Document 6536206

SAMPLE COPY
SAT – II (SUBJECT TEST)
GENERAL DIRECTIONS COMMON FOR ALL CLASSES (VIII TO X )
1.
This Test Booklet titled SAT – II (Subject Test) is exclusively made for the student of
Class IX. It comprises of three subjects – PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY.
2.
The students are required to Attempt ANY TWO subjects of their Choice – Each of the subjects is
allotted a MAXIMUM TIME LIMIT OF 1 HOUR.
3.
The students are required to submit back the Test Booklet with their respective ANSWER Book (OMR
SHEET) after the completion of the test.
4.
Each of the subject section also starts with SET OF INSTRUCTIONS. GIVEN BEFORE THE
START OF EACH SUBJECT.
5.
The students are required to go through the instructions and follow the same.
DISCLAIMER
This SAMPLE PAPER is only an indicative specimen but the USA UnivQuest open
Mock Test (SAT-II) will be comprising of the same number of questions
(Subject-wise), the way the Actual SAT-II (Subject Test) are designed.
SAT - II SUBJECT TEST
PHYSICS SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX
Directions: - Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five answer choices. Select the
one that is best in each case.
1.
The ratio of magnitude of displacement to distance is
(A) always < 1
(B) always = 1
(C) always > 1
(D) may be 1
(E) more than 2
2.
The distances travelled by a body falling from rest in the first, second and third seconds are in the ratio
(A) 1:2:3
(B) 1:3:5
(C) 1:4:9
(D) none of these
(E) none
3.
The distance-time graph of an object moving in a fixed direction is
shown in figure. The object
(A) is at rest
(B) moves with a constant velocity
(C) moves with a variable velocity
(D) moves with a constant non zero acceleration
(E) moves with variable acceleration
4.
The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown in
figure. The distance travelled in 8 sec., is
(A) 5 m
(B) 16 m
(C) 8 m
(D) 19 m
(E) 20 m
5.
Two bodies A and B of mass 100 gm and 200 gm respectively are dropped near the earth’s surface. Let
the acceleration of A and B be a1 and a2 respectively
(A) a1 = a2
(B) a1 < a2
(C) a1 > a2
(D) can’t say anything
(E) can’t say anything
6.
A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6kg.The velocity of mass 3kg is 16
m/sec. The velocity of mass 6 kg will be
(A) 8 m/sec
(B) 6 m/sec
(C) 4 m/sec
(D) 2 m/sec
7.
The momentum of a body of given mass is proportional to its
(A) Volume
(B) shape
(C) speed
(D) colour
(E) 10 m/sec
8.
Action reaction forces
(A) act on the same body
(C) act along different lines
(B) act on different bodies
(D) act in the same direction
(E) acceleration
9.
The buoyant force on a body acts in a
(A) vertically downward direction
(C) horizontal direction
(E) None
(B) vertically upward direction
(D) direction between the horizontal and vertical
10.
When a body is thrown up, the force of gravity is
(A) in the upward direction
(B) in the downward direction
(C) zero
(D) in the horizontal direction
(E) can act in any direction
11
Newton’s law of gravitation is valid
(A) on the earth only
(C) in the Laboratory only
(E) can’t say
(B) on the moon only
(D every where
12.
Pressure at a point inside a liquid does not depend on
(A) The depth of the point below the surface of the liquid
(B) The nature of the liquid
(C) The acceleration due to gravity at that point
(D) The shape of the containing vessel
(E) density of the liquid
13
If R is the radius of earth, the height at which the weight of a body becomes
surface of earth is
(A) 2R
(B) R
(C)
(E) R/8
14.
of its weight on the
(D)
A body is dropped from a height h. It acquires a momentum P, then the mass of the body is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2P
gh
15.
When a body is wholly or partially immersed in a liquid it appears to lose weight. This loss of weight is
equal to the weight of
(A) water displaced by the body
(B) liquid displaced by the body
(C) equal volume of water
(D) equal volume of liquid
(E) none
16.
A man is at rest in the middle of a pond on perfectly smooth ice. He can get himself to the shore by
making use of Newton’s
(A) First law
(B) second law
(C) third law
(D) all the law
(E) None of the above
17.
The principal of conservation of momentum states that the linear momentum of a system
(A) Can not be chaged
(B) Can not remain constant
(C) Can be changed only of internal forces act
(D) Can be changed only if external forces act
(E) None
18.
A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move
(A) in same direciton
(B) along different lines
(C) in opposite directions with equal speeds
(D) in opposite directions with unequal speeds
(E) can move in any direction
19.
Suppose the pressure at the surface of mercury in a barometer tube is P1 and the pressure at the surface of
mercury in the cup is P2
(A) P1 = 0, P2 = atmospheric pressure
(B) P1 = atmospheric pressure, P2 = 0
(C) P1 = P2 = atmospheric pressure
(D) P1 = P2 = 0
(E) None
20.
If the earth loses its gravity, then for a body
(A) weight becomes zero, but not the mass
(C) neither mass nor weight is zero
(E) None
21.
(B) mass becomes zero, but not weight
(D) both mass and weight are zero
A body is dropped form a certain height. When it lost an amount of potential energy U, it subsequently
acquires a velocity v. The mass of the body is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(E) None
(D)
22.
A sound wave produces 60 compressions and 60 rarefactions in 0.6 seconds then the frequency of sound
wave is
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 100 Hz
(C) 200 Hz
(D) 300 Hz
(E) none
23.
A body of mass 2kg is dropped from a height of 1m. Its kinetic as it reaches the ground is
(A) 19.6 J
(B) 19.6 N
(C) 19.6 kg
(D) 19.6 m
(E) none
24.
The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies of the sound waves produced by it in water and air
will
(A) be the same as that of the source
(B) depend upon the velocity of the waves in these media
(C) depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these media
(D) depend upon the density f the media
(E) None
25.
If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new momentum will be
(A) three times its initial value
(B) four times its initial value
(C) twice its initial value
(D) unchanged
(E) Can’t say
SAT - II SUBJECT TEST
CHEMISTRY SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX
PART - A
Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered formulas or statements immediately
following it. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each formula or statement; then fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet. In each set, a choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A choice may be
used once, more than once or not at all in each set.
Directions:
Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, you can assume that the system is in water
unless otherwise stated.
The actual paper contains 20 to 25 questions.
Questions 1 – 4
(A) Carbon Disulphide
(B) Protium
(C) Deuterium
(D) Brownian Motion
(E) Phosphorus
1.
Zig-Zag movement of small particles suspended in a liquid or gas.
2.
The heavy hydrogen isotope.
3.
Sulphur is soluble in the solvent.
4.
Substance with an atomicity 4.
Questions 5-8
(A) Iodine
(B) Naphthalene
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Graphite
(E) Humidity
5.
Organic compound which undergoes sublimation.
6.
Rate of evaporation is inversely proportional to it
7.
Non metal with very high melting point(3700°C)
8.
Non metal having lustrous appearance.
PART B
Directions: Each question below consists of two statements, statement I in the left hand column and statement
II in the right hand column. For each question determine whether statement I is true or false and whether
statement II is true or false. Then, fill in the corresponding T or F ovals on your answer sheet. Fill in oval CE only
if statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.
The actual paper contains 15 questions. This section begins with no. 101
I
101. The majority of non metals exist
as gases at room temperature
BECAUSE
II
Non-metals have very low boiling
points
102. Diamond is a good conductor of
heat
BECAUSE
Diamond is a non metal.
103. A solution is considered a mixture
BECAUSE
Solution does not have a fixed
boiling point
104. Mass of 1-mole of atoms is
known as gram-atomic mass
BECAUSE
1-mole of atoms contains avogadro
number of atoms
105. Valency of sodium is 1
BECAUSE
Sodium gains one electron to achieve
inert gas configuration
PART C
Directions: Each of the incomplete statements or questions below in followed by five suggested completions
or answers. Select the one that is best for each case and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
The actual paper contains 40 to 50 questions. This section begins with the serial number after Part – A
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Bromine vapours are
(A) heavier than air
(C) nearly equal dense to air
(E) noble gas
(B) lighter than air
(D) equally dense to that of air
Rigid means
(A) unbending
(B) inflexible
(C) both (A) and (B)
(B) none of them
(E) can’t say
Solid to liquid change is called
(A) solidification
(B) melting
(C) boiling
(D) vapourization
(E) sublimation
Factors affecting evaporation are
(A) temperature
(B) surface area
(C) humidity
(D) all of them
(E) none
The total number of moles of O-atom in 16 gm of SO2 are
(A) 0.25 moles
(B) 0.33 moles
(C) 1 mole
(D) 0.5 moles
(E) 0.05 moles
Choose the wrong statement:
(A) 1 Mole means 6.02  1023 particles
(B) Molar mass is mass of one molecule
(C) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance
(D) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams
(E) Mole can be regarded as gram atom or gram molecule
Entire positive charge in an atom is concentrated in a small area at its centre called nucleus. This was
suggested by
(A) Thomson
(B) Rutherford
(C) Bohr
(D) Dalton
(E) Darwin
The number of proton in nitrogen atom is
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 14
(D) 10
(E) 9
The electron species are most stable
(A) 2, 8, 2
(B) 2, 8
(C) 2, 8, 1
(D) 2, 5
(E) 2, 8, 4
SAT - II SUBJECT TEST
BIOLOGY SAMPLE PAPER FOR OPEN MOCK SAT CLASS - IX
1.
How many chromosomes are present in the body of human being?
(A) 46
(B) 23 pair
(C) Millions
(D) 23 in no.
(E) None of these
2.
Desmosomes or tonofibrils are
(A) Sub cellular particles
(B) Another name of dictyosomes
(C) Developed from plasma lemma at the point of cell contact
(D) Pores present on cell wall
(E) none of these
3.
Meiosis takes place in
(A) Autosome
(C) Haploid chromosome
(E) All of the above
(B) Sex chromosome
(D) a and b both
Haploid chromosomes are found in
(A) Cell of cheeks
(C) Cell of hairs
(E) None of these
(B) Gametes of reproductive cells
(D) a and b both
Find odd one out
(A) Parenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(E) chlorenchyma
(B) Collenchyma
(D) Xylem
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following tissue is responsible for formation of the hard covering of seeds and nuts, and the
husk of coconut?
(A) Parenchyma
(B) Collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma
(D) Apical meristem
(E) Chlorenchyma
7.
Disease existing at or before birth is
(A) Congenital
(C) Non communicable
(E)Acquired
(B) Communicable
(D) None of these
8.
10% law of flow of energy in ecosystem was proposed by
(A) Lindeman
(B) Carl mobins
(C) Tansley
(D) Darwin
(E) Lamark
9.
The outermost zone of a biosphere reserve is
(A) Buffer zone
(C) Manipulation zone
(E) All of these
(B) Core zone
(D) Red zone
10.
Reservoir of Rabies is
(A) Cat
(C) Dog
(E) all of these
(B) Pigs
(D) Rabbits
11.
A patient is generally advised to specially consume more meat, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers
from
(A) Scurvy
(B) Kwashiorkor
(C) Rickets
(D) Anaemia
(E) All of these
12.
The vector of the malaria parasite is …………………..mosquito.
(A) female Aedes
(B) male Anopheles
(C) Female Anopheles
(D) Culex
(E) Male Aedes
13.
AIDS stands for
(A) Acquired Immuno Desturbity Syndrome
(B) Acquired Infection deficiency Symptoms
(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(D) Acute Immuno Desability Syndrome
(E) All of these
14.
BCG stands for
(A) Bacillus – cholerae- guarine
(B) Bacillus – calmette – guerine
(C) Bibrio – choleric – guarine
(D) None of these
(E) All of these
15.
The unwanted plants are known as
(A) Grasses
(C) Weeds
(E) herbs
(B) Shrubs
(D) seeds
Biochemical cycle with gaseous phase is
(A) Carbon
(C) Phosphorus
(E)calcium
(B) Sodium
(D) Magnesium
Burning of fossil fuels affects
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(C) Phosphorus cycle
(E)Sulphur Cycle
(B) Carbon cycle
(D) Water cycle
.
16.
17.
18.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in river water
(A) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
(B) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water
(C) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water
(D) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
(E) All of these
19.
Eukaryotic and multicellular body organism are not found in
(A) Monera
(B) Fungi
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia
(E) Cryptogameae
20.
Archaeopteryx shows the characters of
(A) reptiles and birds
(C) fishes and amphibia
(E) reptile and amphibia
(B) reptiles and mammals
(D) birds and mammals
The basic unit of classification is
(A) Variety
(C) Family
(E) Order
(B) Species
(D) Group
21.
22.
The correct sequence of Taxonomic categories is
(A) Division- Class- Family- Order- Genus- Species
(B) Division- Class- Order- Family- Genus- Species
(C) Phylum- Order- Class- Family- Genus- Species
(D) Class- Phylum- Order- Family- Species- Genus
(E) Class- Phylum- Order- Family- genus- kingdom
23
Which of the following is not an amphibian?
(A) Salamander
(C) Toad
(E) Icthyophis
(B) Frog
(D) Tortoise
Budding is a mode of asexual reproduction in
(A) Hydra and starfish
(C) Hydra and tapeworm
(E) Fishes and frog
(B) Hydra and sponges
(D) Sponges and starfish
Nephridia of earthworm are analogous to
(A) Trachae of insects
(C) Nematoblasts of hydra
(E) None of the above
(B) Gills of prawn
(D) Flame cells of tape worm
24.
25.
ANSWER KEYS
PHYSICS
1.
D
2.
B
3.
B
4
D
5.
A
6.
A
7.
C
8.
B
9
B
10.
B
11.
D
12.
D
13.
B
14
A
15.
B
16.
C
17.
D
18.
C
19.
A
20.
A
21.
D
22.
B
23.
A
24.
A
25.
C
CHEMISTRY
PART A
1.
D
2.
C
3.
A
4.
E
5.
B
6.
E
7.
D
8.
A
T, T, CE
104.
T, T
PART B
101.
T, T, CE
105.
T, F
102.
T, T
103.
PART C
9.
A
10.
C
11.
B
12.
D
13.
D
14.
B
15.
B
16.
B
17.
B
BIOLOGY
1.
C
2.
C
3.
B
4.
B
5.
D
6.
C
7.
A
8.
A
9.
C
10.
C
11.
B
12.
C
13.
C
14.
B
15.
C
16.
A
17.
B
18.
D
19.
A
20.
A
21.
B
22.
B
23.
D
24.
B
25
D
Disclaimer : This is only a sample paper. In the actual SAT II physics paper there will be a total of 75
questions.