EX0-117 2013 new itil foundation 2011 edition sample questions with... explanations

Transcription

EX0-117 2013 new itil foundation 2011 edition sample questions with fine
explanations
Number: EX0-117
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 3.0
EX0-117 2013 new itil foundation 2011 edition sample questions with fine explanations
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Process owner
Change manager
Service manager
Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A process practitioner is responsible for carrying out one or more process activities.
Service Transition 2011 Edition page 226.
QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service level management
IT operations management
Capacity management
Incident management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT operations management has two sub-functions that are unique and are generally organizationally
distinct. These are:
Facilities management; ...
IT operations control; This is generally staffed by shifts of operators which ensures that routine
operational tasks are carried out. IT operations control will also provide centralized monitoring and
control activities, usually using an operations bridge or network operations centre.
----------------IT operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events in the IT
infrastructure.
Service Operation 2011 Edition pages 38, 176.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Knowledge management is typically displayed within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom
(DIKW) structure.
QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service design: Design the processes
Service strategy: Develop the offerings
Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
Service operation: IT operations management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The service design processes are principally responsible for providing key information for the design of
new or changed service solutions.
Service Design 2011 Edition page 99.
QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Public frameworks and standards are attractive when compared with proprietary knowledge for the
following reasons:
Proprietary knowledge is deeply embedded in organizations and therefore difficult to adopt, replicate or
even transfer with the cooperation of th owners. Such knowledge is often in the the form of tacit
knowledge which is inextricable and poorly documented.
...
Service Strategy 2011 Edition page 19.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To identify patterns of business activity
To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
To secure funding to manage the provision of services
To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The purpose of the business relationship management process is two-fold:
....
Ensure high levels of customer satisfaction, indicating that the service provider is meeting the
customer's requirements.
...
QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?
A.
B.
C.
D.
People, process, partners, performance
Performance, process, products, plans
People, process, products, partners
People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The information security management system (ISMS) provides a basis for the development of a costeffective information security programme that supports the business objectives. It will involve the four P's
of people, process, products (technology) and partners (suppliers) to ensure high levels of security are
in place wherever it is appropriate.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Allows higher volumes of successful change
Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Customers continually seek to improve their business models and strategies. They want solutions that
break through performance barriers - and achieve higher quality of outcomes in business processes with
little or no increase in cost. such solutions are usually made available through innovative products and
services. If such solutions are not available within a customer's existing span of control, service contracts
or value network, they are compelled to look elsewhere.
Service providers should not take for granted their position and role within their customer's plans even
though they have advantage of being incumbents. The value of services from a customer's perspective
may change over time due to conditions, events and factors outside a providers control. A strategic view of
service management means a carefully considered approach to the relationships with customers and a
state of readiness in dealing with the uncertainties in the value that defines that relationship.
QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incident and financial management
Change and release and deployment management
Incident and event management
Knowledge and service level management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
ITIL defines a 'problem' as the underlying cause of one or more incidents.
Although incident and problem management are sperate processes, they are closely related and will
typically use the same tools, and may use similar categorization, impact and priority coding systems. This
will ensure effective communication when dealing with related incidents and problems.
Event management provides mechanisms for early detection of incidents.
Service Operations 2011 Edition pages 59, 97.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Change proposal
Change policy
Service request
Risk register
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Major changes that involve significant cost, risk or organizational impact will usually be initiated through the
service portfolio management process.
Before the new or changed service is chartered it is important that the change is reviewed for its potential
impact on the services, on shared resources, and on the change schedule.
Change proposals are submitted to change management before chartering new or changed services in
order to ensure that potential conflicts for resources or other issues are identified.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both of the above
Neither of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The incident model should include:
The steps that should be taken to handle the incident.
The chronological order these steps should be taken in, with any dependencies or co-processing
defined.
...
Service Operation 2011 Edition page 75.
QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Business processes are the primary source of demand for services. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
influence the demand patterns seen by the service providers. It is very important to study the customer's
business to identify, analyse and classify such patterns to provide sufficient basis for capacity
management.
QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Roles
Inputs and outputs
Functions
Metrics
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Process: A structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective. A process takes one or
more defined inputs and turns them into defined outputs.
The four key characteristics of a process are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Measurability
Specific results
Customers
Responsiveness to specific triggers
Function: A team or group of people and the tools or other resources they use to carry out one or more
processes or activities – for example, the service desk.
Passing the ITIL® Foundation Exam 2011 Edition - Van Haren Publishing - page 22.
QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service catalogue management
Demand management
Service transition
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The purpose of the service catalogue management process is to provide and maintain a single source of
consistent information on all operational services and those being prepared to be run operationally, and to
ensure that it is widely available to those who are authorized to access it.
QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
expected of them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
Perform an activity
Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
Manage an activity
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
RACI is an acronym for the four main roles of being:
Responsible: The person or people responsible for correct execution – for getting the job done.
Accountable: The person who has ownership of quality and the end result. Only one person can be
accountable for each task.
Consulted: The people who are consulted and whose opinions are sought. They have involvement
through input of knowledge and information.
Informed: The people who are kept up to date on progress. They receive information about process
execution and quality.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A.
B.
C.
D.
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The key activities within the SLM process should include:
Determining, negotiating, documenting and agreeing requirements for new or changed services in
SLRs, and managing and reviewing them through the service lifecycle into SLAs for operational
services.
Monitoring and measuring service performance achievements of all operational services against targets
within SLAs.
Producing service reports.
Conducting service reviews, identifying improvement opportunities for inclusion in CSI register, and
managing appropriate SIPs.
Collating, measuring and improving customer satisfaction, in cooperation with business relationship
management.
...
QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Components
Processes
The end-to-end service
Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Technology metrics: These metrics are often associated with component and application-based metrics
such as performance, availability etc.
Continual Service Improvement 2011 Edition page 91.
QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacity management
Incident management
Financial management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Capacity management is an extremely technical, complex and demanding process, and in order to achieve
results, it requires three supporting sub-processes:
Business capacity management.
Service capacity management.
Component capacity management.
QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service Design provides guidance for the design and development of services and service management
practices, including design principles and methods for converting strategic objectives into portfolios of
services and service assets.
The scope of Service Design is not limited to new services, but includes the changes and improvements
necessary to increase or maintain value to customers over the lifecycle of services, the continuity of
services, achievement of service levels, conformance to standards and regulations, and guidance on how
to develop design capabilities for service management.
QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Outcome
Incident
Change
Problem
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Outcome: The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service etc. The
term is used to refer to intended results as well as to actual results.
ITIL 2011 English Glossary v1.0 page 52.
QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Change management
Service portfolio management
Supplier management
Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The main objectives of the supplier management process are to:
Obtain value for money from suppliers and contracts.
Ensure that contracts with suppliers are aligned to business needs, and support and align with agreed
targets in SLRs and SLAs, in conjunction with SLM.
Manage relationships with suppliers.
...
QUESTION 22
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A.
B.
C.
D.
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are many wats of structuring service desks and locating them - and the correct solution will vary for
different organizations.
The primary options are:
Local service desk.
Centralized service desk.
Virtual Service desk.
Follow the sun.
Specialized service desk groups.
Service Operation 2011 Edition pages 158 to 162.
QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Informational, scheduled, normal
Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
Informational, warning, exception
Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Every organization will have its own categorization of the significance of an event, but it is suggested that
at least these three broad categories be represented:
Informational.
Warning.
Exception.
QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Employers
Stakeholders
Regulators
Accreditors
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Stakeholder: A person who has an interest in an organization, project, IT service etc. Stakeholders may
be interested in the activities, targets, resources or deliverables. Stakeholders may include customers,
partners, employees, shareholders, owners etc.
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The objectives of the incident management process are to:
Ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt response,
analysis, documentation, ongoing management and reporting of incidents.
Increase visibility and communication of incidents to business and IT support staff.
Enhance business perception of IT through use of professional approach in quickly resolving and
communicating incidents when they occur.
Align incident management activities and priorities with those of the business.
Maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services.
QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Technical management
Emergency change advisory board
Urgent change board
Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
emergency change advisory board (ECAB): A subgroup of the change advisory board that makes
decisions about emergency changes. Membership may be decided at the time a meeting is called, and
depends on the nature of the emergency change.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
To provide training and certification in project management
To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Training and certification in project management?! Seriously?? :)
QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 only
All of the above
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The scope of service portfolio management is all services a service provider plans to deliver, those
currently delivered and those that have been withdrawn from service.
QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Incident: An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service. Failure of a
configuration item that has not yet affected service is also an incident – for example, failure of one disk
from a mirror set.
QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the
momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 only
1 only
Neither of the above
Both of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
As soon as the diagnosis is complete, and particularly where a workaround has been found (even though it
may not yet be a permanent resolution), a known error record must be raised and placed in the KEDB so
that if further incidents or problems arise, they can be identified and the service restored more quickly. In
some cases it may be advantageous to raise a known error record even earlier in the overall process,
even though the diagnosis may not be complete or a workaround found. This might be used for information
purposes or to identify a root cause or workaround that appears to address the problem but hasn’t been
fully confirmed. Therefore, it is inadvisable to set a concrete procedural point for exactly when a known
error record must be raised. It should be done as soon as it becomes useful to do so!
QUESTION 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The change authorization board
The change advisory board
The change implementer
The change manager
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Change advisory board (CAB): A group of people that support the assessment, prioritization,
authorization and scheduling of changes. A change advisory board is usually made up of representatives
from:
All areas within the IT service provider.
The business.
And third parties such as suppliers.
QUESTION 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Change management
Availability management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service level management (SLM): The process responsible for negotiating achievable service level
agreements and ensuring that these are met. It is responsible for ensuring that all IT service management
processes, operational level agreements and underpinning contracts are appropriate for the agreed
service level targets. Service level management monitors and reports on service levels, holds regular
service reviews with customers, and identifies required improvements.
QUESTION 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The value of a service
Governance
Total cost of ownership (TCO)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Financial management provides the business and IT with quantification, in in financial terms, of the value
of IT services, the value of the assets used to provide those serviecs, and the qualification of operational
forecasting, Talking about IT in terms of services is a crucial aspect of changing the perception of IT and its
value to the business.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Access: Refers to the level and extent of a service's functionality or data that a user is entitled to use.
Identify: Refers to the information about them that distinguishes them as an individual and which verifies
their status within the organization. By definition, the identity of a user is unique to that user.
Rights: (Also called privileges) refer to the actual settings whereby a user is provided access to a service
or group of services. Typical rights, or levels of access, include read, write, execute, change, delete.
Services or service groups: Most users do not use only one service, and users performing a similar set
of activities will use a similar set of services. Instead of providing access to each service for each user
separately, it is more efficient to be able to grant each user - or group of users - access to the whole set of
services that they are entitled to use at the same time.
Directory services: Refer to specific types of tools that are used to manage access and rights.
QUESTION 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Asset: Any resource or capability.
Customer asset: Any resource or capability used by a customer to achieve a business outcome.
Service asset: Any resource or capability used by a service provider to deliver services to a customer.
QUESTION 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Measurement, methods and metrics
Service design package
Service portfolio design
Process definitions
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A service is defined by a service design package (SPD), which is produced under the control of the service
design coordination process.
QUESTION 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Applications
Infrastructure
Value
Resources
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service: A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes customers want to achieve
without the ownership of specific costs and risks. The term ‘service’ is sometimes used as a synonym for
core service, IT service or service package.
QUESTION 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service asset and configuration management
Change management
Information security management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Information security management (ISM): The process responsible for ensuring that the confidentiality,
integrity and availability of an organization’s assets, information, data and IT services match the agreed
needs of the business. Information security management supports business security and has a wider
scope than that of the IT service provider, and includes handling of paper, building access, phone calls etc.
for the entire organization. See also security management information system.
QUESTION 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
IT services and components
IT services and business processes
Components and business processes
IT services, components and business processes
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Availability management (AM): The process responsible for ensuring that IT services meet the current
and future availability needs of the business in a cost-effective and timely manner. Availability
management defines, analyses, plans, measures and improves all aspects of the availability of IT services,
and ensures that all IT infrastructures, processes, tools, roles etc. are appropriate for the agreed service
level targets for availability.
QUESTION 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Configuration baseline
Project baseline
Change baseline
Asset baseline
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A configuration baseline is the configuration of a service, product or infrastructure that has been formally
reviewed and agreed, which thereafter serves as the basis for further activities and can be changed only
through formal change procedures.
QUESTION 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
To detect security events and make sense of them
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Access management: The process responsible for allowing users to make use of IT services, data or
other assets. Access management helps to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of assets by
ensuring that only authorized users are able to access or modify them. Access management implements
the policies of information security management and is sometimes referred to as rights management or
identity management.
QUESTION 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The following list defines the key characteristics of ITIL that contribute to its global success:
Vendor-neutral:
Applicable in any IT organization as it is not based on any particular technology platform or industry
type.
Owned by the UK government and is not tied to any commercial proprietary practice or solution.
Non-prescriptive:
Offers robust, mature and time-tested practices with applicability to all types of service organization.
Continues to be useful and relevant in public/private sectors, internal/external service providers,
small, medium, large enterprises, any technical environment.
Best practice:
Represents the world's best-in-class service providers learning experiences and thought leadership.
QUESTION 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Deming Cycle
The continual service improvement approach
The seven-step improvement process
The service lifecycle
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
W. Edwards Deming proposed the Deming Cycle for quality improvement which is very applicable in CSI.
The four stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act, followed by a consolidation phase to prevent
rolling backwards.
QUESTION 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service strategy
Service design
Service transition
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
ITSM must be carried out effectively and efficiently. Managing IT from the business perspective enables
organizational high performance and value creation.
QUESTION 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Request fulfilment
Demand management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Request fulfilment is the process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all service requests from the
users.
QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes partners' in the phrase people, processes, products and partners"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
Customers
Internal departments
The facilities management function
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Many designs, plans and projects fail from lack of preparation and management; ITSM implementation
requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of the four Ps: the people, the processes,
the products (services, technology and tools) and partners (suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).
QUESTION 48
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The service level management
The IT service continuity management
The service catalogue management
The supplier management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Supplier Management Process – Scope
Implementation and enforcement of the supplier policy
Maintenance of an SCMIS
Supplier and contract categorization and risk assessment
Supplier and contract evaluation and selection
Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
Contract review, renewal and termination
Management of suppliers and supplier performance
Identification of improvement opportunities for inclusion in the CSI register, and the implementation of
service and supplier improvement plans
Maintenance of standard contracts, terms and conditions
Management of contractual dispute resolution
Management of sub-contracted suppliers
QUESTION 49
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding
within knowledge management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data
Information
Knowledge
Governance
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Knowledge Management is typically displayed within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom
(DIKW) structure.
Data – discrete facts about Events
Information – comes from providing context to data
Knowledge – tacit experiences, ideas, insights, values, and judgments of individuals
Wisdom – the ultimate discernment of the material
QUESTION 50
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A service option
A service transition package (STP)
A service design package (SDP)
A service charter
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service design package (SDP) - Document(s) defining all aspects of an IT service and its requirements
through each stage of its lifecycle. A service design package is produced for each new IT service, major
change or IT service retirement.
QUESTION 51
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The contents of a basic underpinning contract or service agreement are:
Basic terms and conditions: the term (duration) of the contract, the parties, locations, scope,
definitions and commercial basis.
Service description and scope: the functionality of the services being provided and its extent, along
with constraints on the service delivery, such as performance, availability, capacity, technical interface
and security. Service functionality may be explicitly defined, or in the case of well-established services,
included by reference to other established documents, such as the service portfolio and the service
catalogue.
Service standards: the service measures and the minimum levels that constitute acceptable
performance and quality – for example, IT may have a performance requirement to respond to a
request for a new desktop system in 24 hours, with acceptable service deemed to have occurred where
this performance requirement is met in 95% of cases. Service levels must be realistic, measurable and
aligned to the organization’s business priorities and underpin the agreed targets within SLRs and SLAs.
Workload ranges: the volume ranges within which service standards apply, or for which particular
pricing regimes apply.
Management information: the data that must be reported by the supplier on operational performance
– take care to ensure that management information is focused on the most important or headline
reporting measures on which the relationship will be assessed. KPIs related to supplier CSFs and
balanced scorecards may form the core of reported performance data.
Responsibilities and dependencies: description of the obligations of the organization (in supporting
the supplier in the service delivery efforts) and of the supplier (in its provision of the service), including
communication, contacts and escalation.
QUESTION 52
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service transition includes the following processes:
Transition planning and support.
Change management.
Service asset and configuration management.
Release and deployment management.
Service validation and testing.
Change evaluation, and knowledge management.
QUESTION 53
Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduced total cost of ownership
Improved quality of service
Improved Service alignment with business goals
Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Adopting and implementing standard and consistent approaches of a service design will:
Reduce total cost of ownership (TCO).
Improve quality of service.
Improve consistency of service.
Ease implementation of new or changed services.
Improve service alignment.
Improve service performance.
...
QUESTION 54
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have
replaced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacity management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service portfolio management evaluates the value of services throughout their lifecycles, and must be able
to compare what newer services have offered over the retired services they have replaced.
QUESTION 55
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job descriptions
Functions
Teams
Roles, people or groups
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Change advisory board (CAB): A group of people that support the assessment, prioritization,
authorization and scheduling of changes. A change advisory board is usually made up of representatives
from: all areas within the IT service provider; the business; and third parties such as suppliers.
The change manager normally chairs the CAB; potential members include:
Customer(s)
User manager(s)
...
A CAB is often the change authority for one or more change categories...
QUESTION 56
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Hierarchic escalation: Informing or involving more senior levels of management to assist in an escalation.
QUESTION 57
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service desk
Application management
Facilities management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Facilities management refers to the management of the physical IT environment, typically a data center
or computer rooms and recovery sites together with all the power and cooling equipment.
QUESTION 58
Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an
organizational structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
RACI model
Incident model
Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
The Deming Cycle
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
RACI models help define roles and responsibilities in processes and activities and identify who will take on
each role.
QUESTION 59
Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Problem management - Scope
Conducting periodic scheduled reviews of operational logs and maintenance records and event logs
targeting patterns and trends of warning and exception events.
Conducting brainstorming sessions to identify trends indicating underlying problems.
QUESTION 60
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One which directly supports the business processes of customers
A service that cannot be allowed to fail
One which is not covered by a service level agreement
A service not directly used by the business
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A customer-facing IT service directly supports business processes of one or more customers and its
service level targets should be defined in an SLA.
QUESTION 61
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating
together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service management: A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services.
QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Problem Management Process – objectives
Prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening
Eliminate recurring incidents
Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
QUESTION 63
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service Catalogue Management Process – Objectives
Manage the information contained within the service catalogue.
Ensure that the service catalogue is accurate and reflects the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all services that are being run, or being prepared to run, in the live environment,
according to the defined policies.
Ensure the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it in a way that supports
their effective and efficient use of service catalogue information.
Ensure the service catalogue supports evolving needs of other service management processes for
service catalogue information, including interfaces and dependencies.
QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets
and service components
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Release and deployment management: The process responsible for planning, scheduling and controlling
the build, test and deployment of releases, and for delivering new functionality required by the business
while protecting the integrity of existing services.
QUESTION 65
Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the
continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Implementing service and process improvements
Reviewing measurements and metrics
Creating a baseline
Defining measurable targets
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
We need a plan and action to get from where we are to where we want to be, and a way of knowing we
have arrived; this is accomplished by measurement and metrics against the baseline.
QUESTION 66
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Definitive media library (DML)
Configuration management system (CMS)
Statement of requirements (SOR)
Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Configuration management system (CMS): A set of tools, data and information that is used to support
service asset and configuration management. The CMS is part of an overall service knowledge
management system and includes tools for collecting, storing, managing, updating, analysing and
presenting data about all configuration items and their relationships. The CMS may also include
information about incidents, problems, known errors, changes and releases. The CMS is maintained
by service asset and configuration management and is used by all IT service management processes.
QUESTION 67
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions
would be BEST to manage risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
Training of all staff and investment of capital
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Identifying the risks – involves naming the risk. When first identifying the risk it is not necessary to try to
explain or quantify the risk, but just to get as many ideas as possible about what might threaten the
success of a project or strategy. Each identified or suspected risk should be documented together with its
potential consequences.
Analysing the risks – quantifying the impact and probability of the risk. The impact is the effect on a
strategy or project (and its customers) should the risk become reality. Most risk management approaches
use both qualitative and quantitative descriptions of these areas.
Managing risks – once risks have been assessed and documented, together with their action plans, the
risk management plan must be reviewed regularly to ensure appropriate actions have been taken and are
working as expected. Any of the risks may change status throughout the project. These changes must be
monitored and built into the normal project control mechanisms – e.g. every project meeting should include
a review of the risk management plan and the assessment of any new risks.
QUESTION 68
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standards
Technology
Academic research
Internal experience
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People,
Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit
Preparation
Products
Potential
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The information security management system (ISMS) provides a basis for the development of a costeffective information security programme that supports the business objectives. It will involve the four P's
of people, process, products (technology) and partners (suppliers) to ensure high levels of security are
in place wherever it is appropriate.
QUESTION 70
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
The design of new or changed services
The design of market spaces
The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
You can see from the opposite page that service design is a bit of a misnomer. Yes, the scope of service
design includes services – adding them, changing them. But it also includes the design of things that are
not services per se, but underpin services and service management:
The design of the service portfolio.
Technology and management architecture design.
The design of processes.
The design of measurement methods and metrics.
As you can see, the last four things mentioned above are not services; it is important to remember is that
they are in-scope for service design (hence the misnomer) and taken together with service design, they
are called the five major aspects of service design in ITIL.
QUESTION 71
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A service level agreement (SLA)
A request for change (RFC)
The service portfolio
A service description
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service level agreement (SLA): An agreement between an IT service provider and a customer. A service
level agreement describes the IT service, documents service level targets, and specifies the
responsibilities of the IT service provider and the customer. A single agreement may cover multiple IT
services or multiple customers.
QUESTION 72
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customer's successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service Strategy’s Value to the business
Selecting and adopting the best practice as recommended in the service strategy publication will assist
organizations in delivering significant benefits. Adopting and implementing standard and consistent
approaches for service strategy will:
Support the ability to link activities performed by the service provider to outcomes that are critical to
internal or external customers.
Enable the service provider to have a clear understanding of what types and levels of service will make
its customers successful and then organize itself optimally to deliver and support those services.
Enable the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment,
ensuring increased competitive advantage over time.
Support the creation and maintenance of a portfolio of quantified services that will enable the business
to achieve positive return on its investment in services.
Facilitate functional and transparent communication between the customer and the service provider, so
that both have a consistent understanding of what is required and how it will be delivered.
Provide the means for the service provider to organize itself so that it can provide services in an
efficient and effective manner.
QUESTION 73
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Informational, scheduled, normal
Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
Informational, warning, exception
Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are many different types of events, such informational events, warning events and exception events.
QUESTION 74
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
A.
B.
C.
D.
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Process Owner – Responsibilities
Sponsoring, designing and change managing the process and its metrics.
Defining the process strategy.
Assisting with process design.
Ensuring that appropriate process documentation is available and current.
Defining appropriate policies and standards to be employed throughout the process.
Periodically auditing the process to ensure compliance to policy and standards.
Periodically reviewing the process strategy to ensure that it is still appropriate and change as required.
Communicating process information or changes as appropriate to ensure awareness.
Providing process resources to support activities required throughout the service lifecycle.
Ensuring that process technicians have the required knowledge and the required technical and
business understanding to deliver the process, and understand their role in the process.
Reviewing opportunities for process enhancements and for improving the efficiency and effectiveness
of the process.
Addressing issues with the running of the process.
Identifying improvement opportunities for inclusion in the CSI register.
Working with the CSI manager and process manager to review and prioritize improvements in the CSI
register.
Making improvements to the process.
QUESTION 75
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacity management
Governance
Service design
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Governance: Ensures that policies and strategy are actually implemented, and that required processes
are correctly followed. Governance includes defining roles and responsibilities, measuring and reporting,
and taking actions to resolve any issues identified.
QUESTION 76
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
A.
B.
C.
D.
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Measurement systems, methods and metrics for the services, the architectures, their constituent
components and the processes.
QUESTION 77
Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT service management (ITSM): The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet the
needs of the business. IT service management is performed by IT service providers through an
appropriate mix of people, process and information technology.
QUESTION 78
Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Transition Planning and Support Process – Scope
Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities, processes
Guiding each major change or new service through all service transition processes
Coordinating efforts to enable multiple transitions to be managed at the same time
Prioritizing conflicting requirements for service transition resources
Planning budget and resources to fulfill future requirements for service transition
Reviewing and improving performance of transition planning and support activities
Ensuring that service transition is coordinated with program and project management, service design
and service development activities
QUESTION 79
What are underpinning contracts used to document?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider
The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer
Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
underpinning contract (UC): A contract between an IT service provider and a third party. The third party
provides goods or services that support delivery of an IT service to a
customer. The underpinning contract defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed
service level targets in one or more service level agreements.
QUESTION 80
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
SLAM chart: A service level agreement monitoring chart is used to help monitor and report achievements
against service level targets. A SLAM chart is typically colour-coded to show whether each agreed service
level target has been met, missed or nearly missed during each of the previous 12 months.
QUESTION 81
Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented standard?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The IT director
The process owner
The service owner
The customer
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Process owner: The person who is held accountable for ensuring that a process is fit for purpose. The
process owner’s responsibilities include sponsorship, design, change management and continual
improvement of the process and its metrics. This role can be assigned to the same person who carries out
the process manager role, but the two roles may be separate in larger organizations.
QUESTION 82
Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Knowledge management
Release and deployment management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Release and deployment management: The process responsible for planning, scheduling and controlling
the build, test and deployment of releases, and for delivering new functionality required by the business
while protecting the integrity of existing services.
QUESTION 83
Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Business Relationship Management Process – Purpose
Establish and maintain a business relationship between the service provider and the customer based
on understanding the customer and its business needs
Identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs as business
needs change over time and between circumstances
QUESTION 84
Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)
The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider
All incidents reported to the service desk
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Outcome: The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service etc. The
term is used to refer to intended results as well as to actual results.
QUESTION 85
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the
Service Lifecycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service Strategy
Continual Service Improvement
Service Operation
Service Design
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The seven-step improvement process – Objectives
...
...
Understanding what to measure, why it is being measured and carefully defining the successful
outcome.
QUESTION 86
Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service
designs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacity management
Design coordination
Release management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Design Coordination Process – Scope
...
...
...
Ensuring that all requirements are appropriately addressed in service designs, particularly utility and
warranty requirements
QUESTION 87
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Employers
Stakeholders
Regulators
Accreditors
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after? 1.What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the return on investment (ROI)?
How much did it cost?
How do we keep the momentum going?
What is the value on investment (VOI)?
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Emergency change advisory board (ECAB): A subgroup of the change advisory board that makes
decisions about emergency changes. Membership may be decided at the time a meeting is called, and
depends on the nature of the emergency change.
QUESTION 90
Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An issue reported by a user
The cause of two or more incidents
A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
The cause of one or more incidents
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Problem: A cause of one or more incidents. The cause is not usually known at the time a problem record
is created, and the problem management process is responsible for further investigation.
QUESTION 91
Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internal
External
Service desk
Shared services unit
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
THREE main types of service providers: internal, shared, external
QUESTION 92
Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incidents can only be reported by users
Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service
All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents
Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Incident Management Process – Scope
Scope includes any event which disrupts, or which could disrupt, a service, such as events communicated
directly by users, either through the service desk or through an interface from event management to
incident management tools. Incidents can also be reported and/or logged by technical staff, for example if
they notice something untoward with a hardware or network CI staff may report or log an incident and refer
it to the service desk. This does not mean that all events are incidents; many event classes are not related
to disruptions, but are indicators of normal operation or informational.
Although both incidents and service requests are reported to the service desk, they are not the same.
Service requests do not represent a disruption to agreed service, but are a way of meeting the customer’s
needs and may be addressing an agreed target in an SLA. Service requests are dealt with by the request
fulfillment process.
QUESTION 93
Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incident management
Access management
Change management
Request fulfilment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Access Management Process – Objectives
Manage access to services based on policies and actions defined in information security management.
Efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services, changing access rights or restricting
access, ensuring the rights provided or changed are properly granted.
Oversee access to services and ensure rights being provided are not improperly used.
QUESTION 94
What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to
deliver customer facing services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Business services
Component services
Supporting services
Customer services
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT service: A service provided by an IT service provider made up of information technology, people and
processes. A customer-facing IT service directly supports business processes of one or more customers
and its service level targets should be defined in an SLA; other IT services (supporting services) are
not directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customerfacing services.
QUESTION 95
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design
A.
B.
C.
D.
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
As many as necessary to complete the activity
Only one - the process owner
Two - the process owner and the process enactor
Only one - the process architect
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Applying RACI to a process; only one person should hold end-to-end accountability for the process,
typically the process owner. Similarly, there is only one person accountable for any individual activity,
although several people may be responsible for executing parts of it.
QUESTION 97
The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component
and its associated documentation is a definition of what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A change
A change model
A change request
A change advisory board
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Change: The addition, modification or removal of anything that could have an effect on IT services. The
scope should include changes to all architectures, processes, tools, metrics and documentation, as well as
changes to IT services and other configuration items.
QUESTION 98
Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behaviour
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels
A.
B.
C.
D.
The forward schedule of change
The service portfolio
A configuration management database (CMDB)
The service knowledge management system (SKMS)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service knowledge management system (SKMS): A set of tools and databases that is used to manage
knowledge, information and data. The service knowledge management system includes the
configuration management system, as well as other databases and information systems. The service
knowledge management system includes tools for collecting, storing, managing, updating, analyzing and
presenting all the knowledge, information and data that an IT service provider will need to manage the full
lifecycle of IT services.
QUESTION 99
Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Standard change: A pre-authorized change that is low risk, relatively common and follows a procedure or
work instruction – for example, a password reset or provision of
standard equipment to a new employee. Requests for change are not required to implement a standard
change, and they are logged and tracked using a different mechanism, such as a service request.
QUESTION 100
Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of
the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access
management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service operation process:
Event management.
Incident management.
Request fulfilment.
Problem management.
Access management.
QUESTION 101
With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Incident management
Capacity management
IT service continuity management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
An effective way of calculating impact and urgency and other elements and deriving
an overall priority level for each incident is given in SO Table 4.1.
QUESTION 102
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
Reports should be produced weekly
Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service reporting: Activities that produce and deliver reports of achievement and trends against service
levels. The format, content and frequency of reports should be agreed with customers.
QUESTION 103
Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functions
Maturity and cost
The end-to-end service
Infrastructure availability
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service metrics – these metrics are the results of the end-to-end service. Component metrics are used to
compute the service metrics.
QUESTION 104
Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To prevent problems and resultant incidents
To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
To restore service to a user
To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Problem Management Process – purpose
Manage the lifecycle of all problems from first identification through further investigation, documentation
and eventual removal.
Minimize the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business that are caused by underlying
errors within the IT Infrastructure, and to proactively prevent recurrence of incidents related to these
errors.
Problem Management Process – objectives
Prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening.
Eliminate recurring incidents.
Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented.
QUESTION 105
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Demand management
Incident management
Release and deployment management
Request fulfilment
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The term ‘service request’ is used as a generic description for many different types of demands that are
placed upon the IT organization by the users. Many of these are typically requests for small changes that
are low risk, frequently performed, low cost etc.
Their scale and frequent, low-risk nature means that they are better handled by a separate process, rather
than being allowed to congest and obstruct the normal incident and change management processes.
Effective request fulfillment has a very important role in maintaining end user satisfaction with the services
they are receiving and can directly impact how well IT is perceived throughout the business.
QUESTION 106
Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
IT operations management
Request fulfilment
Applications management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT operations control oversees execution and monitoring of operational activities and events in the IT
infrastructure with the help of an operations bridge or network operations center.
QUESTION 107
Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service desk function – Objective
The primary aim of the service desk is to provide a single point of contact between
the services being provided and the users. Specific responsibilities will include:
Logging all incident/service request details, allocating category and priority codes
Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
Resolving incidents/service requests when first contacted whenever possible
Escalating incidents/service requests they cannot resolve within agreed timescales
Keeping users informed of progress
Closing all resolved incidents, requests and other calls
Conducting customer/user satisfaction call-backs/surveys as agreed
Communication with users – keeping them informed of incident progress, notifying them of impending
changes or agreed outages etc.
Updating the CMS under the direction and approval of service asset and configuration management if
so agreed
QUESTION 108
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Objectives
Review, analyze, prioritize and make recommendations on improvement opportunities in each lifecycle
stage: service strategy, service design, service transition, service operation and CSI itself.
Review and analyze service level achievement Identify and implement specific activities to improve IT
service quality and improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the enabling processes.
Improve service delivery cost effectiveness, maintain customer satisfaction.
Ensure applicable quality management methods are used to support continual improvement activities.
Ensure that processes have clearly defined objectives and measurements that lead to actionable
improvements.
Understand what to measure, why it is being measured and what the successful outcome should be.
QUESTION 109
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Do
Perform
Implement
Measure
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
W. Edwards Deming proposed the Deming Cycle for quality improvement which is very applicable in CSI.
The four stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act, followed by a consolidation phase to prevent
rolling backwards. PDCA sets a clear pattern for CSI efforts:
Plan – establish goals for improvement.
Do – develop and implement a project to close the gap.
Check – compare the implemented environment to the measures of success established in the Plan
phase.
Act – determine if further work is required to close remaining gaps, allocation of resources necessary to
support another round of improvement.
QUESTION 110
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service
improvement (CSI)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
Strategic, tactical and operational
Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
Technology, process and service
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Three Types of Metrics to Collect to Support CSI Activies
1. Technology metrics – often associated with component and application-based metrics
2. Process metrics – captured in the form of CSFs, KPIs and activity metrics for the service management
processes. These metrics can help determine the overall health of a process. Four key questions that
KPIs can help answer are around quality, performance, value and compliance of following the process.
CSI would use these metrics as input in identifying improvement opportunities for each process.
3. Service metrics – these metrics are the results of the end-to-end service. Component metrics are used
to compute the service metrics.
QUESTION 111
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 112
From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their
service targets known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
User
Customer
Supplier
Administrator
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Customer: Someone who buys goods or services. The customer of an IT service provider is the person or
group who defines and agrees the service level targets. The term is also sometimes used informally to
mean user – for example, ‘This isa customer-focused organization.’
QUESTION 113
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request fulfilment
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service desk
D. IT finance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Request fulfilment: The process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all service requests.
QUESTION 114
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service management: A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in
the form of services.
QUESTION 115
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Knowledge
Information
Wisdom
Data
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
It is well understood that no computer-based technology can provide wisdom. It requires people to provide
evaluated understanding, to answer and appreciate the ‘Why?’ questions.
QUESTION 116
Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
To create and populate a service catalogue
To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service level agreement (SLA): An agreement between an IT service provider and a customer. A service
level agreement describes the IT service, documents service level targets, and specifies the
responsibilities of the IT service provider and the customer. A single agreement may cover multiple IT
services or multiple customers.
QUESTION 117
Which one of the following activities does application management perform?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Application management function – ROLE
Custodian of technical knowledge and expertise related to managing applications; ensures that the
knowledge required to design, test, manage and improve IT services is identified, developed and
refined.
Provides the actual resources to support the service lifecycle; ensures that resources are effectively
trained and deployed to design, build, transition, operate and improve the technology required to deliver
and support IT services.
QUESTION 118
What is a RACI model used for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Performance analysis
Recording configuration items
Monitoring services
Defining roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
RACI models help define roles and responsibilities in processes and activities and identify who will take on
each role.
QUESTION 119
The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Before the change is approved
Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
After implementation but before the post implementation review
After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
No change should be approved without explicitly addressing what to do if it fails.
QUESTION 120
Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only changes that introduce new services
It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity
Only changes to business critical systems
Any change that the organization believes could benefit
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The main value of the design coordination process to the business is the production of a set of consistent
quality solution designs and SDPs that will provide the desired business outcomes.
Through the work of design coordination organizations can:
Achieve the intended business value of services through design at acceptable risk and cost levels.
...
QUESTION 121
What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service desk
Business relationship management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The business relationship management function’s primary role is to act as a translator for the business, to
translate the value of a proposed or current service or change or problem resolution or opportunity found in
a technology trend for the customer.
QUESTION 122
Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood
B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management
system (CMS)
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Change Management Process – Objectives
Respond to the customer’s changing business requirements while maximizing value and reducing
incidents, disruption and re-work.
Respond to the business and IT requests for change that will align the services with the business
needs.
Ensure changes are recorded and evaluated, and authorized changes are prioritized, planned, tested,
implemented, documented and reviewed in a controlled manner.
Ensure that all changes to configuration items are recorded in the configuration management system.
Optimize overall business risk – it is often correct to minimize business risk, but sometimes appropriate
to knowingly accept a risk because of the potential benefit.
QUESTION 123
What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Strategic customers
External customers
Valued customers
Internal customers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Customer: Someone who buys goods or services. The customer of an IT service provider is the person or
group who defines and agrees the service level targets.
Internal customer: A customer who works for the same business as the IT service provider.
External customer: A customer who works for a different business from the IT service provider.
QUESTION 124
Access management is closely related to which other process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Capacity management only
3rd line support
Information security management
Change management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Access Management Process – Purpose
Provide the right for users to be able to use a service or group of services.
The execution of policies and actions defined in information security management.
QUESTION 125
In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management,
information security management, and supplier management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service strategy
Service design
Service transition
Service operation
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service design processes:
Design coordination.
Service catalogue management.
Service level management.
Availability management.
Capacity management.
IT service continuity management (ITSCM).
Information security management.
Supplier management.
QUESTION 126
Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities
To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Incident categorization
Allocate a categorization code so the exact incident type is recorded
Used later to analyze incident types/frequencies for trends for use in problem, supplier management,
etc.
Incident categorization may change throughout the lifecycle of an incident. For example, upon
discovery and logging of the incident, initial categories may reflect symptoms (e.g. ‘service unavailable’
or ‘performance slow’). Upon later analysis, categories may reflect the actual CIs at fault such as
‘server’ or ‘disk drive’.
QUESTION 127
A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has
been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
As soon as the diagnosis is complete, and particularly where a workaround has been found (even though it
may not yet be a permanent resolution), a known error record must be raised and placed in the KEDB so
that if further incidents or problems arise, they can be identified and the service restored more quickly. In
some cases it may be advantageous to raise a known error record even earlier in the overall process, even
though the diagnosis may not be complete or a workaround found.
QUESTION 128
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service Strategy’s Value to the business
Selecting and adopting the best practice as recommended in the service strategy publication will assist
organizations in delivering significant benefits. Adopting and implementing standard and consistent
approaches for service strategy will:
Support the ability to link activities performed by the service provider to outcomes that are critical to
internal or external customers.
Enable the service provider to have a clear understanding of what types and levels of service
will make its customers successful and then organize itself optimally to deliver and support
those services.
Enable the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business
environment, ensuring increased competitive advantage over time.
Support the creation and maintenance of a portfolio of quantified services that will enable the
business to achieve positive return on its investment in services.
Facilitate functional and transparent communication between the customer and the service provider, so
that both have a consistent understanding of what is required and how it will be delivered.
Provide the means for the service provider to organize itself so that it can provide services in an
efficient and effective manner.
QUESTION 129
Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1.Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Major problem review
After every major problem, conduct a lessons learned review examining:
Things done right and wrong
What to do better in the future
How to prevent recurrence
Whether there is any third-party responsibility and if follow-up actions are needed
QUESTION 130
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Describes the topography of the hardware
Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service asset and configuration management (SACM): The process responsible for ensuring that the
assets required to deliver services are properly controlled, and that accurate and reliable information about
those assets is available when and where it is needed. This information includes details of how the assets
have been configured and the relationships between assets.
management system.
QUESTION 131
Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
A.
B.
C.
D.
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Service management is more than just a set of capabilities. It is also a professional practice supported
by an extensive body of knowledge, experience and skills. A global community of individuals and
organizations in the public and private sectors fosters its growth and maturity. Formal schemes exist for the
education, training and certification of practicing organizations, and individuals influence its quality.
Industry best practices, academic research and formal standards contribute to and draw from its
intellectual capital.

EX0-117 2013 new itil foundation 2011 edition sample questions with... explanations

Transcription

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