200 SAMPLE MOCK TEST (CLAT)

Transcription

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Sample Mock Test
SAMPLE MOCK TEST
(CLAT)
Name: _________________________
Marks
Obtained:
Maximum
Marks:
Batch: _________________________
200
Time: 2 hours
Total Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, check them for any defect like
misprint, fudging of printing, missing pages / Questions / Ovals etc. and ask for issue of relevant
duplicates.
2. No duplicate Question Booklet, OMR Answer Sheet or Extra Blank Sheets of paper shall be
provided except in a situation under Instruction 1 above.
3. Enter your Name and Batch in the space provided above in the Question Booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet with Ball Point Pen Only.
4. There is FIVE Sections (Section I-V) comprising of 200 Objective Questions in the Question
Booklet and each question carries ONE mark. The answers to these objective questions are to be
entered on the OMR Answer Sheet by fully shading the appropriate ovals with black ball point
pen only. If more than one oval is shaded in answer to a question, that answer shall be deemed to be
wrong.
5. Answer all the 200 Hundred Questions.
6. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. There shall be a system of Negative marking wherein 0.25 mark
will be deducted for each of the wrong answers to multiple choice questions.
7. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each Section and Parts of each Section. Read
them carefully before answering.
8. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadgets in the Exam Hall is strictly prohibited Possession and /
or use of any unfair means shall disqualify the candidate and decision of the Centre Superintendent in
this regard shall be final.
Signature of Centre Superintendent
© This module is part of copyrighted material, any replica by any one may invite penal action.1
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Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. There shall be a system of Negative marking wherein 0.25
mark will be deducted for each of the wrong answers to multiple choice questions.
SECTION – I: ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The United Nations has had a main role in establishing international norms against terrorist acts and
their codification into international law. To the world body and some of its specialized agencies we must give
credit for the existence today of an international legal regime consisting of a dozen of conventions that broadly
criminalize a wide range of terrorist acts that the world has experienced during the last four decades.
The problem of international terrorism was inscribed on the agenda of the UN General Assembly in
1972 due to the increasing incidence of acts of violence against innocent civilians, more specifically at that time
the killing of Israeli athletes at the Munich Olympics. But that was not the first time the international
community dealt with terrorist acts. Before that, within ICAO, the problem of hijacking was tackled and all but
codified by the three conventions: 1963 Tokyo Convention, 1970 the Hague Convention and 1971 Montreal
Convention. But it was 1972 that the world organization confronted the problem of international terrorism both
politically and legally, and in its entirety, rather than concentrating on any specific acts of terror.
The debate that year in the Sixth Committee showed how deeply polarized the UN membership were at
the time, particularly on the basic issues, such as what kind of activity constitutes an act of terrorism and
whether such activity could in certain situations be justified and not be subject to international sanction. Part of
the debate concentrated on the causes of terrorism versus measures against terrorism. A number of countries
pointed out that there are certain situations in the world, of a political or economic nature, that give rise to the
acts of terrorism and that the problem of terrorism cannot be tackled effectively unless such causes are
removed. Other countries regarded the discussion of causes as an attempt to offer justification for terrorist acts
and insisted on urgent measures against terrorists and their sponsors. The facts that colonialism and apartheid
were still very much alive in 1972 and that a number of liberation movements were either recognized by the UN
or supported by many of its members further complicated the debate. It is a testimony to the great complexity
and political sensitivity of these issues that they are still eluding agreement today, thirty years later. Much of
the same debate is still going on, even though the differences in positions have been considerably narrowed,
what with the end of the Cold War was inevitable.
1.
What was similar in 1963 Tokyo convention, 1970 the Hague Convention and 1971 Montreal
Convention?
(a) They were related with the killing of the Israeli athletes at the Munich Olympics.
(b) All of these dealt with the menace of hijacking.
(c) All of these dealt with the killing of innocent civilians.
(d) They dealt with global terrorism in its entirety.
(e) None of these
2.
The killing of the Israeli athletes at the Munich Olympics
(a) made the UN take global terrorism on its agenda.
(b) led to the establishment of a powerful body under the UN to deal with terrorism.
(c) united the world opinion against terrorism.
(d) weakened the movement against terrorism.
(e) None of these
3.
What divided the world opinion on terrorism?
(a) the regional aspect of terrorism
(b) the definition and objective of terrorism and its remedial measures
(c) the impact of terrorism on the world
(d) ego issue of big countries
(e) None of these
4.
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
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(a) The members of the UN have shown unity on the issue of terrorism
(b) The members of terrorism was confronted in its entirety in the sixties of the last century.
(c) The issue of global terrorism was dealt with in its totality in 1972.
(d) The killing of Israeli athletes at the Munich Olympics lead to the conventions of Tokyo, the Hague
and Montreal.
(e) None of these
5.
Why was there bee no agreement among the countries on the issue of terrorism?
(a) because there is lack of trust among the countries
(b) because different countries have different systems of rule.
(c) because most of the countries fear even talking on the issue of terrorism
(d) because countries have diverse opinions on the nature of, scope of and methodology for dealing
with terrorism
(e) None of these
6.
Which of the following is false in the context of the passage?
(a) Issues related with terrorism are complex in nature.
(b) Every country sees political or economic cause behind terrorism.
(c) The issue of global terrorism is still a debated topic.
(d) The difference among countries on the issue of terrorism has narrowed.
(e) None of these
7.
Which of the following is not among the factors that complicated the debate on terrorism in 1972?
(a) The idea of democracy was non-existent at that time.
(b) Colonialism was not totally out of scene.
(c) Many UN members supported freedom movements.
(d) Racial segregation was still existent.
(e) None of these
8.
Give a suitable title to the passage.
(a) Terrorism in a divided world
(b) Terrorism in modern context
(c) Diverse aspects of terrorism
(d) World of terrorism
(e) UN‟s role in combating terrorism
Directions (Q. 9-12): Choose the word which is same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Norms
(a) rules
(b) basics
(c) opinion
(d) system
Credit
(a) support
(b) prestige
(c) focus
(d) commendation(e) respect
Inscribed
(a) attached
(b) supplemented
(c) marked
(d) scrutinized (e) selected
Testimony
(a) mirror
(b) evidence
(c) reflection
(d) trailor
(e) experiment
(e) part
Directions (Q. 13-15): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in
the passage.
13.
14.
Entirety
(a) totality
(b) narrowness
(c) superficiality
(d) handful
(e) part
Polarised
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(a) unified
15.
Eluding
(a) considering
(d) accepting
(b) concerned
(c) responsible
(b) examining
(e) ascertaining
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(d) authentic (e) focussed
(c) observing
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by A),
B), C) and D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful para. The correct order of
the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of
sentences and mark it as your answer.
16.
A. Jesus wanted his followers to live like light.
B. It is not meant to change a situation or a person.
C. Light is that which when given, enables that which is already present to be recognized
D. Light has no content.
(a) ADBC
(b) DCBA
(c) ABCD
(d) CBAD
(e) BCDA
17.
A. The techniques and theories are many but the aim is one – to lead us to a non-dualistic state of mind
where we feel one with out Creator.
B. Meditation is done to quieten the mind, to control thoughts and to move on a path of higher
consciousness.
C. It generates tolerance, stillness in mind and a general feeling of well-being.
D. It brings about an intimate feeling of oneness with everyone and with the entire universe.
(a) ABDC
(b) DABC
(c) CADB
(d) BCAD
(e) CBAD
18.
A. One group of emotions makes us feel restless and uneasy, the other brings about balance and
harmony.
B. We label the two as positive and negative.
C. All emotions flow from two basic emotions – love and fear.
D. It also encourages us to accept the happy ones and reject the others.
(a) ABCD
(b) DCBA
(c) BCAD
(d) CABD
(e) BCDA
19.
A. Also, the police needs to be more cooperative and encourage people to come forward with
information.
B. We must remember that a predominant section of the minority community has nothing to do with
nefarious activities, but unfortunately keeps quiet out of fear or a false sense of brotherhood.
C. Bomb blasts can only be controlled by a vigilant public which notices and reports suspicious
activities.
D. The people in the largely minority localities need to be extra-vigilant.
(a) ABCD
(b) DACB
(c) CBDA
(d) ADBC
(e) BADC
20.
A. Although the Constitution provides for the removal of a judge through impeachment, it is silent on
deviant behaviour not amounting to proven misbehaviour.
B. It has been left to Parliament to decide on a case-to-case basis.
C. The issue of disciplining the Judges is, of course, a tougher one.
D. But no laws have been enacted by the Parliament for investigating misconduct of judges.
(a) ABCD
(b) DCBA
(c) CDAB
(d) BCAD
(e) CABD
Directions: (Q. 21-30): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers a), b), c), d) and e). Find out which pair of words can be
filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.
21.
Since long the basic ____ of all human beings has been to _____ happiness and peace.
(a) motive, grow
(b) desire, absorb
(c) effort, define
(d) nature, seeking
(e) objective, attain
22.
We need to ____ that our goal in life ____ achieving happiness, peace and bliss.
(a) focus, demand
(b) believe, includes
(c) thin, deserves
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(d) presume, desires
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(e) understand, promotes
23.
These negative emotions have _____ almost all _____ of life, whether in relationships or societal
activities.
(a) destroyed, vistas
(b) shaped, directions
(c) surrounded, grounds
(d) pervaded, spheres
(e) dictated, section.
24.
Children _____ what they see and act ______.
(a) imitate, violently
(b) copy, silently
(d) assume, negatively
(e) deviate, naturally
(c) believe, accordingly
25.
Children act and behave in a _____ which they see and _____ from television.
(a) manner, imbibe
(b) sense, experiment
(c) way, negotiate
(d) condition, justify
(e) situation, explore
26.
There is a failure to make a ____ ______ good and bad programmes on television.
(a) selection, encompassing
(b) sensible, selection
(c) proper, choice
(d) clear, screening
(e) distinction, between
27.
Most of the programmes which are produced now _____ educational _______.
(a) lack, value
(b) reject, themes
(c) questions, experimenting
(d) focus, aspect
(e) supplement , background
28.
As of now, there are very few in-depth _____ of the ______ of television on Indian society and culture.
(a) research, growth
(b) studies, impact
(c) analysis, spread
(d) debate, effect
(e) finding, image.
29.
Politics has _____ to such a low that each exponent is only ______ on how to maximize his or her own
profits.
(a) dived, voting
(b) lowered, thinking
(c) surrendered, hoping
(d) dipped, focusing
(e) involved, experimenting
30.
_____ legal ______ were initiated, not one of the accused has been brought to book.
(a) Although, affairs
(b) Despite, repercussions
(c) However, hearing
(d) Even, bindings
(e) Though, proceedings
Directions (31-35): Each of the following idioms is followed by alternative meanings of which one is
correct. Find out the correct meaning of each idiom and mark the number of that meaning as your
answer. If there is no answer mark e), ie. None of these, as your answer.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
To clear a fence
(a) to mark improvement
(d) to cross hurdle
(b) to succeed in a single attempt (c) to show courage
(e) None of these
Under duress
(a) under, compulsion
(d) under consideration
(b) in a compromising position (c) in extreme poverty
(e) None of these
Fabian policy
(a) unique policy
(d) alien rule and regulation
(b) policy of cautious persistence (c) British policy
(e) None of these
To eat one‟s heart out
(a) to ruthlessly kill someone
(d) to share one‟s secret
(b) to take revenge
(e) None of these
To give the cold shoulder
(a) to show one‟s inability
(c) to suffer silently
(b) to accept humiliation
(c) to turn hostile
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(d) to given an indifferent treatment
(e) None of these
Directions (Q.36-40): In each question below, four words numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d) have been printed,
one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are
correctly spelt, mark (e), i.e. „All correct‟ as the answer.
36.
(a) Prosecute
(b) Surpass
(c) Accompany
(d) Immoveable
(e) All correct
37.
(a) Extremly
(b) Pleasant
(c) Credibility
(d) Assurance
(e) All correct
38.
(a) Questionable (b) Shadow
(c) Dyanamic
(d) Assurance
(e) All correct
39.
(a) Treatement (b) Pioneer
(c) Luminous
(d) Emergency
(e) All correct
40.
(a) Perspective (b) Licquidity (c) Distinct
(d) Companion
(e) All correct
SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41.
With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499.
(b) The English opened their first factory in south Indian at Masulipatnam.
(c) In Eastern India, the English company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746.
42.
With reference to Indian freedom Struggle, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallian Wala Bagh Massacre.
(b) Subash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc.
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association.
(d) In 1931, the Congress session opposed Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
43.
In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factory at
(a) Surat
(b) Pulicat
(c) Cochin
(d) Cassimbazar
44.
In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sindh Bank
45.
An important aspect of the Cripp‟s Mission in 1942 was
(a) That all Indian states should join the Indian Union as condition to consider any degree of autonomy
for India.
(b) The creation of the Indian Union with Dominion Status very soon after the second World War.
(c) The active participation and cooperation of the Indian people communities and political parties in
the British War effort as a condition for granting independence with full Sovereign status to India after
War.
(d) By framing of a Constitution for the entire India Union with no separate constitution for any
province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
46.
Who headed the Interim cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari
47.
The leader of Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
48.
(c) Vithalbhai J.Patel
(d) Mahadev Desai
Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
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(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their
emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment
Programme
49.
If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous
forest. This is because
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
50.
A layer in the Earth atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
I. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
II. Radio waves have a very long wavelength
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
51.
Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment
in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the
two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
52.
Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act”?
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
53.
The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the
reason?
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4oC
(d) None of the above
54.
Match List-with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List –I (Person)
List-II (Known as )
(A) Bhajan Sopori
I. Bharatnatyam Dancer
(B) Birju maharaj
II. Exponent of Santoor
(C) Priyadarshini Govind
III. Mridangam Maestro
(D) TV Gopalkrishanan
IV. Kathak Dancer
Codes:
A B
C
D
(a) II I
IV
III
(b) III I
IV
II
(c) II IV
I
III
(d) III IV
I
II
55.
Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Edward Kasner
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berner Lee
(d) Vinod Bham
56.
Where are the headquarters of the organization of Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
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(a) Dubai
(b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad
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(d) Ankara
57.
Which one of the following is not a member of Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
(a) Russia
(b) Kazakhistan
(c) Ukrain
(d) Uzbekistan
58.
The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental Protection
(b) Civil Aviation
(c) Journalism
(d) Olympic Games
59.
Raghu Rai is well known for which one of the following areas?
(a) Environment Protection
(b) Olympic Games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
60.
The constitution (Seventy-Third Amend-ment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati R
Institutions is the country, provides for which of the following?
I. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
II. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
III. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
61.
Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?
(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each state of transaction in the production-distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the
consumer
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator
for its successful implementation
62.
A “closed economy” is an economy in which
(a) The money supply is fully controlled
(c) Only exports take place
(b) Deficit financing takes place
(d) Neither exports nor imports take place
63.
The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
64.
All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of
Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
65.
Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
66.
Which two states were mostly affected by the cyclone Phailin in October?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
(D) Odisha & Jharkhand
67.
For how long Hyderabad will be the common capital of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?
(A) 5years
(B) 10years
(C) 15years
(D) 20 years
68.
Who has been conferred with first national Yash Chopra memorial award in October?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Hema Malini
(D) Aamir Khan
69.
Who has been awarded 2013 Nobel Literature Prize?
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(A) Alice Munro
(C) Michael Levitt
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(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) James E. Rothman
70.
Which team won Champions League Twenty-20, 2013 title?
(A) Mumbai Indians
(B) Rajasthan Royals
(C) Chennai Super Kings
(D) Trinidad & Tobaggo
71.
Which is the first public sector Commercial Bank in India established by an Act of Parliament?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) IDBI bank
(C) Bhartiya Mahila Bank
(D) None of the above
72.
India ranks …… place in Human Capital Index 2013.
(A) 78th
(B) 87th
(C) 94th
(D) 98th
73.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Chief Information Commissioner – Mrs. Deepak Sandhu
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha – Mrs. Meira Kumar
(C) CEO of SBI – Mrs. Chanda Kochar
(D) Chairperson of NSE – Mrs. Chitra Ramakrishna
74.
The service tax levied by Government of India is not applicable in –
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Haryana
75.
Which of the following country has been selected to host the 2018 Men‟s Hockey World Cup?
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Uruguay
(D) China
76.
Currently, there is only one Indoor Archery stadium present in India which is located in Pune. India‟s
second Indoor Archery stadium is going to set up in Saraikela Kharsawan district of
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Odisha
77.
Where was G20 Summit 2013 held?
(A) Moscow
(B) St. Petesberg
(C) Durban
(D) Tokyo
78.
Which two countries‟ leaders talked on phone for the first time since 1979?
(A) Iran and Iraq
(B) Iran and Russia
(C) US and Iran
(D) Russia and US
79.
Recently Ratangarh (Datia) was in the news. Why?
(A) More than 100 people died of stampede in a temple on Ramnaumi
(B) Huge gold was found in an excavation
(C) Natural gas was found in an exploration effort
80.
Which country opted out from the prestigious seat in UN Security Council even after duly elected to it
in October 2013?
(A) Iran
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Saudi Arabia
81.
Rastriya Ispat Nigam Ltd‟s Steel Plant is located at(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Bhilai
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Durgapur
82.
Fifty per cent seat of all levels in panchayati Raj Institutions are reserved for women in the state of (A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Jharkhand
(D) All of them
83.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct one:
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1. German Thomas Bach has been elected as the new President of the International Olympic Committee
on September 10, 2013.
2. He succeeded Jacques Rogge, the Belgian who is stepping down after 12 years.
3. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is a Swiss non-profit, non-governmental organization
based in Lausanne, Switzerland.
Codes
(A) Only 2
(B) 1 & 3
(C) 2 & 3
(D) All are correct
84.
Consider the following statements about the Man Booker Prize and choose the correct one:
1. Eleanor Catton the 28-year old author from New Zealand has won the Man Booker Prize 2013 for
her novel, The Luminaries, published by Granta on October 16, 2013.
2. The prize was originally known as the Booker McConnell Prize, after the company BookerMcConnell began sponsoring the event in 1968; it became commonly known as the “Booker Prize” or
simply “the Booker.”
Code
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
85.
Ashok Amritraj was presented with the „Soul of India Award‟ He is associated with which of the
following fields?
(A) Politics
(B) Law
(C) Film
(D) Science
(E) Academics
86.
Anjali Gopalan was awarded with Chevalier de la Legion d‟Honneur. The award was given by which
country?
(A) Japan
(B) France
(C) Malaysia
(D) Ireland
(E) Finland
87.
Global Gender Gap Report 2013, by World Economic Forum ranked India________ out of 136
countries on Gender Gap index.
(A) 101
(B) 102 (C) 110
(D) 111 (E) 112
88.
What is the main objective of National Skill Certification and Monetary Reward Skill Certification and
Monetary Reward Scheme?
(A) To motivate youth for acquiring vocational skills.
(B) To Motivate youth for acquiring scientific skills
(C) To motivate youth for acquiring innovative skills
(D) None of these
89.
The Union Government on August 26 set up a commission under the chairmanship of ______ to review
tax laws and suggest ways for a stable tax administration.
(A) Raghuram Rajan
(B) Abhijeet Sen
(C) Arvind Mayaram
(D) Pasthararthy Shome
90.
Bashar al-Assad is the President of
(A) Syria
(B) Egypt
(C) Turkey
(D) Libya
SECTION – III: MATHEMATICS
91.
92.
93.
264 × 25 + 35 =?
(a) 15840
(b) 6635
(c) 6385
(d) 9265
(e) None of these
?% of 40 = 24
(a) 36
(b) 80
(c) 75
(d) 64
(e) None of these
(d) 25
(e) None of these
If 2m% of 2m is 1, then m equals
(a) ¼
(b) 4
(c) 5
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Sample Mock Test
94.
An article when sold at a gain of 5% yields Rs.15 more than when sold at a loss 5%. What is the cost
price of the article?
(a) Rs.200
(b) Rs.150
(c) Rs.80
(d) Rs.64
(e) None of these
95.
A man sells a horse for Rs.8000 and loses something. If he had sold it for Rs.9800, his gain would have
been twice the amount of loss in the former case. The cost price of the horse is
(a) Rs.7200
(b) Rs.8500
(c) Rs.8600
(d) Rs.8900
(e) None of these
96.
A person borrowed Rs.2500 from two money-lenders. For one loan he paid 8% per annum and for the
other 6% pre annum at simple interest. If he paid Rs.180 as total interest for one year, how much did he
borrow at 8% per annum?
(a) Rs.1000
(b) Rs.1200
(c) Rs.1300
(d) Rs.1500
(e) None of these
97.
Two partners Ram and Karim together lent Rs.3364 at 5% at compound interest, compounded annually.
The amount Ram gets at the end of 3 yrs is the same as Karim gets at the end of 5 years. Thus share of
Karim in the principal is
(a) Rs.1400
(b) Rs.1600
(c) Rs.1764
(d) Rs.1836
(e) None of these
98.
The difference between a discount of 40% on Rs.500 and two successive discount of 36% and 4% on
the same amount is
(a) Zero
(b) Rs.1.93
(c) Rs.2
(d) Rs.7.20
(e) None of these
99.
The original price of a washing machine is Rs.6000. If the price is discounted by 20% and then raised
by 10% for service contract, the price charged by the shopkeeper is
(a) Rs.5400
(b) Rs.5280
(c) Rs.5100
(d) Rs.4200
(e) None of these
100.
Rs.1000 is to divided among. A, B and C such that A gets twice as much as B and B gets thrice as much
as C. The share of C in rupees is
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 125
(d) 200
(e) None of these
101.
A bag contains coins of one rupee, 50 paise, 25 paise denominations whose numbers are in the ratio of
3 : 4 : 5. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.500, the total number of coins of 50 paise denomination is
(a) 240
(b) 320
(c) 400
(d) 500
(e) None of these
102.
A batsman has a certain average of runs for 11 innings. In the 12th innings he makes a score of 90 runs,
thereby increasing his average by 5. His average after the 12th innings is
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45
(e) None of these
103.
A boatman can row to a place 48 km distance and back in 14 hours. If he can row 4 km with the stream
in the same time as 3 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against it, the speed of the stream (in
km/hr) is
(a) 1
(b) 2.2
(c) 3
(d) 7
(e) None of these
104.
A boatman rows downstream at the rate of 1 km in 7.5 minutes and upstream at the rate of 5 km an
hour. The speed of the boat (in km/hr) in the still water is
(a) 6
(b) 6.5
(c) 7
(d) 7.5
(e) None of these
105.
A certain number of men do a piece of work in 40 days. If there had been 45 men more, the work could
have been finished in 25 days. The original number of men employed at the work was
(a) 75
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
(e) None of these
106.
Father‟s age is 4 times that of his son. 5 years back, it was 7 times. His age now is
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45
107.
A travels from B to C a distance of 250 miles in 5.5 hours. He returns to B in 4 hours 40 minutes. His
average speed is
(a) 44
(b) 46
(c) 48
(d) 50
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Sample Mock Test
108.
A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs 40 less, there would have been a loss of
10%. What was the cost price?
(a) Rs 175
(b) Rs 200
(c) Rs 225
(d) Rs 250
109.
A can do a work in 18 days, B in 9 days and C in 6 days. A and B start working together and after 2
days C joins them. What is the total number of days taken to finish the work?
(a) 4.33
(b) 4.5
(c) 4
(d) 5.33
110.
Square root of 117649 is
(a) 347
(b) 343
(c) 353
(d) 357
SECTION – IV: LOGICAL REASONING
111.
Which of the following groups will replace the question mark (?) in the series given below?
AZ
FU
JQ
MN?
(a) LO
(b) OL
(c) KO
(d) LM
(e) None of these
112.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
(a) Flat
(b) Bungalow (c) House
(d) Temple
(e) None of these
113.
Rajni ranks 37th in the class. Meena is 17 ranks ahead of Rajni in the class. Meena‟s rank from the last
in 46th. How many girls are there in the class?
(a) 73
(b) 53
(c) 65
(d) Can‟t be determined (e) None of these
114.
Six girls are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre. Sumathi is to the left of Poonam. Radha is
between Sumathi and Nalini. Amirtha is between Poonam and Kamali. Who is to the left of Nalini?
(a) Kamali
(b) Radha
(c) Poonam
(d) Amirtha
(e) Sumathi.
115.
The tain for Gwalior leaves every fifty minutes from Bhopal. It was announced at Bhopal that the train
for Gwalior had left 25 minutes ago and the next one would leave at 10.10 a.m. as per schedule. What
was the time of the announcement?
(a) 9.30 a.m.
(b) 9.15 a.m. (c) 9.45 a.m. (d) 9.50 a.m.
(e) None of these
116.
X told Y, “Z is my father‟s brother”. How is Y related to Z?
(a) Father
(b) Uncle
(c) Brother
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
117.
If „P+Q‟ means „P is mother of Q‟, P – Q‟ means „P is brother of Q‟, „P†Q‟ means „P is father of Q‟,
„P×Q‟ means „P is sister of Q‟, then which of the following means „X is uncle of Y‟?
(a) X – M + N ÷ Y
(b) Y ÷ M + N × X
(c) X + M – N × Y
(d) X – M + N + Y
(e) None of these
118.
Neha ranks twenty-first from the top and thirtieth from the last in class. How many students are there in
the class?
(a) 52
(b) 50
(c) 51
(d) 53
(e) None of these
119.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
(a) Painting
(b) Art
(c) Sculpture (d) Drawing
(e) Music
120.
In a certain code INSPIRE is written as SNIPERI. How is DEPRIVE written in that code?
(a) DPEREVI
(b) PDERIVE (c) EPDREVI (d) PEDREVI
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 121-125): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which
of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Sample Mock Test
if only assumption I is implicit.
if only assumption II is implicit
if either I or II is implicit
if neither I nor II is implicit
if both I and II are implicit.
121.
Statement: The cabinet decided to wind up various existing authorities on environment and set up a
National Authority headed by a Supreme Court judge besides six regional authorities to help Ministry
of Environment and Forests.
Assumption:
I.
These new author may be able to look after a particular eco-sensitive area or a regional issue.
II.
These new authorities may help re-organise and streamline the of functioning of Ministry of
Environment and Forests.
122.
Statement: “It is very regrettable though issues pertaining to the elderly and the disadvantaged children
do find space in the media, the “treatment” given to them is often shallow and rarely reflects their actual
condition.” _ View of Mr „X‟
Assumptions:
I.
The Media should not gloss over the real problem faced by the old.
II.
The radio and print media touch upon the problems of the elderly but the information supplied
has little practical value.
123.
Statement: “Government employees, including doctors working in state-run hospitals and dispensaries,
have no right – fundamental, legal, moral or equitable – to go on strike.” – Supreme Court
Assumptions:
I.
Government employees hold society to ransom by going on strike.
II.
Strike as a weapon is mostly misused, which results in chaos and total maladministration.
124.
Statement: “Never touch or even go near any unclaimed object lying around in public areas, however
attractive they may seem.” – A notice issued in public interest by city police X.
Assumptions:
I.
Attractive and unclaimed objects lying around public areas are not supposed to be disastrous
elements by the common people.
II.
Unclaimed object lying around in public areas may be disastrous.
125.
Statement: “No matter which career path you choose in photography, these are skills you need in order
to succeed; visual skills, technical, camera and lighting skills and digital imaging skills besides the most
important element of success – proper training.” View of Mr. Z
Assumptions:
I.
A strong sense of visual style and compositional skills in addition to training in the technical
intricacies of photography may make a photographer more successful.
II.
A sound education provided by a quality photography training can help one to gain the skills
one needs to succeed.
Directions (Q.126-130): Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have
to decide which of the arguments is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak” argument. Give answer.
(a) if only argument I is “strong”.
(b) if only argument II is “strong”.
(c) if either I or II is “strong”.
(d) if neither I nor II is “strong”.
(e) if both I and II are “strong”.
126.
Statement: Should the Indian Railways be corporatised?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, the move will make it an autonomous entity, which will bring in enormous changes like
quick decision-making.
II.
No, it is futile unless we put an end to the handling of archaic rules in the appointment of
favourites to the top positions.
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Sample Mock Test
127.
Statement: Should there be a law against superstition in India?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, it is a belief in magical and similar influences, in idea or practice based on this.
II.
No, it has been recognized by our forefathers and has a strong base in our society.
128.
Statement: Should there be death punishment for those who are involved in manufacturing spurious
drugs?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, mass murder for the sake of profit should be treated only by one law – death penalty.
II.
No, the main objective of the punishment is to bring reform in a convicted person by punishing
him/her.
129.
Statement: Should companies‟ donation to political parties be banned in India?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, it was banned during 1969 and 1985 also
II.
No, donation to political parties is not a new thing in the country and has been in existence right
from 1956.
130.
Statement: Should there be uniform civil code in India?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, Many personal laws relating to marriage, inheritance, guardianship, divorce, maintenance
and property relations in all communities are unjust, especially unjust to women.
II.
No, India has a rich cultural mosaic and any artificial singularity, sought to be achieved through
a common civil code, would only make the society more fragmented.
Directions (Q. 131-134): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below
it.
I.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre. A, B, C,
D, F and G are sitting at equal distances from each other.
II.
„C‟ is sitting two places right of „F‟, who is sitting one place right of „D‟.
III.
„A‟ forms an angle of 90o (at centre) with „E‟ and an angle of 120o with „B‟.
IV.
„B‟ is opposite „G‟.
V.
„G‟ is sitting on the immediate left of „E‟.
131.
132.
133.
134.
Who is sitting on the immediate right of „C‟?
(a) G
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
(e) None of these
Who is sitting on the immediate left of „D‟?
(a) F
(b) G
(c) B
(d) A
(e) None of these
Who is sitting opposite „F‟?
(a) F
(b) G
(d) A
(e) None of these
(c) B
If „D‟ and „C‟ interchange their positions, who will sit on the immediate left of B?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) F
(d) A
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 135-138): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
it.
A, B, C, D, E and F are six friends. In which there are three female members. Each female is an
international player and the females are associated with there different games, ie Hockey, Cricket and
Football. All of them went to a restaurant to take dinner. Each female sat with a male counterpart at
three different tables. Letters assigned to the tables are X, Y and Z. Study the following clues carefully:
I.
Persons associated with the same game do not sit together at the same table.
II.
No two females are associated with the same game.
III.
„B‟ and „E‟ are associated with the same game but not with football.
IV.
„D‟ is associated with cricket.
V.
„E‟ and „A‟ are sitting at tables „X‟ and „Z‟ respectively and are associated with the same game.
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VI.
VII.
135.
136.
Sample Mock Test
„D‟ is a female. She is not at table „Y‟.
„C‟ is Male. He is at table „X‟.
Which of the following groups denotes the males?
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C, D
(c) C, D, E
(d) D, E, F
(e) None of these
„C‟ is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Hockey
(b) Football
(c) Cricket
(d) Can‟t say
(e) None of these
137.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) „A‟ and „D‟ are at the table „Z‟.
(b) „B‟ and „F‟ are at the table Y.
(c) „C‟ and „D‟ are at the table X.
(d) „C‟ is associated either with football or with cricket.
(e) „A‟ and „B‟ are associated with the same game.
138.
„A‟ and „B‟ are associated with which of the following games respectively?
(a) Hockey and Cricket
(b) Cricket and Football
(c) Football and Hockey
(d) Can‟t say
(e) None of these.
Directions (Q. 139-143): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two
conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement. Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either I or II follows.
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
(e) if both I and II follow.
139.
Statement: A new legislation which we have implemented is that vote of no-confidence motion against
a Prime Minister must be accompanied by the name of an alternative leader. – Govt. of the country X.
Conclusions
I.
Government of country X is desirous to reduce the problem of political instability.
II.
The move is likely to reduce the problem of frequent elections.
140.
Statement: The Government has cut the interest rate on the General Provident Fund (GPF) and Special
Deposit Scheme (SDS) from 9.5 to 9 per cent. At the same time it has also reduced the interest on loans
to government employees by half a per cent.
Conclusions:
I.
Now cheaper funds will be available from the Centre‟s coffers for those planning to construct
or purchase a house or buy a vehicle or computer.
II.
The government employee will not be ready to invest their money into the scheme.
141.
Statement: “While there is no harm in providing a safety-belt for international players, we need to pay
more to our first-class players, especially as most of them are without jobs.” – A statement made by the
BCCI treasurer.
Conclusions:
I.
Senior players already get huge amounts and giving them more makes little sense.
II.
All first-class players need more motivation than that needed by international players.
142.
Statement: “Every Indian has to be a part of the global war on terrorism. We must, and we will, stamp
out this evil from our land, and from the world.” – PM of India.
Conclusions:
I.
People‟s participation will certainly reduce the menace of terrorism.
II.
The PM of India is concerned with the problem of terriorism.
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143.
Sample Mock Test
Statement: In a non-immunised child if the body loses the war against the polio virus, it is carried by
the blood to the nervous system and when the nervous system loses the war against the polio virus, the
nerves which control the muscles are destroyed and this makes the child paralysed.
Conclusions:
I.
Immunisation programmes with a strong will power is likely to reduce the polio cases in the
world.
II.
In a non-immunised child, there are no antibodies present to restrict the virus attack on the
internal part of the body.
Directions (Q.144-150): Answer these questions independent of each other based on the information
given.
144.
In the sixties, nationalization was considered as the panacea for all economic problems. The
disillusionment soon set in. Nowadays, privatization is a buzz word everywhere. Our decision makers
seem to believe that all our economic problems will be solved by privatizing all economic activities.
Which one of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?
(a) The impact of privatization has not always been positive in all the countries.
(b) The efficiency and probity of government services are sine qua non for economic success.
(c) Nationalization has compounded our economic problems
145.
It is high time that begging must be forbidden in all public places in India. Exploitation of charitable
instincts of general public, far from solving the problem of poverty, may in fact aggravate it by
inducing laziness.
Which of the following, if true, would support the above reasoning?
(a) Destitution is the result of unwillingness to work.
(b) Most beggars are really poor.
(c) All poor people do not beg.
146.
It is rather paradoxical that a good film maker has to lie in order to drive home the essential truth that he
believes in and is trying to project to the general public.
The meaning of paradox in the above statement refers to the fact that.
(a) even a honest film maker has to lie in order to succeed
(b) all successful movies are nothing but lies, convincingly presented
(c) fictional presentation in the movies is resorted in order to project certain essential principles.
147.
Competition, while bringing about the best in goods, also brings out the worst in human beings. Cooperation, on the other hand ennobles human beings and only through co-operation, we can solve the
most serious problems threatening our survival such as pollution.
The policy implication of the above statement is.
(a) co-operation and competition are incompatible to each other
(b) markets must be suppressed since they debase human beings
(c) unfair trade practices must be severely dealt with.
148.
Population control through family planning is absolutely necessary for a poor and densely populated
country like India. But the socio-economic benefits of family planning must be weighed against
people's rights as individuals, their feelings, religious and cultural values.
The balancing process which is implied in the above statement means that.
(a) People's preferences should be the ultimate factor, since it is for them to decide whether to survive
or not.
(b) Family planning must be pursued vigorously so as to ensure human survival.
(c) Family planning must be pursued in such a way as not to invite backslash
149.
Happiness is ultimately a state of n dnd. Most of the time, we are unhappy not because that some evil
has befallen on us, but by the absence of some fictitious good.
The implication of the above statement is that:
(a) We are unhappy because we discontented with our lot, however good it really is.
(b) We are unhappy, because we always compare ourselves with others better off than us.
(c) We are unhappy, because something which we think well has not happened to us.
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150.
Sample Mock Test
Religious harmony is possible, if only we realize that forms and contents of every religion are
necessarily the products of human mind notwithstanding the origin of religion in Divine Revelation.
The above statement leads to the conclusion that
(a) theological disputes are illusory and hence better avoided.
(b) religion must be considered as an individual matter having no social relevance.
(c) people should be accommodative to one another while practicing their religions.
SECTION – V: LEGAL APTITUDE
Directions (Q.151-155): In the questions given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
151.
Assertion (A): An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion may be referred to as
national emergency.
Reason (R): The first Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made by the President on
October 26, 1962 in view of the Chinese aggression.
152.
Assertion (A): Article 76 of the Constitution of India makes provision for the appointment of the
Attorney General.
Reason (R): The Attorney General has a privilege to address the Houses of Parliament.
153.
Assertion (A): There are fifteen Articles of the Constitution, from 35 to 50, that deal with the Directive
Principles.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles enshrine the fundamentals for the realization of which the State in
India stands.
154.
Assertion (A): Disagreement between the two Houses of the Union Parliament is to be resolved by a
joint sitting.
Reason (R): There is no such provision for resolving difference between the two Houses of the State
Legislature.
155.
Assertion (A): According to Article 256, the executive power of every State is to be exercised in such a
way to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament.
Reason (R): The idea of the Union giving directions to the States is foreign to most federations.
Directions (Q. 156-200): Given below is a statement of legal PRINCIPLE, followed by a factual situation.
Apply the PRINCIPLE to the FACTS and select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives given.
156.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person‟s
consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause,
or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to
the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A incites a dog to spring upon B intending to cause injury and fear to B. B
was severely injured and by receiving shock, suffered from high fever. B lodged complaint with the
police. A takes defence plea that the dog is a stray dog and he is not the owner of the dog and hence is
not liable to be punished. Decide.
DECISION:
(a) A is not liable because he himself has not done any injury etc. to B
(b) A is not liable because dog is a stray dog and for the act of stray dog he is not responsible.
(c) A is responsible because he intended to cause injury to B by using the force through dog at his
instruction.
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Sample Mock Test
(d) A is responsible because he was present at the time of dog attacked to B.
157.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The State is liable for the act of its employees. When the act is of private
nature, in the same manner and under the same conditions as any other employer. The State is
not liable when the act is in exercise of sovereign power or in performance of an act of State.
FACTUAL SITUATION: An army truck driven by a military driver „A‟ was proceeding on duty to
check the army men on duty at different military posts. The truck hit a civilian „B‟ and caused material
injury. The fact showed that the injury was caused due to rash and negligent driving by the military
driver „A‟. The injured civilian „B‟ brought a suit in tort against the Union of India.
DECISION:
(a) The suit succeeded on the principle of qui facit per alium facit per se (he who does an act through
another is deemed to do it himself)
(b) The suit succeeded on the master and servant relationship between the Union of India and the
military driver.
(c) The suit failed because the Union of India did not ratify the rash and negligent driving.
(d) The suit failed because the incident occurred in the course of discharge of sovereign functions of
the State
158.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An employer is responsible for any accident of loss caused to his
employees, during the course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ravi Menon runs the „African Circus”. The circus has an interesting nigh
show. Two motor cyclists, Rohit and Mohit, rotate their motorcycles inside a big iron globe in complete
darkness. And the audience, especially, the children give a clap. One day it so happens that during one
night show an accident occurs other and Rohit loses both his legs. His parents claim compensation from
Ravi Menon, the proprietor of the circus.
DECISION:
(a) Ravi is not liable to pay any compensation because he cannot be held responsible for the accident
(b) Ravi is liable to pay compensation because he is the employer and the accident occurred during the
course of employment.
(c) Ravi is not liable to pay any compensation but he can pay some amount to Rohit if he has sympathy
for him
159.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every citizen of India has a fundamental right to carry on any trade or
business or profession of his choice subject to the imposition of reasonable restrictions by the
State.
FACTUAL SITUATION: In pursuance of an order passed by the Supreme Court of India, the Govt. of
Delhi bans all light motor vehicles, which do not conform to Euro-II Norms. Arvind Motors, an autodealer challenges the ban as it violates his right to carry his business.
DECIDE:
(a) The Govt. of Delhi has a superior right and the ban is justified
(b) The ban is justified, as the right of Arvind Motors to carry his business is not absolute
(c) The ban is not justified, as the Govt. of Delhi cannot deprive any person of his right to carry on his
business.
(d) None of the above.
160.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No private person should be allowed to take the administration of
Criminal Justice out of the hands of the judges and place it on his own hands.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A heard the sound from his neighbour‟s house that a thief has entered into
his neighbour‟s house and stabbed his neighbour B. While A reached there he saw his neighbour B was
succumbed to death. A ran towards the running thief and captured him by his arms and roped him to a
pole on the road and next morning he with the help of his friend took the thief to Local Police Station.
DECISION:
(a) A can be prosecuted because he had no authority to arrest the thief.
(b) A is not be prosecuted because he has not taken law into his hand but helped the police
(c) A can be prosecuted because he has taken law into his hand.
(d) A cannot be prosecuted because he has not stabbed to thief.
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161.
Sample Mock Test
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement to which the consent of the seller is freely given is not void
merely because the price is inadequate.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Praveen agrees to sell a horse worth Rs.1,00,000 for Rs.10 to Arvind.
Is the agreement void?
(a) Yes, because the price is inadequate
(b) No, if Praveen‟s consent to the agreement was freely given.
(c) Yes, if Praveen‟s consent was not freely given
(d) Both (b) and (c).
162.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the
possession of any other person without her consent, he is guilty of theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A comes to B‟s house and takes away a book with the intention to return it.
(a) A commits theft because the book has been taken without B‟s consent
(b) A does not commit theft because he intends to return the book.
(c) A commits theft because he has taken a book which is movable property
(d) A commits theft because he has moved the book from B‟s house.
163.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and
visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Suresh was a owner of a big bunglow with a compound wall. He was
constructing a swimming pool in his compound. Since the work was incomplete, he asked his workers
to cover it with gunny bags. Next morning, the post-man who came inside to deliver a telegram fell into
this unfinished pool. The postman filed a suit against Suresh claiming compensation.
DECISION:
(a) Suresh is not liable because he did not invite the postman to his house.
(b) Suresh is not liable because it was for the postman to take care of himself.
(c) Suresh is liable because the postman came into the premises in the course of his duty
(d) None of these.
164.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The obligation to maintain parents who are unable to maintain themselves
which was moral upto 1973 has now been made legal.
FACTUAL SITUATION: After her marriage Dr. Vijaya continued her medical practice but she no
longer maintained her old parents who were sick and bedridden and had no other means. They sued
their daughter for maintenance.
DECISION:
(a) They will not succeed as Dr. Vijaya is now married.
(b) They will not succeed because Dr. Vijaya‟s responsibility is now towards her husband and his
parents
(c) They will succeed because a daughter after her marriage does not cease to be the daughter of her
father or mother.
(d) None of these.
165.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person‟s use or enjoyment of
land or right over or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment envisaged herein should be
normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sujata and Nirmala were neighbours in a residential locality. Sujata started a
typing class in a part of her house and this typing sound disturbed Nirmala who could not put up with
any kind of continuous noise. She filed a suit against Sujata.
DECISION:
(a) Sujata is liable because she should not have started typing classes in his house
(b) Sujata is liable because as a neighbour she should have realised Nirmala‟s delicate nature.
(c) Sujata is not liable because typing sound did not disturb anyone else than Nirmala
(d) Sujata is not liable because typing does not interfere with another person‟s use/enjoyment of land or
right over or in connection with it.
166.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the
personal inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the
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usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract
to be likely to result from the breach of it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita and Sushmita bought bus tickets for a journey from Adyar to
Mandaveli. The bus was to go to St. Thomas Mount via Mandaveli. However, the driver mistakenly
took a wrong direction and the two girls were dropped at a distance of 2 ½ miles from Mandavelion on
the highway. With no other transportation in sight nor a place to stay, the two had to walk 2 ½ miles at
midnight.
Later they filed a case against the bus company and claimed Rs.5,000 as damages for inconvenience
caused in having to walk and Rs.6,500 for Sushmita having fallen ill by catching cold during the night.
(a) Both the amounts are liable to be paid because Sunita and Sushmita suffered loss for no fault of
theirs
(b) The bus company is liable to pay both the amounts claimed because the loss was suffered on
account of the fault of the bus company and the inconvenience suffered and illness arose in the
normal course of things from breach of contact.
(c) The compensation for inconvenience suffered by being forced to walk at night is liable to be paid
by the bus company. However no compensation is to be granted for Sushmita‟s illness because this
was not expected on account of breach of contract.
(d) The bus company is not liable to pay any amount, because it was the driver‟s fault
167.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever delivers to any other person as genuine any counterfeit currency
which he knows to be counterfeit, but which other person did not know to be counterfeit at the
time when he received it is guilty of an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: On returning home from the market one day, Mrs. X notices a counterfeit
currency note of Rs.50 while counting the remaining money. Mrs. X returns to the same shop where she
got the counterfeit currency with a view to get rid of the counterfeit note. She buys a shampoo worth
Rs.32.00 and passes the fake note at the cash counter. The Cashier inspects the note and realizes that it
is counterfeit. He calls the police.
(a) Mrs. X is not guilty because she was attempting to return the counterfeit note to the same person
from whom she received it
(b) Mrs. X is not guilty of any offence because she neither manufactured the counterfeit note nor did
she circulate it with a view to deceive anybody.
(c) Mrs. X is guilty because she attempted to deliver a counterfeit currency note as genuine which she
knew was counterfeit
(d) None of the above.
168.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some
purpose, upon a contract that they shall, once the purpose is fulfilled, be returned. Further, the
person to whom the goods are delivered is obliged to take as much care of the goods as a man of
ordinary prudence would, under similar circumstances take of his own goods.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mrs. Sita gave a gold bar to M/s. Zaveri Lall & Co. jewelers to make a
necklace of a certain pattern. The jewelers kept the gold bar in an almirah. Unfortunately, the shop was
burgled and Mrs. Sita‟s gold bar was stolen. The jewelers had not employed a watchman to guard their
valuable Advice Mrs. Sita on proposed legal action.
(a) The jewelers are not liable to make compensation because they took reasonable care in respect of
the goods entrusted to them and the burglary could not have been avoided under any circumstances.
(b) The jewelers are liable to compensate Mrs. Sita because they failed to take as much care as a man
of ordinary prudence ought to have taken in respect of goods entrusted.
(c) The jewelers are not liable to compensate Mrs. Sita because they took as much care as they took in
respect of their own goods which is established by the fact that their own goods were also stolen.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
169.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owns a duty of
care to others.
FACTUAL SITUATION: While the bus was leaving the platform, Ramu rushed and boarded the bus
keeping the door open. Kalu, who was standing at the edge of the platform, was hit by the door of the
moving bus and injured. Kalu claims compensation from Ramu.
DECISION:
(a) Ramu is liable to Kalu for not having taken care to close the door of the moving bus
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(b) Ramu is not liable to Kalu as it was the duty of the conductor of the bus to close the door
(c) Ramu is not liable to Kalu, as it was the duty of the latter, to take sufficient care, while standing on
the platform, as not to expose oneself to such accidental harm.
(d) None of above.
170.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by
reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or what he is doing
is wrong or contrary to law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Surendra received divine orders in his sleep at right to sacrifice his one year
old child and then he will go to heaven after dying. He carries out the order and kills his son.
(a) Surendra is to be punished for the murder of his child
(b) Surendra is not guilty of any offence because it was order of God
(c) Surendra can plead unsoundness of mind as defence and he should not be charged for murder
(d) Surendra can not be held liable for murdering his own child.
171.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No one should be rich at the cost of other‟s interest.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Rajni found a mobile phone near her college vehicle-parking stand. She was
in fact contemplating of selling her mobile phone to raise some funds for taking some private tuition.
She soon sold the mobile phone, which she found. Ramesh, one of her classmates was the owner of that
mobile phone and he argued that Rajni did not have the authority to sell the phone. Rajni however
argued that she did the same act, which she would have done in respect of her own mobile phone.
DECISION:
(a) Rajni has no authority to sell because she is not the real owner.
(b) Rajni has no authority to sell because Ramesh has not given his consent.
(c) Rajni has authority, because she has not stolen the mobile phone
(d) Rajni has authority because she has done whatever she would done with her own mobile phone.
172.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Acceptance must be communicated to the party to the contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Kavya came across a beautiful Ganesha idol made of sandalwood in an
exhibition. After returning home, she sent an e-mail to the organizers of the exhibition asking them
whether they would sell the Ganesha idol and what would be the price for the same. The organizers
replied, “We would not sell for anything less than Rs.10,000”. Kavya wrote back saying “I accept”. In
the meantime, the organizers sold the same idol for Rs.12,000/- to another person. Kavya demanded the
idol or Rupees two thousand, that is the extra-money taken by the organizers. Decide.
DECISION:
(a) Kavya cannot succeed because mere writing “accept” does not make the party binding. The
acceptance to be complete must be communicated to the other party.
(b) Kavya cannot succeed because she did not pay immediately for the Ganesha idol
(c) Kavya can succeed because she was first to inform him to purchase
(d) Kavya can succeed because the seller sold above the price offered first to her.
173.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No person is liable in tort if the Act of God is given a defence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mr. Nichols created some artificial lakes in his land by damming some
natural streams. One day there was an extra-ordinary heavy rainfall stated to be heaviest in human
memory, as a result of which, the embankments of the lakes gave way. The rush of water washed away
four bridges belonging to Mr. Marsland. He sued for compensation to Mr. Nichols.
DECISION:
(a) Mr. Nichols is not liable because he did not make artificial lakes.
(b) Mr. Nichols is not liable because due to heavy rainfall bridges were washed away, so it was the Act
of God
(c) Mr. Nichols is liable because he created artificial lakes
174.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: According to Indian Penal Code a citizen of India who commits an offence
within territory of India shall be guilty of offence and punishable under Indian Penal Code.
FACTUAL SITUATION: William, a citizen of British commits murder in Delhi.
DECISION:
(a) William can be prosecuted in India
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(b) William is guilty of offence
(c) William is liable but cannot be prosecuted in India
(d) William cannot be liable in India.
175.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder, if the act by
which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing murder and the person.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was suffering from jaundice and inflammation of the brain and B was in
the know of this condition. One day during a heated argument on some issue. A slapped B in anger. B
lost his self-control and dealt a severe blow on A‟s head. As a result, A died. The police sought to
prosecute B for murder.
DECISION:
(a) B was liable for murder because he knew A‟s delicate condition
(b) B was not liable for murder because he acted in self defense
(c) B was not liable for murder because he did not have the intention to kill A
(d) B was not liable for murder because he acted under grave and sudden provocation.
176.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The original owner of the goods has authority to sell.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ramesh was the owner of a motorcar. He lent his car to his brother-in-law,
Vimal for driving for a few days. Vimal‟s neighbour, Harish, a big industrialist saw the car and liked it
and immediately offered Vimal a good amount against the car. Vimal sold the car to Harish against
Rs.5 lakhs. Ramesh wanted the car back.
DECISION:
(a) Ramesh can get the car back, because he is the real owner. Vimal is not owner though he possessed
the car
(b) Ramesh cannot get the car back, because Harish has paid for the car
(c) Ramesh cannot get the car but shall get Rs.50000 the sale amount.
(d) Ramesh cannot get the car but he has to complete the sale procedure.
177.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Without lawful authority, if a person is restricted from moving in a
direction in which he is entitled to move, it amounts to an offence of wrongful restraint.
FACTUAL SITUATION: In view of the religious procession scheduled to be taken through the streets
of the city, police erected barricades on the main road prevent the traffic movement. Consequently, “A”
who had to reach the airport couldn‟t reach in time. Can “A” sue against police.
DECISION:
(a) No, police has authority to block the road for some time.
(b) No, because he has given any intimation to police previously that he has to go airport on that road.
(c) Yes, because police has no authority to block the road.
(d) Yes, because police has not advertised any of such road block in local newspapers.
178.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: In a divorce petition filed by either the husband or the wife, a decree of
divorce may be granted if the other party has treated the petitioner with cruelty.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Amit and Sonal are husband and wife. While they were coming from a trip
from Goa, on the Railway Station, at Margaon their 4 years son escaped an accident due to negligence
of Sonal. The husband got furious and slapped his wife and due to this incident she filed divorce
petition.
DECIDE: Whether divorce petition can be filed or not?
(a) Divorce petition cannot be filed because Sonal was in fault
(b) Divorce petition can be filed because Amit slapped Sonal and it is cruelty against woman
(c) Divorce petition cannot be filed because husband has right to slap his wife.
(d) Divorce petition cannot be filed because slapping to his wife is not cruelty
179.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever sells, lets to hire, distributes, publicly exhibits or in any manner
puts into circulation, or for purposes of sale, hire, distribution, public exhibition or circulation,
makes, produces or has in his possession any absence book, pamphlet, paper shall be punished.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ganesh is a well-known artist and his paintings have earned recognition
worldwide. One day the paints a picture titled „mother earth‟ wherein he depicted a naked woman an
from her womb a plant is coming out. He puts this painting in exhibition.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the following.
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(a) Ganesh must be punished
(b) Ganesh cannot be punished because his painting is an arty one and it cannot be called obscene
(c) Ganesh has made a painting, which portrays a naked woman and is indeed obscene thus he must be
punished
(d) Ganesh has abused his freedom of expression by painting an obscene picture thus he must be
punished
180.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sitrrea” it means that the act in itself is
not a crime unless it is done with a guilty mind.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Aditya in his madness attempts to kill Sahil but he rescued.
DECIDE: Whether Aditya is liable or not?
(a) Aditya is not liable for attempt to murder because he has no guilty mind during the time of
attacking
(b) Aditya is liable for attempt to murder
(c) Aditya is not liable because Sahil was rescued and now he is not dead
181.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Time is the essence of a contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Aggarwal is the oldest and most reputed sweet-shop in Delhi. It requires
large quantities of sugar for making sweets. Aggrawal plans to sell some new unique and delicious
items of sweets on the eve of New Year, 2009. Therefore it places an order to M/s. XYZ Sugar Co.,
Ghaziabad, for supply of 2,000 tonnes of top-quality-sugar. But it does not receive the sugar till 1st of
January, 2009. The consignment of sugar does reach the sweets-shop, but on 5th of January, 2009. Due
to delay in supply of sugar, Aggarwal incurs heavy losses in business.
DECIDE:
(a) Aggarwal can claim damages from M/s. XYZ Sugar Co., Ghaziabad
(b) Aggarwal can‟t claim damages from M/s. XYZ Sugar Co., Ghaziabad, because the comply did
supply the sugar and performed the contract.
(c) Both the parties can claim damages from each other because both the parties incurred losses
(d) None of the parties is entitled to damages because the contract was not clear.
182.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The opportunity rule‟ fixes the liability on the person who had the last
opportunity of avoiding an accident by taking ordinary care.
FACTUAL SITUATION: „A‟ fettered the forefeet of his donkey and left the donkey in a narrow
highway. „B‟ was driving through the highway in a horse driven wagon. The wagon was going too fast
and killed the donkey. „A‟ sued B. Can A succeed?
DECISION:
(a) „A‟ was at fault
(b) „A‟ fettered the fore leg of his donkey. He was negligent
(c) Despite „A‟ being negligent, „B‟ could still avoid the accident.
(d) None of these
183.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Everyone has the right to defend their life and property against criminal
harm Provided it is not possible to approach public authorities and more harm that is necessary
has not been caused to avert the danger.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The farm of X on outskirts of the Delhi was attacked by a gang of armed
robbers. X without informing the police, at first warned the robbers by firing in the air. As they were
fleeing from the farm, he fired and killed one of them. At the trial –
DECISION:
(a) X can avail the right of private defence as he was defending his life and property
(b) X cannot avail the right as he failed to inform the police
(c) X cannot avail the right as the cause more harm than was necessary to ward off the danger
(d) X can avail of the right as at first he only fired in the air
184.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A contract is an agreement which the law will enforce. All agreements are
contracts if they are made with free consent by parties competent to contract for a lawful
consideration and with a lawful object.
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FACTUAL SITUATION: A offered to buy B‟s bungalow for Rs.10 lakhs but B refused. Subsequently
when A threatened to file a complaint against B for possessing assets disproportionate to his income B
agreed to the sale. B subsequently resiles from the contract
A‟s suit to enforce the contractDECISION:
(a) will succeed because A was offering lawful consideration for the house
(b) will succeed because buying and selling of houses is lawful
(c) will succeed because both parties have capacity to contract
(d) will fail because B was forced to agree to the contract
185.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever does any act so rashly or negligently as to endanger human life
or the personal safety of others is said to have committed an offence.
FACTS: Mr. Mangeskar owns a Yamaha motorcycle which has very good pick up and speed. He is
studying in the IV semester of Mechanical Engineering degree course. One day it was getting late for
the college as he woke up late in the morning. He got ready and was rushing to the college so that he
would not miss the class. He was riding the motor cycle at a speed of 140 km per hour in Bangalore city
which was crowded. He was very good in riding the motorcycle. People who were using the road got
annoyed /scared with the way Mr. Mangeskar was riding the motorcycle.
DECIDE:
(a) Mr. Mangeskar has committed an act of rash and negligent driving.
(b) Mr. Mangeskar is very good in driving, so there is no need for others to be panicky about his
driving.
(c) Mr. Mangeskar is very studious student and he does not want to miss any class in the college.
(d) The Yamaha motorcycle is very good and it can be driven at great speed.
186.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Marrying once again during the sustenance of earlier marriage is an
offence punishable under law.
FACTS: Mr. Kishore and Mr. Shilpa are married for the last 4 years. Ms. Shilpa met with an accident
and was admitted to the Hospital in an unconscious condition. Now 50 days have lapsed and her
unconscious condition continues. The doctors say that her survival would be difficult. Mr. Kishore and
Ms. Shilpa have a young kid aged 8 months, whom they like very much. As there is no body to take
care of the child, Mr. Kishore asked his friend Ms. Sandhya to take care of the kid. She imposed a
condition that she would take care of the kid only if he marries her. Under these circumstances Mr.
Kishore married Ms. Sandhya.
DECIDE:
(a) Ms. Sandhya forced Mr. Kishore to marry her. So Mr. Kishore has not committed any offence.
(b) Mr. Kishore was helpless under the given circumstances. So he has not committed any offence.
(c) Mr. Kishore by marrying Ms. Sandhya has committed an offence.
(d) Mr. Kishore has not committed any offence as the doctors in the Hospital have said that Ms.
Shilpa‟s survival is difficult.
187.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Anybody with an intention to cause damage to the public or to any person,
causes destruction of any property, he is said to have committed the offence of Mischief.
FACTS: The workers of Premium Private Ltd. Co. were on strike demanding higher bonus. In the
course of the strike, a worker by name Mr. Chandra Kumar has thrown stones at the company and
damaged the costly glass windows.
DECIDE:
(a) Mr. Chandra Kumar was justified in his act as the employer company behaved unreasonably by not
paying the bonus properly.
(b) Mr. Chandra Kumar was on strike along with other workers. Hence he has immunity from all
actions.
(c) Mr. Chandra Kumar has committed the offence of Mischief.
(d) Mr. Chandra Kumar has not committed the offence of mischief as he has only expressed his
freedom of speech and expression which is a Fundamental Right.
188.
LEGAL PRINCIPE: Agreement to do an impossible act is void. The parties to such agreement
will not have any rights or duties under such an agreement.
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FACTS: Mr. Balu enters into an agreement with Mr. Kumar. According to the agreement, Mr. Kumar
was to pay to Rs.5,000 to Mr. Balu for doing black magic. Mr. Balu was to discover by black magic the
treasure that is hidden in the land of Mr. Kumar, which is a small site in Bangalore.
DECIDE:
(a) The agreement is valid. Both will have to honour their commitments.
(b) The agreement is void as it is impossible to discover the treasure, through black magic.
(c) Agreement to use black magic is illegal and hence punishable.
(d) Black magic can prove to be very dangerous. The media has exposed many such instances.
189.
PRINCIPLE : Nothing which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by reason of any harm
which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause, or be known by the doer to be likely to cause,
to any person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, and who has given a consent, whether express
or implied, to suffer that harm, or to take the risk of that harm.
FACTS: A fake doctor operated on a man for internal piles by cutting them out with an ordinary knife.
The man died of hemorrhage.
(a) Doctor is guilty of murder.
(b) Doctor is not guilty.
(c) Doctor is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
190.
PRINCIPLE : Voluntary drunkenness is not a Defence under Ss.85 and 86 of the Indian Penal Code.
FACTS : A has in his possession a bottle of poisonous lotion for external application and a bottle of
medicine for internal use. A in a drunken condition gives to his child an ounce of the poisonous lotion
to drink as result of which the child died. It A guilty of any offence?
(a) A is guilty of death caused by rash and negligent act.
(b) A is guilty of murder.
(c) A is not guilty since he is in a drunken state.
191.
PRINCIPLE : “If, as a result of carelessness, one injures another, he is legally liable to the injured
victim for resulting damages, unless the victim‟s own carelessness also contributed to causing the
accident. However, if one becomes aware that another has, through his own fault, placed himself in
peril of which lie is unaware, or from which he cannot extricate himself, and the one so aware can still
avoid injury to the helpless victim through the exercise of reasonable care, the one so aware will be
liable for injuries which he causes the helpless victim through failure to take advantage of this ultimate
opportunity to save the victim from such injuries”.
FACTS: Chatterjee carelessly left a pole protruding across a public road. Mukherjee, ridings a
motorcycle, saw the pole but, since he was driving at a speed substantially above the posted limit, he
collided with the pole and was injured.
(a) Mukherjee will win because if it had not been for Chatterjee‟s carelessness, Mukherjee would not
have been injured.
(b) Mukherjee will win because Chatterjee had an opportunity to prevent the injury by putting up a
warning,
(c) Mukherjee will lose because he was already breaking the law by driving too fast.
(d) Mukherjee will lose because if he had not been speeding, he would not have been injured.
192.
FACTS: Shaila Devi opened a S.B. Account with Oriental Bank, and a cousin of her by name Mohan,
who was a clerk in that Bank, helped her to complete the formalities. Subsequently she used to entrust
whatever money she was getting to Mohan along with her pass book and Mohan used to return the pass
book with the relevant entries. One day Shaila Devi discovered that Mohan, instead of crediting the
money to her account, had been misappropriating it and the entries in the pass book were made by him
without authorization. Shaila Devi seeks compensation from Oriental Bank.
PRINCIPLE: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts committed by his servant in the course of
employment.
(a) Oriental Bank shall be liable because Mohan was acting in the course of employment.
(b) Oriental Bank shall not be liable, because Mohan was not acting in the course of employment.
(c) Oriental Bank was not liable, because Shaili Devi was negligent.
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193.
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PRINCIPLE : Mischief is an injury to property with the intention of causing wrongful loss to any
person or public. The person to whom the loss is wrongfully caused by mischief need not be the owner
of the property himself.
FACTS: Amar has leased his house to Akbar for 5 year. After one year Amar requests Akbar to vacate
the house, but the latter refuses. Amar in order to get Akbar vacate the house, causes fire to it, but
Akbar with the help of neighbours quickly extinguishes the fire before it could really damage the
property.
(a) Amar is guilty of mischief.
(b) Amar is guilty of mischief and is liable only to the neighbour.
(c) Amar is not guilty of causing mischief.
194.
PRINCIPLE : Uncertain agreements are not enforceable by law.
FACTS : Allauddin is a dealer in all types of edible oils. Vimal buys from Allauddin mustard oil and
coconut oil. On 6th June, Vimal sent a telegram asking Allauddin to send 100 tonnes of oil which was
not supplied by Allauddin. Vimal filed a suit against Allauddin.
Probable reasons given by Allauddin
(a) Which oil is to be supplied was not mentioned though Vimal used to buy coconut oil in previous
years in the month of May when this order also was placed.
(b) The price of the oil to be supplied is unascertainable because he was supplied at price different
from price charged from others in earlier period.
(c) Prices of all oils had risen considerably and it was not possible to supply at the quoted price.
(d) The oil was to be bought by Vimal for the purpose of export which was later banned by the
Government.
Which among the above will not be accepted?
(a) a, b, c, d
(b) b, c, d
(c) c, d
195.
PRINCIPLE -1 : No consideration – No contract.
PRINCIPLE -2 : Consideration is something done or abstinence of a party at the desire of another
party.
PRICNIPLE -3 : Considerations must have value in the eye of law.
FACTS : Innovative Education Trust manages a School named Bharat Vidyaniketan. Ashok, the parent
of a student in the School suggested to the Trust that it could build a new library building for which he
would bear a part of the cost. The School authority accepted the suggestion and started construction of
the building. Ashok having suffered a loss in business, now refuses to pay the part he had offered
earlier.
Which of the decision, you think is appropriate ?
(a) Ashk is not liable to pay as the building was for the benefit of the School and he has nothing to do
with it by, way of enjoying any benefit.
(b) He is liable to pay as Ashok‟s child is a student in the same school.
(c) Ashok is liable to pay because based upon his promise, the School authority started construction of
the building.
196.
PRINCIPLE : 1 If there is under influence on a party to an agreement, he may refuse to perform the
agreement.
PRINCIPLE : 2 When one party in an agreement is in a position to dominate the will of the other party
and he uses his position over the other party to get the other party‟s consent to the agreement, this is
undue influence.
FACTS: The landlord asks the tenant to agree to increase the rent to double the previous amount or to
vacate the house. The tenant had to agree to give double the previous rent and continue living in the
house. He thereafter refuses to pay.
Which of the following answer you think more appropriate?
(a) Tenant has to pay the new rent.
(b) Tenant has to pay the old rent and continue to occupy the house.
(c) Tenant has to pay the old rent but vacate the house with in a reasonable time.
197.
PRINCIPLE : To be held guilty of an offence, one should have done the act that causes the intended
result.
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FACTS : A with, the intention to murder B stabs him repeatedly with knife. B is taken to hospital and
is found out of danger. Thereafter, due to the negligence of the doctor, B‟s wounds are infected and he
requires surgical intervention. During the time of operation requiring to remove his injured infected leg,
B died on account of administration of general anesthesia.
(a) A is guilty of murder of B
(b) A is not guilty of murder of B but may be guilty of attempt to murder.
(c) A is not guilty of murder of B but may be guilty of causing hurt.
198.
PRINCIPLE : 1 If a person uses goods which are left to his care due to mistake by another person, he
has to compensate the other person.
PRINCIPLE : 2 A person is liable to pay the price of goods when it is sold to him.
FACTS : A friend X, leaves a bag of rice by mistake in the house of his friend Y, Y‟s wife thinking
that the bag of rice has been brought by Y for the home consumption, starts consuming the rice. After
two days, the mistake was realised when X comes to Y‟s home for taking away the bag. By the time, 10
kg of rice is consumed from the bag. X demands the price from Y.
(a) Y is not liable to pay the price.
(b) Y is liable to compensate X for 10 kg rice.
(c) Y is liable to pay the price of the entire bag of rice.
199.
PRINCIPLE : 1 A doctor is to keep the information given by the patient in strict confidence and
cannot provide the information to any party.
PRINCIPLE : 2 Information in public interest cannot be withheld.
FACTS : A, a medical practitioner from Assam came to a hospital in Madras due to serious illness. The
hospital authorities after detailed investigation found that A also suffers from HIV. After the treatment
for the disease which was cured, (not the HIV) A went back to Assam. A marriage proposal between A
and B was being considered B after coming to hear. from some anonymous sources asked the hospital
authority of Madras – to inform her about the real situation, as to whether A. is suffering from HIV.
The hospital authority after understanding that, B was going to marry A and therefore ought to, know
about the health conditions of A, disclosed the information to B. A files a suit for realization of
compensation of Rs.5 lakhs against the hospital authority of Madras.
(a) The hospital authority has to pay Rs.5 lakhs or any other amount decided by the court.
(b) The hospital authority is justified to disclose the information to any one interesting to know the
information.
(c) The hospital authority is justified in giving the information only to B and not to make the
information public otherwise.
200.
PRINCIPLE : A person is guilty of cheating when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver
the latter‟s property to him.
FACTS: A falsely represented to B, a shop-owner that he was an officer from the Commercial Taxes
Department,. While examining the accounts of the shop, A showed interest in buying a microwave oven
on installment basis. B readily agreed with the hope that he would get a favourable assessment from A
regards his tax liability. A paid the first installment, took the Microwave oven and disappeared from the
scene. The police, however, managed to catch hold of A and prosecute him for cheating.
(a) A committed cheating, because he induced B to part with & Microwave oven posing as though that
he was from the Commercial Taxes Department.
(b) A committed cheating, because he did not pay the subsequent installment.
(c) A did not commit cheating, because B handed over the article in order to get a favourable
assessment from A.
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200 SAMPLE MOCK TEST (CLAT)

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