer
B. where the zone of aeration meets Earth’s surface
C. where the water table meets Earth’s surface
D. where the zone of aeration meets the zone of saturation
_____ 9. Where does a rejuvenated river form?
A. where the buildup of groundwater pressure raises the land
B. where tectonic activity raises the land
C. where the land sinks due to tectonic activity
D. where new tributaries feed into an old river
37
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. The Savannah River watershed covers parts of Georgia, North
Carolina, and South Carolina. What are the streams and rivers that flow
into the Savannah River called?
A. aquifers
B. gradients
C. tributaries
D. deltas
_____ 11. Stream and river deposits include
A. glaciers.
B. caves.
C. stalagmites and stalactites.
D. alluvial fans.
B
C
A
D
_____ 12. At which point in the diagram above is precipitation most likely taking
place?
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point C
D. Point D
38
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
13. How might the water level of an aquifer affect water wells that are drilled into
the aquifer? How can the wells affect the water level of an aquifer?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
14. There are more than 500 caves in Georgia, many of them in the far
northwestern counties of Dade and Walker. How do caves form in existing
layers of limestone?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
39
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. On a geology research trip, Jeff finds a deposit of till that is located
along the side of an active glacier. Which type of deposit did Jeff find?
A. terminal moraine
B. ground moraine
C. medial moraine
D. lateral moraine
_____ 2. In which of the following ways is a sea arch most likely to form?
A. Salt water dissolves the rock until a hole is formed in the rock.
B. Waves from a strong storm hit the rocks and quickly form a hole in
the rock.
C. Waves erode a sea cliff until a level platform is left at the base of the
cliff.
D. The repeated action of waves slowly cuts through the rock where a
sea cave once existed.
_____ 3. A lahar forms during a volcanic eruption and moves toward a village that
is 28 km away. If the lahar is moving at a rate of 92 km/h, how much
time do the people in the village have to evacuate?
A. about 3 minutes
B. about 18 minutes
C. about 30 minutes
D. about 180 minutes
40
Agents of Erosion and Deposition
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. During a field investigation, Andrea made the illustrations above of
various types of mass movement. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion about the processes shown in Andrea’s illustrations?
A. A large amount of plant coverage increases the chance of each of the
illustrated processes occurring.
B. Heavy rainfall increases the chance of each of the illustrated
processes occurring.
C. The steepness of a hillside has no effect on the chance of each of the
illustrated processes occurring.
D. Gravity is the only factor that determines whether each of the
illustrated processes occurs.
_____ 5. How does the energy from a wave in Australia reach the west coast of
the United States?
A. Convection currents carry the energy across the ocean.
B. The energy travels in wave trains across the ocean.
C. The energy travels in undersea currents across the ocean.
D. Water particles carry energy and form waves close to the coast.
_____ 6. Which of the following areas would be most strongly affected by wind
erosion?
A. pine forest
B. rocky beach
C. desert
D. grassland
_____ 7. Which of the following best describes the process responsible for the
formation of sand?
A. rocks + waves = sand
B. wind + waves = sand
C. beach + longshore current = sand
D. surf + wave train = sand
41
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Where would you be most likely to observe saltation on a sand dune?
A. slip face
B. crest
C. windward slope
D. in any area of the dune
Rocky Beaches
Along a Coastline
Average Wave
Period (seconds)
Beach A
12
Beach B
16
Beach C
8
Beach D
21
_____ 9. The table shows the average wave periods for four rocky beaches along
a coastline. Which beach would be subject to the most erosion due to
wave action if the wave heights are approximately the same at each
beach?
A. Beach A
B. Beach B
C. Beach C
D. Beach D
42
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Jekyll Island and Cumberland Island are two of a series of barrier islands that
are located along Georgia’s Atlantic coastline. Along these barrier islands, the
beaches that face east tend to erode away, and south-facing shorelines tend to
grow. Explain how this pattern of shoreline erosion and deposition might
occur.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. A continental glacier once covered areas that are now the northern United
States. What kinds of landscape features caused by this glacier would you
expect to see in the northern U.S.?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
43
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. An astronaut viewed Earth from space. Which of the following did she
observe?
A. Earth has five main oceans that are distinctly different.
B. Earth has equal amounts of ocean and land on its surface.
C. Ocean water covers about 71 percent of Earth’s surface.
D. Three-fourths of the water on Earth is in the Earth’s oceans.
_____ 2. What is one benefit of raising fish in farms?
A. Fish raised in farms taste better and have more essential nutrients.
B. Raising fish in farms reduces the number of fish harvested from the
ocean.
C. Fish grown in farms are bigger than fish from the ocean.
D. Fish farms help to reduce freshwater and ocean pollution.
_____ 3. What change in water occurs in the atmosphere at the condensation
stage of the water cycle?
A. gas to liquid
B. liquid to solid
C. liquid to gas
D. solid to liquid
44
Exploring the Oceans
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Point
A
Point
B
Point
C
Point
D
_____ 4. At which point in the diagram above would hot magma most likely rise
through the ocean floor to eventually form a volcanic island?
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point C
D. Point D
_____ 5. The ocean water off the coast of Maine, in the United States, is not as
salty as the ocean water off the coast of Morocco, in Africa. Which of
the following factors could be responsible for this difference in
salinity?
A. climate
B. marine life
C. ocean pollution
D. deep ocean currents
45
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Dissolved Solid
Percentage in
Ocean Water
Chlorine
55.0%
Sodium
30.6%
Magnesium
7.7%
Sulfur
3.7%
Calcium
1.2%
Potassium
1.1%
Others
0.7%
_____ 6. As part of a field investigation, Stephen analyzed a sample of ocean
water. The table above summarizes the relative amounts of dissolved
salts found in the sample. Based on the table, which of the following is
a valid conclusion?
A. Six elements make up 99.3% of ocean water.
B. Chlorine only forms a compound with sodium in ocean water.
C. Magnesium is found in trace amounts in ocean water.
D. Sodium chloride is the most abundant dissolved solid in ocean
water.
_____ 7. Coral reef organisms need to be adapted to which environmental
conditions?
A. strong waves and bright light
B. consistent light and warm water
C. low light and cold water
D. hot water and no light
_____ 8. Why are mineral nodules that are found on the ocean floor considered a
nonrenewable resource?
A. They are difficult and costly to locate and mine.
B. They are often composed of heavy metals.
C. They form from dissolved elements that cannot be recycled.
D. They cannot be created as quickly as they are mined.
46
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. If a system of buoys recorded surface water temperatures along the Atlantic
Coast of the United States, how would these temperatures vary between the
coast of Massachusetts and the coast of Georgia? Explain how sunlight and the
Earth’s tilt would affect ocean temperatures.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. When Destiny and her friends go swimming in the early morning, both the
beach sand and the ocean water feel cool. When they go swimming during the
day, the sand feels hot and the ocean water feels cool. What causes these
differences in temperature?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
47
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The diagram above shows a map of ocean surface currents. Warm
currents carry water from the equator. Cool currents carry water toward
the equator. Hurricanes form where the ocean surface is warmest.
Based on the types of surface currents and the directions they flow,
where would most hurricanes commonly form?
A. off the southwest coast of Africa
B. off the north coast of South America
C. off the north coast of Antarctica
D. off the west coast of South America
48
The Movement of Ocean Water
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 2. A deep-water wave has a wavelength of 1.6 meters. Around what water
depth does it become a shallow-water wave?
A. 0.8 m
B. 1.6 m
C. 3.2 m
D. 6.4 m
_____ 3. Which of the following statements describes the relative positions of
Earth, the sun, and the moon when the smallest difference between
high tide and low tide occurs?
A. The sun and Earth were at right angles to each other relative to the
moon.
B. The sun and moon were at right angles to each other relative to
Earth.
C. The sun, moon, and Earth were aligned, with the moon between the
sun and Earth.
D. The sun, moon, and Earth were aligned, with the Earth between the
sun and moon.
_____ 4. A longshore current moves down a sandy coastline, from north to
south. Developers build a long, concrete breakwater at one point along
the coast. What happens to the sandy beach to the south of that
breakwater?
A. it builds up
B. it erodes away
C. it stays the same
D. it accumulates trash
_____ 5. On a clear day, a tsunami suddenly hits the beach of an island in the
South Pacific. What was the likely cause of the wave?
A. offshore hurricane
B. undersea earthquake
C. continental deflection
D. wind in the open ocean
_____ 6. Karla is going to search for clams and oysters during low tide. If she
knows that low tide is at 3:00 P.M. today, at what time should she plan
to go searching for shellfish tomorrow?
A. 3:00 A.M.
B. 2:10 P.M.
C. 3:00 P.M.
D. 3:50 P.M.
49
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. During which of the following situations is water likely to sink to form
a deep-ocean current?
A. Water evaporates and salinity increases in water near Florida.
B. Winds form huge waves in the open waters of the Atlantic Ocean.
C. Water freezes and becomes more salty near Antarctica.
D. Winds near Alaska blow cool water toward the North American
coast.
_____ 8. What combination of tides is occurring when you see the full moon
directly overhead?
A. high tide during a neap tide
B. low tide during a neap tide
C. high tide during a spring tide
D. low tide during a spring tide
Waves
Wavelength
Wave Period
Wave A
12 meters
8 seconds
Wave B
10 meters
6 seconds
Wave C
8 meters
4 seconds
Wave D
14 meters
5 seconds
_____ 9. In the table above, which wave has the fastest wave speed?
A. wave A
B. wave B
C. wave C
D. wave D
50
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Cold-water surface currents travel northward along the western coast of South
America, while warm-water surface currents travel southward along the
eastern coast. Why do these different currents travel in different directions on
either side of the continent?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Describe what happens to a wave’s energy as it travels from deep water to the
shore. How does this energy affect a sandy or rocky shoreline?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
51
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The map above shows the locations of low-pressure and high-pressure
belts across North and South America. Why is pressure low at the
equator relative to pressure at 30°N or 30°S latitude?
A. Cold air sinks at the equator and causes an area of low pressure.
B. Cold air at the poles rises and causes an area of high pressure.
C. Warm air at the equator rises and causes an area of low pressure.
D. Warm air at the poles sinks and causes an area of high pressure.
_____ 2. If the same amount of radiation hit the following surfaces, which
surface would transfer the most thermal energy to the air above it?
A. a maple forest
B. a parking lot
C. an ocean bay
D. a cornfield
_____ 3. As the sun heats the surface of the ocean, some of the water evaporates
and enters the air. How does water vapor move in the atmosphere?
A. by waves
B. by clouds
C. by conduction
D. by convection
52
The Atmosphere
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. What factors affect the temperature of precipitation such that snow falls
in the winter and rain falls in the summer?
A. changes in Earth’s rotation and the Coriolis effect
B. changes in rates of evaporation and in cloud cover
C. changes in the location of pressure belts and the directions of winds
D. change in the amount of direct sunlight that reaches Earth’s surface
_____ 5. Why is the top of the mesosphere colder than the top of the
troposphere?
A. There are fewer gases that absorb solar energy in the mesosphere.
B. The troposphere is closer to the sun than the mesosphere is.
C. Particles are far apart in the mesosphere, so they do not transfer
energy.
D. The mesosphere contains less ozone than the troposphere does.
_____ 6. Area A, which has high pressure, is located next to Area B, which has
low pressure. The wind is blowing hard toward Area B. Which of the
following is most likely to occur if the temperature in Area B decreases
slightly?
A. The wind will blow harder toward Area B.
B. The wind will blow more softly toward Area B.
C. The wind will stop blowing.
D. The wind will start blowing toward Area A.
_____ 7. Sammy feels an ocean breeze as he plays volleyball at the beach. Why
do ocean winds blow toward shore during the day?
A. Earth’s rotation causes air to blow toward land.
B. The energy of ocean storms pushes air toward shore.
C. Air over the beach heats up, rises, and is replaced by ocean air.
D. Ocean air is less dense, so it moves in to replace air over the land.
_____ 8. Four cities at the same latitude have different average high air
temperatures during August. Which city of the four would be most
likely to have the warmest average high temperature in August?
A. a large city with many buildings
B. a large city with many lakes and parks
C. a small city next to a river
D. a large city next to the ocean
53
The Atmosphere
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Abundance of Some of Air’s
“Other” Gases
Percentage by
Volume
Gas
Argon
0.93%
Carbon dioxide
0.036%
Neon
0.0018%
Helium
0.00052%
Methane
0.00017%
Krypton
0.00011%
_____ 9. Chloe made the table above as part of a field investigation about
atmospheric gases. What percentage of air is made up of the gases
listed in the table?
A. 0.9686%
B. 1.3256%
C. 93.39%
D. 96.86%
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Clean air is a natural resource that can be contaminated by pollution. Name
three actions that you can take to reduce the amount of indoor or outdoor air
pollution. Explain how each action would reduce pollution.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. How is the greenhouse effect related to the water cycle? What might happen to
the water cycle as greenhouse gases increase?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
54
The Atmosphere
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.
_____ 1. The diagram above represents the meeting of two air masses. The air
mass on the left formed over a polar region and the air mass on the
right formed over a tropical region. Which type of front is pictured in the
diagram?
A. cold front
B. warm front
C. occluded front
D. stationary front
_____ 2. What kind of weather is associated with this type of front as the front
approaches an area?
A. sunny skies
B. drizzly rain
C. thunderstorms, heavy rain, or snow
D. hot, muggy weather
55
Understanding Weather
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 3. Under which of the following conditions is a hurricane most likely to
form?
A. when high and low pressure zones meet over warm land
B. when thunderstorms develop and begin to spin over warm ocean
water
C. when thunderstorms develop and begin to spin over cool ocean
water
D. when warm and cold fronts meet over warm water
_____ 4. The sun’s radiant energy is NOT a major factor in producing
A. the water cycle.
B. humidity of air.
C. air temperature.
D. motion of tides.
_____ 5. Clouds are observed in a low pressure area over Georgia, and clear
skies are observed in a high pressure area above Alabama. Which of
the following is most likely to occur?
A. Wind will blow the clouds in a westerly direction toward Alabama.
B. The warm air will cause the clouds to evaporate.
C. The clouds will move east, toward the Atlantic Ocean.
D. A thunderstorm will occur between the two areas.
56
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 6. Which of the following events most likely occurred at 2:00 P.M. in the
graph above?
A. a cold front
B. a warm front
C. rain showers
D. evaporation
_____ 7. Jane filled one glass with warm water and one with ice water. After 10
minutes, she observed that water drops were forming on the outside of
the glass that contained ice water. What is the most likely cause of
Jane’s observations?
A. The ice water caused the air around the glass to cool to its dew point.
B. The ice water caused the amount of water in the air to increase.
C. The ice water leaked through the glass.
D. The temperature of the warm water was below the dew point.
_____ 8. Which factor is most important to the decrease in a hurricane’s strength
as it moves from the ocean onto land?
A. the uneven land surface
B. the lack of warm, moist air over land
C. rising hot air from the land
D. sinking cool air over land
_____ 9. Which of the following processes leads to cloud formation?
A. condensation
B. precipitation
C. evaporation
D. desalination
57
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
10. How is the evaporation of water from the ocean related to the formation of a
hurricane?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. How is high humidity related to the likelihood of rain?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
58
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. When Earth’s axis is tilted so that the North Pole is more directly
facing the sun, what season is South America experiencing?
A. spring
B. summer
C. fall
D. winter
_____ 2. Which of the following natural events would most likely have an effect
on the global climate?
A. tornado
B. volcanic eruption
Cearthquake
D. thunderstorm
_____ 3. What effect does a volcanic eruption have on climate?
A. The eruption releases Earth’s thermal energy, which makes Earth
cooler.
B. The ash traps Earth’s thermal energy, which makes Earth hotter.
C. The large amounts of lava released make Earth much hotter.
D. The dust and ash prevent the sun’s rays from entering the
atmosphere, which makes Earth cooler.
59
Climate
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the map below to answer questions 4 and 5.
_____ 4. The map above shows ocean currents. Based on Georgia’s location,
how might ocean currents affect Georgia’s climate?
A. The Gulf Stream current warms Georgia’s climate.
B. The Gulf Stream current cools Georgia’s climate.
C. The California Current warms Georgia’s climate.
D. The California Current cools Georgia’s climate.
_____ 5. Use the map to analyze the California Current. Which of the following
is a valid inference?
A. The California Current warms the air off the coast and thus warms
the land.
B. The cool California Current causes most of California to be a desert.
C. The California Current cools the air off the coast and thus cools the
land.
D. The California Current brings warm, moist air inland, providing
most of California with substantial rainfall.
60
Climate
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the figure below to answer questions 6 and 7.
_____ 6. Based on Earth’s tilt and orbit, which of the climate zones in the
illustration above receive the most direct sunlight throughout the year?
The least?
A. most: polar zones; least: temperate zones
B. most: temperate zones; least: polar zones
C. most: tropic zones; least: temperate zones
D. most: tropic zones; least: polar zones
_____ 7. In the graphic above, which latitude would have the warmest climate?
A. 66.5°N
B. 0°
C. 23.5°S
D. 66.5°S
_____ 8. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can lead to global warming. How
can carbon dioxide cause this phenomenon?
A. It absorbs heat and keeps heat in the atmosphere.
B. It creates warm fronts that heat Earth.
C. Its natural radiation heats Earth.
D. It causes warm ocean currents that heat Earth.
_____ 9. Which biome is characterized by very low rainfall, frozen ground, and
a large insect population?
A. chaparral
B. temperate desert
C. tundra
D. tropical savanna
61
Climate
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Earth’s axis tilts at an angle of approximately 23.5°. If Earth’s tilt were
reduced to zero, how would the seasons on Earth be affected?
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
11. Why is the climate at the North Pole cooler than the climate in Georgia?
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
62
Climate
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Why did Copernicus think the stars are farther from Earth than the
planets are?
A. He thought that Earth was the center of the universe and the other
planets and the sun revolved around Earth.
B. He hypothesized that the sun is at the center of the universe and that
Earth and all of the planets orbit the sun.
C. He noticed that that planets appeared to move relative to each other
and that the stars did not.
D. He understood that all of the planets revolve around the sun in an
elliptical orbit and that the sun is not in the exact center of the
universe.
_____ 2. The relationship between a city and a state is most similar to the
relationship between a star and what other item?
A. a universe
B. a solar system
C. a galaxy
D. a cluster
_____ 3. Where is an X ray telescope most likely to be located?
A. in a desert
B. on a mountaintop
C. on an island
D. in space
63
Studying Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Eyepiece
Starlight
Mirror
Focal point
_____ 4. The Fernbank Science Center in Atlanta, Georgia, has the same type of
telescope as shown above. What type of telescope does the Fernbank
Science Center have?
A. gamma ray
B. reflecting
C. radio
D. refracting
_____ 5. Dewanda has found a very bright star in the night sky. She tells her
friend that it is located 17 degrees less than the zenith. What is the
altitude of the star at which Dewanda is looking?
A. 73°
B. 107°
C. 163°
D. 197°
_____ 6. Which discovery made by Galileo Galilei showed that planets were
physical bodies like Earth?
A. the craters and mountains on the moon
B. the laws of planetary motion
C. the force of gravity
D. the orbits of the planets
64
Studying Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. How did Edwin Hubble discover that the universe is expanding?
A. by detecting radio waves from distant galaxies
B. by analyzing the light from stars and galaxies
C. by measuring the paths of stars across the night sky
D. by computing the distance light travels in one year
_____ 8. What do astronomers use to describe a star’s position in relation to
Earth?
A. celestial sphere
B. handheld astrolabe
C. mural quadrant
D. reflecting telescope
_____ 9. Which of the following statements best explains why astronomers
study all of the wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A. Each color of visible light is a different wavelength of
electromagnetic radiation.
B. Each type of radiation gives different information about an object in
space.
C. Earth’s atmosphere blocks most invisible radiation from objects in
space.
D. Some of the different types of radiation are not visible to the human
eye.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. What two events in the 1600s had a lasting effect on modern astronomy?
Describe the impact of these events.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Sofia, who lives in Atlanta, Georgia, can see the star Polaris all year long at
anytime during the night. Her cousin Aldo never sees Polaris. Explain what
this can tell you about where Aldo lives and what kind of star Polaris is
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
65
Studying Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The color of a star can indicate its surface temperature. Which of the
following colors indicates the highest surface temperature?
A. blue
B. orange
C. red
D. yellow
_____ 2. The Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram is a graph that shows the
relationship between a star’s surface temperature and its absolute
magnitude. According to the H-R diagram, what types of stars have
very low temperatures and very high absolute magnitudes?
A. blue stars
B. red dwarfs
C. white dwarfs
D. giants and supergiants
_____ 3. Our solar system is located in the Milky Way. Which one of the
following statements best describes the Milky Way?
A. a nebula containing about 200 billion stars
B. a spiral galaxy containing about 200 billion stars
C. an irregular galaxy containing about 200 billion stars
D. an elliptical galaxy containing about 200 billion stars
66
Stars, Galaxies, and the Universe
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Shane made the illustrations above based on observations of the night
sky at two different times. What accounts for the differences in Shane’s
records?
A. the parallax shift
B. changes in the relative positions of distant stars
C. the tilt of Earth’s axis
D. apparent motion of the stars as Earth rotates
_____ 5. Astronomers believe that the sun has been shining for approximately 5
billion years and is in the middle of its life cycle. Astronomers estimate
that in another 5 billion years, the Sun will burn up most of its
hydrogen fuel and will expand to become a red giant. At the very end
its life cycle, what kind of star will the sun become?
A. blue main sequence
B. red dwarf
C. supernova
D. white dwarf
67
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Limiting
magnitude
Actual number of Light
stars visible to the pollution
unaided eye
level
+ 2.0
< 25
extreme
+ 3.0
< 50
severe
+ 4.0
< 250
serious
_____ 6. Limiting magnitude is the magnitude of the dimmest star that can be
seen from the Earth. The table above shows the number of stars that
can be seen at night at different limiting magnitudes without using
binoculars or a telescope. The limiting magnitude of the Atlanta evening
sky is approximately 3.9. Of the 7,000 stars that potentially can be
seen, what percentage can actually be seen in Atlanta at night?
A. approximately 0.07 percent
B. approximately 3.5 percent
C. approximately 11.5 percent
D. approximately 34 percent
_____ 7. Stars have different temperatures and different elemental compositions.
Which one of the following properties of stars do astronomers use to
determine both the temperature and composition of stars?
A. the absorption spectrum of stars
B. the absolute magnitude of stars
C. the apparent magnitude of stars
D. the apparent motion of stars
_____ 8. What happens to a star when it is in the main-sequence stage?
A. Energy is generated in the star’s core.
B. Gravity pulls gas and dust into a sphere.
C. No hydrogen is left in the star’s core.
D. The center expands and then shrinks.
_____ 9. Which of the following statements best describes why a black hole is
hard to locate?
A. Its absolute magnitude is a negative number.
B. Its core is filled with hydrogen and helium.
C. Its core is a cloud of gas and dust.
D. Black holes do not allow any light to escape.
68
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. Where in the Milky Way is our solar system located?
A. in the central bulge of the Milky Way
B. in a nebula in the Milky Way
C. in a spiral arm of the Milky Way
D. in a globule in the Milky Way
OPEN RESPONSE
11. How does the big bang theory describe the formation of the universe?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. Every object in the universe is part of a larger system. Describe Earth’s position
in the universe and its relationship to other objects in the universe.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
69
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Which of the following will most likely occur inside a cold nebula?
A. Rapid collisions will push particles far apart.
B. Particles will move closer to one another due to gravity.
C. Gravity and pressure will push particles rapidly together.
D. No forces will act on the particles, and the particles will drift apart.
_____ 2. When an astronomer views the sun with special equipment through a
telescope, what is the astronomer viewing?
A. the sun’s photosphere
B. the sun’s convective zone
C. the sun’s corona
D. the sun’s radiative zone
_____ 3. Which of the following planets would take the longest time to complete
one revolution around the sun?
A. Earth
B. Venus
C. Mercury
D. Jupiter
70
Formation of the Solar System
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Gravitational Force Versus Distance Data
Distance (meters)
Force (Newtons)
1.0
4.00
2.0
1.00
4.0
0.250
8.0
0.0625
_____ 4. A scientist made the table above to summarize the results of careful
measurements made during a laboratory experiment. The table shows
the force of gravitational attraction between two objects at varying
distances. Which of the following graphs best fits the data given in the
table?
71
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. A student swings a ball attached to a string to model the moon’s orbit
around the Earth. What force does the string represent?
A. inertia
B. pressure
C. gravity
D. momentum
_____ 6. How have photosynthetic plants changed Earth’s atmosphere over
time?
A. by releasing oxygen into the atmosphere
B. by releasing nitrogen into the atmosphere
C. by using nitrogen from the atmosphere
D. by using sulfur from the atmosphere
_____ 7. If there were no gravitational forces acting on the moon, which of the
following would happen?
A. The moon would quickly crash into the Earth.
B. The moon would continue at a constant speed in a straight line
through space.
C. The moon would still orbit Earth as it does now.
D. The moon would remain stationary, at a fixed distance from Earth.
_____ 8. The diagram above shows Earth’s layers. What is the most likely
location of the densest elements?
A. crust
B. mantle
C. core
D. all layers
72
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. Explain how Newton’s law of universal gravitation applies to objects in our
solar system.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. How would a sketch of the Earth’s interior as it looked when it first formed
around 4.6 billion years ago compare to a sketch of Earth’s interior today? Why
would these sketches be different?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
73
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Which of the following geologic processes makes scientists think that
liquid water may have once existed on Mars?
A. deposition of sediment
B. cratering
C. mountain building
D. volcanism
_____ 2. Which of the following is a characteristic of comets?
A. Comets are composed of rocky material, iron, and nickel.
B. Comets follow a circular orbit around the sun.
C. Comets give off gas and dust when heated by the sun.
D. Comets are rich in iron.
_____ 3. Scientists observe a planet in a distant galaxy. This planet appears to
have similar features to Earth. Which feature would the scientists be
most interested in, if they were looking for life on this planet?
A. thick atmosphere
B. liquid water
C. active volcanoes
D. long day length
74
A Family of Planets
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the table below to answer questions 4 and 5.
Data for the Outer Planets
Planet
Average
Diameter
distance from
(km)
the sun (km)
Period of
revolution
(Earth
years)
Jupiter
142,984
778,600,000
12
Saturn
120,536
1,433,500,000
29
Uranus
51,118
2,872,500,000
84
Neptune
49,528
4,495,100,000
164
_____ 4. According the data in the table, which outer planet takes 30,660 Earth
days to complete one orbit around the sun?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Neptune
_____ 5. Based on the table above, which of the following is a valid conclusion?
A. In general, each outer planet is about twice as far from the sun as the
next closest planet.
B. Each period of revolution is unrelated to the average distance of
each planet from the sun.
C. Among the outer planets, planets with the largest volume are found
farthest from the sun.
D. Day length for each planet increases with an increase in the planet’s
diameter.
_____ 6. Which one of the following objects in our solar system would travel the
greatest distance during one revolution around the sun?
A. a terrestrial planet
B. an asteroid
C. a gas giant
D. a comet
75
A Family of Planets
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. The distance from Earth to the sun is 1 astronomical unit (AU), or 8.3
light-minutes. If Saturn is located about 9.4 AU away from the sun,
how many light-hours from the sun is it?
A. 0.3 light-hours
B. 1.3 light-hours
C. 17.7 light-hours
D. 78.0 light-hours
Phase B
Phase A
Phase C
Sun
Earth
Phase D
_____ 8. The diagram above shows different positions of the moon relative to
Earth and the sun. In which phase will an observer on Earth see a
crescent moon?
A. phase A
B. phase B
C. phase C
D. phase D
_____ 9. Which of the following is a wide region of small, rocky bodies that is
located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter?
A. the Kuiper belt
B. the Oort cloud
C. the asteroid belt
D. the rings of Saturn
76
A Family of Planets
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 10. Which of the following motions of Earth and the moon occurs in the
longest period of time?
A. Earth orbits the sun once.
B. The moon orbits Earth twice.
C. Earth rotates on its axis five times.
D. Twelve full moons are seen from Earth.
_____ 11. The full moon occurs on Wednesday, January 3rd. On what day could a
lunar eclipse occur during January?
A. Wednesday the 3rd
B. Thursday the 11th
C. Thursday the 18th
D. Thursday the 25th
OPEN RESPONSE
12. In 2006, Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet. What are the characteristics
of Pluto that make it similar to and different from the planets in our solar
system?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
13. Carrie explained to her little brother that a solar eclipse happens when the full
moon blocks the sun. Was she correct? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
77
A Family of Planets
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. Cassandra is making a model rocket like the one in the diagram above.
She wants to make sure the rocket doesn’t burn up when she launches
it. She has some extra insulation to add to the areas of the rocket that will
get the hottest. Where should she add the insulation?
A. area X only
B. area Y only
C. areas X and Y
D. areas Y and Z
_____ 2. Cassandra’s model rocket can travel at a speed of 600 km/h. What
could happen to the rocket if it had enough fuel to reach Earth’s outer
atmosphere?
A. The rocket would eventually fall back to Earth.
B. The rocket would achieve low Earth orbit.
C. The rocket would achieve geostationary orbit.
D. The rocket would escape Earth’s gravity.
78
Exploring Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 3. The study of which two planets is the most beneficial for scientists who
want to better understand Earth?
A. Mars and Jupiter
B. Mercury and Neptune
C. Saturn and Venus
D. Venus and Mars
_____ 4. If a communications satellite is moving in a geostationary orbit, which
statement best describes the satellite’s position relative to Earth?
A. The satellite is orbiting Earth at the equator.
B. The satellite is orbiting Earth in a polar orbit.
C. The satellite is above a fixed spot over the North Pole.
D. The satellite is above a fixed spot on the equator.
_____ 5. Which one of the following bodies in the solar system has an
atmosphere that may contain clues to the development of life on Earth?
A. Mars
B. Jupiter’s moon Europa
C. Saturn’s moon Titan
D. Neptune
79
Exploring Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the table below to answer questions 6 and 7.
Space Vehicle Data
Name
Payload (kg)
Height (m)
Mercury-Atlas
1,400
29
Delta
1,770
36
Titan IV
18,000
62
Saturn V
129,300
111
Space Shuttle
29,500
56
_____ 6. A space vehicle’s payload is the amount of material that the vehicle is
able to carry into space. According to the table above, what was the
ratio of payload to vehicle height for the smallest space vehicle
(expressed as a whole number)?
A. 48:1
B. 290:1
C. 527:1
D. 1165:1
_____ 7. Which space vehicle listed in the table above would need the greatest
amount of fuel to reach escape velocity?
A. Mercury-Atlas
B. Delta
C. Titan IV
D. Saturn V
_____ 8. A student uses a balloon filled with air to model a rocket. Although her
model is very limited, the air-filled balloon is best for modeling
A. escape velocity.
B. action and reaction forces.
C. orbital motion.
D. payload carrying capacity.
80
Exploring Space
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. Probe missions have allowed scientists to study the planet Venus. How
could studies of Venus’s atmosphere help scientists to create climate
models that would give them a greater understanding of long-term
trends in Earth’s atmosphere?
A. Studies of gases and ash produced by volcanic activity on Venus
could help scientists to understand air pollution on Earth.
B. Studies of weather patterns and storms in Venus’s atmosphere could
help scientists to predict violent storms on Earth.
C. Studies of Venus’s severe greenhouse effect could help scientists to
predict the effect of increasing greenhouse gases on Earth.
D. Studies of the relative concentrations of gases in Venus’s
atmosphere could help scientists to understand how Earth’s
atmosphere developed.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. How could satellite technology help a geologist who is researching the rock
formations on Lookout Mountain in Georgia?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Why would an orbiting space probe provide more information about Jupiter
than a land-based, high-power telescope could?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
81
Exploring Space

CRCT Preparation Workbook

Transcription

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