SAMPLE PAPER FOR CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016

Transcription

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
SAMPLE PAPER FOR
CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016
DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND
TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 300
PART - I (GS) and PART - II (CSAT)
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does
not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages, etc. If so, request for its replacement.
You have to enter your seat number on the test booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the test booklet.
Seat/Roll numberThis test booklet contains 135 questions divided in two parts as shown below.
Part
No. of
Marks
Negative Marks
Questions
75
150
One third for each wrong answer
I
60
150
One third for each wrong answer Except for Question Nos. 133 to 135.
II
Each question is printed both in English and Hindi.
Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select the response which you want to
mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question.
You have to mark all your responses one by one ONLY on the separate OMR answer sheet provided.
Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the test booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheet as per instructions contained in your admit card.
After you have completed the marking of all your responses (by darkening the response circle
completely) on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the
invigilator only the OMR answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the test booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end.
Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT
FOR QUETIONS FROM 133 TO 135 WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG
ANSWER.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty, as above, to that
question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no penalty for
that question.
Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in
Note: Hindi version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this test booklet.
1
2
PART- I (GS)
1) Consider the Statements:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
1. Carbon Monoxide is not a persistent
Pollutant
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The greatest exposure to Carbon Monoxide
comes from Cigarette Smoking
4) Which of the following is/ are true?
1. Global warming is completely a human
induced phenomenon
Which Statement(s) is/are not correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) only 1
(c) only 2
(d) both are correct
2. Climate change is completely a human
induced phenomenon
a) only 1
b) only 2
2) Consider the following statements about
Arsenic Poisoning:
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
1. It is mainly due to Industrial Pollutants and
Timber treatment.
5) Which of the following is/are true?
1. „Algal blooms‟ are sudden Spurt of algal
growth, which make the water quality better.
2. It causes Skin problems Cancer of Bladder,
lungs, Kidney and diseases of blood vessels in
legs and feet.
2.‟ Aphytic zones‟ are under water floor areas
supporting plant and animal life.
3.It is mainly found in Southern Punjab in
India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
4. Digging deeper wells is one of the possible
solutions.
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statements are
correct?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4
1. „Ozone Hole‟ is the phenonmenon of
springtime decrease in Upper Tropospheric
ozone over Earth's polar regions
2. The „Vienna Convention‟ bans the
production of
ODS ( Ozone depleting
substance)
3) Which of the following is/are correct?
1. The incoming solar radiation is not the main
cause of warming up of the planet
2. All of the Infrared radiation from the earth is
absorbed and re – emitted by the GHG ( green
house gases) and is one of the main cause of
warming up of our planet.
3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 औय 2 दोनों
1)
ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों ऩय ववचाय कयें ।
1.
काफबन भोनॉक्साईड मह चियस्थामी प्रदष
ू क नही है ।
2.
धूम्रऩान की वजह से फहुत ज्मादा भात्रा भें काफबन
4)
इन वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौनसा वाक्म सही नही है ?
(b) ससपब 1
(c)
(d) दोनों वाक्म सही हैं।
ससपब 2
ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म
सही हैं?
भोनॉक्साईड फाहय ननकरता है ।
(a) 1 औय 2 दोनों
(d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही।
1.
ग्रोफर वॉसभिंग ऩयू ी तयह से भानव प्रेयीत घटना है ।
2.
वातावयण भें फदराव मह ऩूयी तयह से भानव प्रेयीत
घटना है ।
(a) ससपब 1
(b) ससपब 2
(c) 1 औय 2 दोनों (d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही।
2)
असेननक ववषाक्तता के सॊदबभ भें
ननम्नलरखित
वाक्मों ऩय ववचाय कयें ।
1.
मह
प्रभुख
रूऩ
से
5)
औद्मोचगक
प्रदष
ू क
औय
सही है ?
रकडीऩय ककए जानेवारी इराज की वजह से होता
2.
1.
"शैवार का खखरना" इसभे अिानक शैवार की
है ।
वध्
ु वत्ता को सध
ु ायता
ृ दी होती है , जो ऩानी की गण
इसके कायण त्विा के योग, भूत्राशम, पेपडे, भूत्रपऩॊड
है !
के कैन्सय तथा ऩैय औय ऩैयों की यक्त वाहहकाओॊ के
3.
2.
‘अॅवकपहटक ऺेत्र’ ऩानी के तर
के ननिरे ऺेत्र भें
योग होते हैं।
होते हैं जो वनस्ऩती औय प्राणीमों के जीवन की
बायत भें मह दक्षऺण ऩॊजाफ भें प्रभुख रूऩ से ऩामा
सहामता कयते हैं।
जाता है ।
4.
ज्मादा गहयें कुएॉ की खुदाई कयना मह एक सॊबाव्म
(a) ससपब 1
(b) ससपब 2
हर है ।
(d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही।
6)
इन वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौन से वाक्म सही हैं?
(a) 1, 2, 3 औय 4
(b)
1, 2 औय 3
(c) 2, 3 औय 4
(d)
1, 2 औय 4
3)
सही है ?
1.
ऋतू भें होनेवारी घट के कायण होनेवारी घटना है ।
ननम्नलरखित वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे
2.
अॊदय आनेवारे सौय पवककयण, ग्रह के गभी का
ऩथ्
ृ वी से ननकरने वारे सबी अवयक्त पवककयण
जी.एि ्.जी. (ग्रीन हाऊस गॅसेस) भें शोपषत औय ऩुनब
-उत्सजीत हो जाते हैं औय मही हभाये ग्रह के गभी
के प्रभुख कायणों भें से एक है ।
(a) ससपब 1
"व्व्हएन्ना असबमान" ODS (ओझोन घट ऩदाथब) के
उत्ऩादन ऩय योक रगाती है ।
भुख्म कायण नही है ।
2.
"आझोन निद्र" ऩथ्
ृ वी के उऩय के ध्रुपवम ऺेत्र के
उऩय होनेवारे ऊऩयी ऺेत्र भॊडरीम ओजोन भें वसॊत
वाक्म सही है /हैं?
1.
(b) ससपब 2
4
(a) ससपब 1
(b) ससपब 2
(d)1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही।
10) Movement of cell against concentration
gradient is called
1. Freons when released in the atmosphere
cause the depletion of Ozone mostly found in
the lower Troposphere.
2. The free Florine radical from CFCs can
associate with an Ozone molecule and destroy
it.
A.Osmosis
B.Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Passive transport
11) Arrange the following animals in the
order of their average life span.
3. All the following - Free radicals of Chlorine,
Bromine, Nitric Oxide radical (NO) and
Hydroxyl radical(OH) are threats to the Ozone
layer
1. Hippopotamus
2. elephant
3. Tortoise
4. Tiger
a) 2 only
b) 3 only
(a) 1,2,4,3 .
(b) 4, 1,2,3
c) 2 and 3
d) None
(c) 3,2,1,4
(d) 4, 1,3,2
8) Which of these is/are true?
1.„Green
India‟
campaign
aims
afforestation of 6 million hectares of land
for
12) Which of the following statements are
true
regarding
sex
determining
chromosomes?
2. The „National Action Plan for Climate
Change‟ targets increasing land area under
forest cover from 23% to 33%.
1. All children will inherit a Y chromosome
from their mother regardless of whether they
are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children
will be determined by what they inherit from
their father.
3. The „National Action Plan for Climate
Change‟ recognises the Peninsular ecosystem
as vital to preserving the ecological security of
the country.
a) 1and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. A child who inherits an X chromosome from
her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a
Y chromosome from him will be a boy.
3. Women have a perfect pair of sex
chromosomes, both called X. But men have a
mismatched pair in which one is a normal-sized
X while the other is a short one called Y.
9) The main energy yielding substances to
human body are
(a) Carbohydrates and Fat
(b) Carbohydrates and proteins
(c) Fats and Proteins
(d) Minerals and Vitamins
5
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. All are correct
7)
d)
खननज औय पवटाभीन
सही है ?
1.
किऑन जफ वातावयण भें िोडा जाता है तो वह
10)
जादातय ननिरे ऺोबभॊडर ऩामे जानेवारे ओझोन
को कहते है
की कभी का कायण फनता है ।
2.
सी.एप् .सी. से भुक्त फ्रोयीन कण ओझोन अणु के
साथ सहमोग कयके उसे नष्ट कय सकते हैं।
3.
ननम्न सबी :- क्रोयीन, ब्रोसभन, नामट्रीक ऑक्साईड
ससपब 3
(c) 2 औय 3
(d)
एक बी नहीॊ
8)
सही है ?
1.
"हरयत बायत" असबमान का उद्दे श्म 6 राख हे क्टय
प्रसयण
(c) सक्रीम ऩयीवहन
(d)
ननव्ष्क्रम ऩयीवहन
1.
दरयमाई घोडा
2.
हाथी
2.
किुआ
4.
फाघ
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b)
4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d)
4, 1, 3, 2
12) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा वाक्म लरॊग का
बूभी ऩय वनीकयण कयना मह है ।
2.
(b)
के क्रभ भें रगाएॉ।
भुक्त कण ओझोन ऩयत के सरए खतया है ।
(b)
(a) द्रवसबसयण
11) ननम्नलरखित जानवयोंको उनकी औसत जीवन कार
कण (एन.ओ.) औय है ड्रॉव्क्सर कण (ओ.एि ्.) के
(a) ससपब 2
ऩता रगानेवारे गण
ु सत्र
ू ों के फाये भे सही है ?
"हवाभान ऩरयवतबन के सरए याष्ट्रीम कामब मोजना"
का रक्ष्म है वन बूसभ ऺेत्र भें 23% से 33% वध्
ृ दी
1.
कयना।
3.
दे श की
सबी फच्िे, कपय वह रडका हो मा रडकी, उनकी
भाॉ से Y गुणसूत्र पवयासत भें रें गे।
"हवाभान ऩरयवतबन के सरए याष्ट्रीम कामब मोजना"
ऩहिान कया दे ती है की
सकेंद्रण उताय-चढाव के ववरुध्द ऩेशी की गतिविधी
इस प्रकाय
फच्िे अऩने पऩता से पवयासत भें क्मा रेते हैं इसऩय
ऩरयव्स्थतीकी
उनका सरॊग ननधाबरयत ककमा जाएगा।
सुयऺा के सॊयऺण के सरए प्रामद्वीऩीम ऩरयव्स्थतीकी
2.
तॊत्र भहत्वऩण
ू ब है ।
फच्िा अऩने पऩता से पवयासत भें X गुणसूत्र रेता है
तो रडकी होगी, औय जो Y गुणसूत्र उनसे रेता है
वह रडका होगा।
(a) 1 औय 2
(b)
2 औय 3
(c) 1 औय 3
(d)
1, 2 औय 3
3.
भहहराओॊ के ऩास मौन गुणसूत्रों की एक सही जोडी
हैं, व्जसभें से दोनों को X कहा जाता है ।
ऩुरूषों के ऩास पवसबन्न जोडी है
9)
आकाय का होता है व्जसे Y कहते है ।
है
काफोहाइड्रेट औय ियफी (पैट)
b)
काफोहाइड्रेट औय प्रोटीन
c)
ियफी (पैट) औय प्रोटीन
व्जसभे एक
साधायण आकाय का X होता है औय दस
ू या िोटे
भानव शयीय के लरए मह भुख्म ऊजाभ उऩज ऩदाथभ
a)
ऩयॊ तु
6
(a) ससपब 1 औय 2
(b) ससपब 2 औय 3
(c) ससपब 2
(d) सबी वाक्म सही है ।
13) How do we know how old the fossils are?
D. I – 3, II – 1, III – 2, IV – 4
A. By digging earth and estimating age by
layers and secondly by dating fossils and
detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the
same element in the fossil material.
16) Which hormone helps in the expulsion of
milk during sucking
B. By viewing how decayed an organism or
object looks and also measuring CO2 level in
fossil.
(a) Prolactin
(b) Thrombin
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Thyroxin
C. By measuring various characteristics of
fossil and another way is to measure oxygen
level left in fossil.
17) Satellite is revolving around earth in its
circular orbit at a velocity v. If the
gravitational force suddenly disappears then
the satellite will
D. It is done by guess work and there are
usually controversies about the age of a fossil.
(A) Revolve in the same orbit at velocity v
(B) Move to the line touching the orbit with
velocity v
14) The functional unit of kidney which
helps in filtering of blood and formation of
urine is:
(C) Fall on earth with increasing velocity
(D) Start revolving in some other orbit with
smaller radius
A. Neuron -axon
B. Nephron-bowman‟s capsule
18) What are cold-blooded animals?
C. Axon-glomulous
(a) Animals whose blood is cold
D Kidneion-beta cells
(b) Animlas who are ferocious
(c) Animals whose body temperature varies
according to the temperature of atmosphere.
15) Match the following diseases and the
organism causing that disease:
(d) Animals whose body temperature remains
constant.
Organism
Disease
I. Viruses
1. Elephantiasis
II. Bacteria
2. Typhoid fever
III. Protozoan microbes
3. Dengue fever
(a) a protein substance found in the blood of
some people
IV. Worms
4. Malaria
(b) a hormone carried by the blood
19) The Rh factor refers to,
(c) the ratio of red corpuscles to white
corpuscles in the blood
A. I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4
B. I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV – 1
(d) a process that speeds up the clotting of
blood
C. I – 3, II – 2, III – 4, IV – 1
7
16) कौनसा हाभोन चूसने के दौयान दध
ू के ननष्कासन
13) जीवाश्भ ककतने ऩुयाने हैं मह हभ कैसे जानें?
भें भदद कयता है ?
(a) ऩथ्
ृ वी की खुदाई कयके औय ऩयतों से ऊम्र का
अॊदाजा रगाएॉ औय जीवाश्भों का डेटीॊग कयके उसी
(a) प्रोरैक्टीन
(b)
थ्रोव्म्फन
प्रकाय की जीवाश्भ साभग्री से फने अरग अरग
(c) ऑव्क्सटोससन
(d)
थामयॉव्क्सन
सभस्थाननकों के अनुऩातों का ऩता रगाकय।
(b) जीव मा वस्तु ककतने सडे हुए हैं मा हदख यहे हैं मह
17) एक उऩग्रह एक वेग V ऩय अऩनी वत्त
ृ ीम कऺा भें
दे खकय मा जीवाश्भ भें व्स्थत CO2 के स्तय का
ऩथ्
ृ वी के चायों औय घूभ यहा है । अचानक अगय
भाऩन कयके।
गुरुत्वाकषभण फर गामफ हुआ तो उऩग्रह की ननम्न
(c) जीवाश्भ की पवसबन्न पवशेषताओ का भाऩन कयके
भें से क्मा स्थथती होगी?
औय दस
ू यी तयह जीवाश्भ भें फिा ऑव्क्सजन के
(a) वह अऩनी उसी कऺा भें वेग v से घूभता यहे गा।
स्तय का भाऩन कयके।
(b) वह वेग v से अऩनी कऺा को स्ऩशब कयनेवारी
(d) अनुभान ऩय आधारयत कामब से मह ककमा जाता है
ऩॊक्ती भें िरा जाएगा।
औय जीवाश्भ की उम्र के फाये भें आभ तौय ऩय
(c) वह फढते वेग भें ऩथ्
ृ वी के उऩय चगय जाएगा।
पववाद ही होता है ।
(d) वह दस
ू ये कभ त्रत्रज्ज्मा वारे ककसी अन्म कऺा भें
घूभने रगेगा।
14) गद
ु े की कामाभत्भक इकाई, जो िन
ू की छानने औय
भत्र
ू
तैमाय कयने भें भदद कयता है , वह है :-
18) शीतयक्तवारे प्राणी ककन्हे कहते है ?
(a) न्मुयॉन अऺतॊतु
(a) वह प्राणी व्जनका यक्त ठॊ डा होता है ।
(b) नेिॉन-फोभन कैप्सर
ू
(b) वह प्राणी जो बमॊकय क्रूय है ।
(c) एक्जॉन ग्रोभुरस
(d)
(c) वह प्राणी व्जनके शयीय का ताऩभान वातावयण के
भूत्रपऩॊड की फीटा कोसशकाएॉ
अनुसाय फदरता यहता है ।
(d) वह प्राणी व्जनके शयीय का ताऩभान कामभ यहता
15) ननम्नलरखित योगों औय उनके कायणों का लभरान
है ।
कयें ।
जीव
योग
i.
पवषाणू
1.
हाथीऩाॉव
ii.
जीवाणू
2.
टामपॉईड फुखाय
iii.
प्रोटोझोअन जीवाणू
3.
डेंगू फुखाय
iv.
कीडे
4.
भरेरयमा
19) Rh पैक्टय ननम्न भें से ककसके सॊदबभ भें है ?
(a) कुि रोगों के यक्त भे ऩामा गमा एक प्रोटीन
ऩदाथब।
(a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(b) यक्त के द्वाया प्रवाहहत एक हाभोन।
(b)
(c) खून भें सपेद कोशीकाओका रार कोशीका के साथ
i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
होनेवारा गुणोत्तय प्रभाण।
(c) i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1
(d) प्रक्रीमा जो खून के
(d) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
फढाती है ।
8
थक्के फनाने की गती को
20) Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are
two different types of energy-releasing
reactions. Consider the following
statements:
22)
Which one among the following
statements about “modem” is correct?
i.
b. Modem is a software
a. Modem is an operating system
Fission occurs in stars, such as the sun
while fusion reaction does not normally
occur in nature.
c. Modem converts high level language into
assembly language
ii. Fission is the splitting of a large atom into
two or more smaller ones while fusion is
the fusing of two or more lighter atoms
into a larger one.
d. Modem converts analog signal into digital
signal and vice versa
iii.
23)
High temperature is required for both
fusion and fission to occur.
1. Firewall is a mechanism that isolates a
network from the rest of the internet,
permitting only specific traffic to pass in
and out.
iv. The energy released by fission is higher
than the energy released by nuclear fusion.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. i and ii only
b. ii, iii and iv
c. ii only
d. ii and iv only
21)
Consider the following statements
related to internet
2. Browser is a set of instruction written in a
computer language.
3. Spam refers to practice of blindly posting
commercial messages or advertisements to
a large number of unrelated and
uninterested persons.
Which of the following statements
related to difference between Li-Fi and
Wi-Fi is/are correct?
4. Cookie is a type of software that creates
indexes of databases or internet sites,
based on the titles of files and key words.
1.Wi-Fi works by spewing out radio waves in
all directions. Li-Fi does the same thing by
flickering out light from a bulb.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
2.Wi-Fi is more secure than Li-Fi.
a. 2 and 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
3. Li-Fi provides faster data transmission than
Wi-Fi.
c. 1, 2 and 3
d.4 only
Select the answer using the code given
below:
a.1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
24) Which of the following disease is
common in the workers of textile
industry?
c. 1,and 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
a) Silicosis
b) Asbestosis
c) Pneumoconiosis
d) Byssinosis
9
c)
20) ऩयभाणू एकीकयण औय ऩयभाणु वविॊडन ऊजाभ को
भोडेभ उच्ि स्तय की बाषा को साभान्म बाषा भें
ऩरयवनतबत कय दे ता है ।
फाहय ननकारनेवारी प्रनतक्रीमाओॊ के दो प्रकाय हैं।
ननम्नलरिीत वाक्मोंऩय ववचाय कये ्
i.
d)
पवखॊडन की प्रक्रीमा ससतायों भें होती है जैसे सम
ू ,ब
औय उसके उरट ऩरयवनतबत कय दे ता है ।
जफकक एकीकयण प्रनतकक्रमा साभान्म रूऩ से प्रकृती
भें नहीॊ होती है ।
ii.
23) इॊटयनेट से जुडे ननम्नलरखित वाक्मोंऩय ववचाय कयें ।
एक फडे ऩयभाणु का दो मा अचधक िोटे ऩयभाणु भे
पवबाजन पवखॊडन है , जफकक दो मा अचधक हल्के
iii.
iv.
भोडेभ ऍनारॉग ससग्नर को डडजीटर ससग्नर भें
1.
पामयवॉर एक ऐसा तॊत्र है जो सॊऩकब को फाकी के
ऩयभाणुओॊ को एकत्र कयना एकीकयण है ।
इॊटयनेट से अरग कय दे ता है , व्जसभें ससपब पवसशष्ट
एकीकयण औय पवखॊडन दोनों को ही उच्ि ताऩभान
मातामात को अॊदय आने की मा फाहय जाने की
की आवश्मकता होती है ।
अनुभती दी जाती है ।
पवखॊडन
द्वाया
िोडी
गई
ऊजाब
ऩयभाणू
2.
एकीकयणद्वाया िोडी गई ऊजाब से अचधक होती है ।
ब्राऊजय कॊप्मूटय की बाषा भें सरखे हुए ननदे श का
एक सॊि है ।
3.
स्ऩॅभ एक ऐसा व्मवहाय दशाबता है व्जसभे अरुिी
उऩयी वाक्मों भें से कौनसे सही है ?
औय असॊफॊचधत व्मव्क्तमों की एक फडी सॊख्मा के
a)
ससपब i औय ii
b)
ii, iii औय iv
सरए वाखणव्ज्मक सॊदेशों मा पवऻाऩनों का आॉखे फॊद
c)
ससपब ii
d)
ससपब ii औय iv
कयके ऩोस्टीॊग ककमा जाता है ।
4.
21) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से Li-Fi औय Wi-Fi के
के शीषबक औय भुख्म शब्दे के आधाय ऩय डेटाफेस
फीच के पयक से जड
ु े कौनसा/से वाक्म सही है ?
1.
की अनुक्रभखणका मा इॊटयनेट साईट फनाता है ।
Wi-Fi सबी हदशाओॊ भें ननकरे ये डडमो तयॊ गो द्वाया
ऊऩयी वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/से वाक्म गरत है ?
काभ कयता हैं, Li-Fi एक फल्फ से ननकरी हुई
योशनीद्वाया वही काभ कयता है ।
2.
Wi-Fi मह Li-Fi की तुरना भें अचधक सुयक्षऺत है ।
3.
Li-Fi मह Wi-Fi से अचधक तेजी से डेटा प्रसायण
कयता है ।
ससपब 1 औय 3
b) 1, 2 औय 3
c)
d) ससपब 2 औय 3
b)
भोडेभ एक सॉफ्टवेअय है ।
b) 2, 3 औय 4
c)
1, 2 औय 3
d)
ससपब 4
दे ता है ?
एक वाक्म सही है ?
भोडेभ एक ऑऩये हटॊग ससस्टभ है ।
ननम्न भें से कौनसा योग साधायण रुऩ से ददिाई
22) भोडेभ के ववषम भें ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें कौनसा
a)
a)
24) कऩडों के कायिानों भें काभ कयने वारे कभभचायी भें
नीिे हदए गऐ कोड का प्रमोग कय जवाफ िनु नएa)
कुकी एक ऐसे सॉफ्टवेअय का प्रकाय है जो पाईर
10
a)
ससरीकोससस
b)
ऍसफेसटॉससस
c)
फ्मुभोकोननऑससस
d)
फामससनोससस
(b) Distance travelled by jeep is shorter then
lorry before coming to rest
25) Isotopes have:
a) Same number of neutrons but different
number of protons
(c) Distance travelled depends on individual
velocity of both the vehicles
b) Same number of electrons but different
number of protons
(d) Both will travel same distance before
coming to rest
c) Same number of protons but different
number of neutrons
d) Same number of protons but different
number of electrons
29) When cream is separated from milk?
A) The density of milk increases
(B) The density of milk decreases
26) Higher level of organic pollution of
water will result in
(C) The density of milk remains unchanged
a) Rise in Biological Oxygen Demand
(D) It becomes more viscous
b) Drop in Biological Oxygen Demand
30) Which of following in not a property of
cathode ray.
c) No change in Biological Oxygen Demand
d) First drop and then rise in Biological
Oxygen Demand
A. Cathode rays are invisible and travel in a
straight line.
B. These rays can ionise gases.
27) Carbon Tax is
1. Regressive tax
C. These rays can penetrate through thin metal
foils.
2. Progressive tax
3. Pigovian tax
D. These rays make materials cool on which
they fall.
Select the correct option using the codes
given below.
a.2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
31)
b. 1 and 3 only
Pressure cooker cooks rice faster
because
(a) it always lets the steam escape
d. 1 only
(b) High pressure crushes the hard covering of
28) A lorry and jeep are moving on a plane
road with same kinetic Energy. They are
brought to rest by application of brakes
which provide equal retarding forces. Which
of the following statements is true.
Rice grains
(c) It does not let the heat energy escape easily
(d) High pressure raises the boiling point of
(a) Distance travelled by lorry is shorter then
jeep before coming to rest
Water.
11
25)
है ।
आइसोटोऩ मह है :
इस सॊफध भें ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा
वाक्म सही है ?
a) न्मूट्रॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा
पवसबन्न।
a) रूकने से ऩहरे रॉयी ने काटा हुआ अॊतय जीऩ ने
काटे हुए अॊतय से कभ है !
b) इरेक्ट्रॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा
b) रूकने से ऩहरे जीऩ ने काटा हुआ अॊतय रॉयी ने
काटे हुए अॊतय से कभ है !
c) प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन न्मूट्रॉन की सॊख्मा
c) काटा हुआ अॊतय दोनों वाहनों के व्मव्क्तगत वेगऩय
ननबबय कयता है ।
d) रूकने से ऩहरे दोनों वाहन सभान अॊतय काटें गे।
d) प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन इरेक्ट्रॉन की सॊख्मा
29) भराई जफ दध
ू से अरग की जाती हैं तफ26)
ऩानी भें जैववक प्रदष
ू ण उच्च भात्रा भें होने का
ननम्न भें से कौनसा ऩरयणाभ होगा?
a) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें वद्
ृ धी ।
b) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें चगयावट ।
a)
दध
ू की घनता फढती है ।
b)
दध
ू की घनता घटती है ।
c)
दध
ू की घनता अऩरयवनतबत यहती है ।
d)
दध
ू अचधक चिऩचिऩा हो जाता है ।
c) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें कोई ऩरयवतबन नहीॊ
होगा
30) ननम्न भें से कौनसा कॎथोड ये का गुणधभभ नहीॊ है ?
d) ऩहरे जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें घट औय फाद भे
a)
वद्
ृ धी हो जाएगी ।
कॅथौड ककयणें अदृष्म होते हैं औय एक सीधी ये खा
भें मात्रा कयते है ।
27) ननम्न भें से काफभन टै क्स क्मा है ?
1.
प्रनतगाभी कय
3.
ऩामगोपवमन कय
b)
मह ककयणें वामूओॊ को आमोनाइज कय सकती है ।
c)
मह ककयणें ऩतरी धातु पॉइल्स के भाध्मभ से
2. प्रगनतशीर कय
प्रवेश कय सकती है ।
d)
मह ककयणें व्जस साभग्री ऩय ऩडती है उसको ठॊ डा
कय दे ती है ।
ननम्न ऩमाबमों भें से सही ऩमाबम िुनेंa) ससपब 2
b)
c)
d)
ससपब 1
31) प्रेशय कुकय तेजी से चावर ऩकाता है क्मोंकक,
a)
मह हभेशा बाऩ को िोडने की सुपवधा दे ता है ।
b)
उच्ि दफाव िावर के दाने का हाडब कवय कुिर
दे ता है ।
c)
28) एक रॉयी औय जीऩ एक ही गनतज ऊजाभ के साथ
एक प्रेन सडक ऩय आगे फढ यहे है ।
वह गभी की ऊजाब को आसानी से िूटने नहीॊ दे ता
है ।
एक ही रयटाडीं
d)
फर का प्रमोग कयके ब्रेक रगाकय दोनों को योका जाता
12
उच्ि दफाव ऩानी के उफरते त्रफॊद ु को फढा दे ता है ।
32) Why do passengers in a moving bus fall
35) Which of the following are not correct
forward when it stops suddenly?
about the National Capital Territory of
Delhi?
(a) Because passengers continue to remain at
rest as before.
I. Its Legislative Assembly can legislate on any
matter enumerated in the State List or in the
(b) Because passengers continue to feel
Concurrent List.
moving as before.
II. The Council of Ministers shall not consist of
(c) Inertia of Rest
more than 15% of the total number of MLAs.
(d) Inertia of motion
III. The Chief Minister and other Ministers are
33) A bomb is dropped at a point from a
appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
moving aeroplane. The pilot observes that,
(a) The bomb traverses a curved path and falls
some distance behind that point
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and I
D. I, II and III
(b) The bomb traverses a curved path and falls
36) Consider the following statements about
proclamation of national emergency. Which
of the following statements is/ are correct?
some distance ahead
(c) The bomb drops vertically downward
1. Proclamation of national emergency must be
passed by either of the house of Parliament
with simple majority.
(d) The bomb remains stationary in the air for
some time.
2. Resolution disapproving the continuation of
a proclamation can be passed by Lok Sabha
only and there is no need for both the houses of
Parliament to disapprove it.
34) A cyclist taking a turn bends inwards
while a car passenger taking the same turn
is thrown outwards. The reason is
3. 100 members of Lok Sabha can give a
written notice to the speaker or President (in
case the Parliament is not in session), to call a
special sitting for the purpose of disapproving
the continuation of the proclamation.
(a) That car has only four wheels while cycle
has only two
(b) That car is heavier than cycle
(c)
That cyclist has to counteract the
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
centrifugal force, while passenger is only
thrown by it.
(d) The difference in the speeds
13
32) जफ एक चरती फस फॊद हो जाती है तो फस भे फैठे
मात्रत्र आगे की तयप
a)
I. BgH$r {dYmZg^m amÁ` gyMr VWm g_H$m{bH$ gyMr
_o {XE JE {H$gr ^r {df` g§~§Yr H$mZyZ ~Zm gH$Vr h¡
&
क्मों झक
ु ते मा गगयते है ?
क्मोंकक मात्रत्र ऩहरे की व्स्थती भें आयाभ से फैठना
जायी यखते है ।
b)
II. Hw$b Am_Xma H$r g§»`m Ho$ 15%
_§ÍmrJU Zhr§ hmo gH$Vo h¡ &
क्मोंकक मात्रत्र ऩहरे की तयह आगे फढने का एहसास
कयना जायी यखते है ।
c)
आयाभ की जडता की वजह से।
d)
गनत की जडता की वजह से।
III. _w»`_§Ímr Ed§ AÝ` _§ÍmrAmo§ H$r {Z`wŠVr boâQZ§Q
JdZ©a H$aVo h¡
33) चरते हवाईजहाज से एक फभ को छोडा गमा।
ऩामरट को दे िने को लभरेगा कीa)
फभ एक घुभावदाय भागब से जाकय उस त्रफॊद ु के ऩीिे
फभ एक घुभावदाय भागब से जाकय उस त्रफॊद ु के
आगे कुि दयू ीऩय चगयता है ।
c)
फभ नीिे अनर
ु ॊफ हदशा भें नीिे चगयता है ।
d)
फभ हवा भें कुि सभम के सरए व्स्थय यहता है ।
झुक जाता है , तो एक कायचारक वही भोड रेते सभम
काय को िाय ऩहहए होते है तो साइककर को ससपब
c)
साइकिरिारक को केन्द्रप्रसायक फर को प्रनतकक्रमा
दे नी ऩडती है जफिी मात्री केवर उसके कायण पेंका
जाता है ।
d)
II Am¡a III
c)
III Am¡a I
d)
I, II Am¡a III
3. gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm H$mo Agh_Vr Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE
{deof ~¡RH$ ~wbmZo Ho$ {bE, bmoH$g^m Ho$ 100 gXñ`
AÜ`j VWm amîQ—mÜ`j H$mo (O~ g§gX A{YdoeZ Mmby
Zhr§ h¡) {bIrV gyMZm Xo gH$Vo h¡ &
दो ऩहहए होते है ।
काय साइककर से जादा बायी है ।
b)
2. gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm H$mo Mmby aIZo H$r gh_Vr {g\©
bmoH$g^m hr Zm_§Oya H$a gH$Vr h¡ Am¡a g§gX Ho$ XmoZmo
gXZ Ho$ Agh_Vr H$r Amdí`H$Vm Zhr§ h¡ &
फाहय की ओय झुक जाता है , इसका कायण है-
b)
I Am¡a II
1. amîQ—r` AmnmV pñWVr H$r gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm Ho$ {bE
XmoZmo _o go H$mB© ^r EH g§gX ^dZ Zo gm_mÝ` ~hw_V go
gh_Vr XoZr Mm{hE &
34) एक साइककरचारक भोड रेते सभम अॊदय की तयप
a)
a)
36) amîQ—r` AmnmV pñWVr H$r gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm Ho$
~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU Ho ~mao _o§ gmo{ME & {ZåZ _o go
H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr§ h¡ ?
कुि दयू ीऩय चगयता है ।
b)
go Á`mXm
दोनों की गती भें अॊतय होता है ।
35) {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm amîQ—r` amOYmZr amÁ` {Xëbr
Ho$ ~mao _o ghr§ Zhr§ h¡ ?
14
a)
1 Am¡a 3
b)
{g\© 1
c)
{g\© 2
d)
Cna Ho$ g^r
37)
related to Right to Education Act.
39)
related to Floating loans.
1) As per the Supreme Court judgment, RTE
Act mandates that 25% seats in all schools be
reserved for the economically disadvantaged
children. It will be applicable to minority
schools, whether aided or unaided.
1) RBI directed banks not to levy any penalty
on individual borrowers for pre-payment of
floating loans.
2) It includes housing, corporate, vehicle and
personal loans.
2) It is in line with the socialistic principles
mentioned in the Preamble and the directive
principles of the Constitution and to ensure the
progress of the weaker sections in the
democratic state.
Which of the following statements is/are
NOT Correct?
A. Only 1.
B. Only 2.
C. Both 1 and 2.
D. None.
Correct?
A. Only 1.
B. Only 2.
C. Both 1 and 2.
D. None.
40)
related to SC judgment on Third Gender for
Transgenders.
1) Transgenders to get admission in
educational institutions and employment on the
basis that they belonged to the third gender
category.
38)
related to Sarojini Naidu.
1) She was also known as the Nightingale of
India and the second Indian woman to become
the president of the Indian National Congress.
2) The Supreme Court observed that Section
377 of IPC is being misused by police and
other authorities against them and their social
and economic condition is far from
satisfactory. NO OBC status to be given to
Transgenders.
2) In India, National Women‟s Day is observed
on February 13 every year, in memory of date
of birth of Sarojini Naidu.
NOT Correct?
A. Only 1.
B. Only 2.
Correct?
C. Both 1 and 2.
D. None.
A. Only 1.
B. Only 2.
C. Both 1 and 2.
D. None.
15
1. Ama~rAmB© Zo ~¡§H$mo§ H$mo {ZXo©e {H$`m h¡ H$r ì`pŠVJV
H$O©Xma AJa g_` go nhbo âbmoQr§J H$O© H$m ^wJVmZ
H$aVm h¡ Vmo Cgna H$moB© X§S Zm bJmE &
37) {ejm A{YH$ma A{Y{Z`_ g§~§Yr {ZåZ {ddaU Ho$
~mao _o gmo{ME…
1. gdmo©ÀM Ý`m`mb` Ho$ {ZU©` AZwgma, RTE
A{Y{Z`_ go g^r nmRembm _o 25% OJh Am{W©H$
X¥îQr go Xw~©b ~ÀMmo§ Ho$ {bE Ama{jV hmoZr Mm{hE & `h
2. Bg_o J¥h, H$mnmo©aoQ, dmhZ Ed§ ì`pŠVJV H$O©
em{_b h¡ &
अल्ऩसॊख्मक
{ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr Zhr§ h¡ ?
nmRembmAmo§ H$mo bmJy h¡, Mmho dh
AZwXmZrV hmo, {~Zm AZwXm{ZV hmo &
2. `h KQZm H$r CÔo{eH$m Ed§ _mJ©Xe©H$ {Z`_mo§ Ho$
AZwgma gm_m{OH$ VËdmo§ go g§~§Yr h¡, `h bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$
amÁ` _o§ Xw~©b KQH$mo§ H$r CÝZVr H$r gw{ZpíMVr h¡ &
a)
{g\© 1
b)
{g\© 2
c)
1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo
d)
Hw$N Zhr§
40) {b§J n[ad{V©V Ho$ V¥Vr` n§Wr`mo Ho$ g§~§Yr gdmo©ÀM
{ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ?
Ý`m`mb` Ho$ {ZU©` Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME …
a)
{g\© 1
b)
c)
1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo
d)
1.{b§J n[ad{V©V H$mo V¥Vr` n§Wr` loUr _o hmoZo H$r dOh
go {ejm g§ñWm _o n«doe Am¡a Zm¡H$ar {_bZr Mm{hE &
{g\© 2
Hw$N Zhr§
2. gdmo©ÀM Ý`m`mb` H$mo Eogm ZOa Am`m h¡ H$r X§S
g§{hVm H$r Ymam 377 H$m ny{bg Am¡a AÝ` A{YH$mar
Ûmam CZHo$ {Ibm\$ Xyén`moJ {H$`m Om ahm h¡ Am¡a CZH$r
gm_m{OH$ Am¡a Am{W©H$ {ñWVr g§VmofOZH$ Zhr§ h¡ &
38)gamo{OZr Zm`Sy Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME…
1. CÝho§ ^maV H$r ~wb~wb ^r _mZm OmVm Wm Am¡a dh
^maVr` amîQ—r` H$m±J«og H$r Xwgar ^maVr` _{hbm AÜ`j
Wr &
{b§J namd{V©V H$mo OBC XOm© Zhr§ {X`m OmEJm &
{ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ?
2. ^maV _o amîQ—r` _{hbm {XZ 13 \ adar H$mo _Zm`m
OmVm h¡, Omo gamoOZr Zm`SyOr Hoo$ OÝ_{XZ Ho$ `mX _o
_Zm`m OmVm h¡&
{ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr Zhr§ h¡ ?
a)
{g\© 1
b)
{g\© 2
c)
1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo
d)
Hw$N Zhr
39) âbmoQr§J H$O© Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME …
16
a)
{g\© 1
b)
{g\© 2
c)
1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo
d)
Hw$N Zhr§
41) Consider the following
related to BOKO HARAM.
(b) Percentage in demand for the goods divided
statements
by percentage change in its price.
1)It is a militant Islamist group active in Libya
and is responsible for wreaking mayhem in the
country through a series of bombings and
kidnappings.
(c) Change in expenditure due to change in
2)It promotes a version of Islam which makes
it forbidden for Muslims to participate in any
political or social activity associated with
Western society.
44) Which of the following statement(s)
price of the goods.
(d) None of the above.
is/are incorrect?
1. Indian Federation is not the result of any
agreement among states.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
2. In India, States have right to be separated as
different states have been formed on that
A. Only 1.
B. Only 2.
C. Both 1 and 2.
D. None
basis.
3. Exclusive Economic Zones are the parts of
states and Union Territories of India
unless these are listed separately in
42) A Bill regarding formation of new states
and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing states:
schedule 1 and 4 of the Constitution.
4. Legislative, Executive and Judiciary powers
between Centre and States have been
1) Can be introduced only in the Council of
States
clearly divided in the Indian Constitution.
Code:
2) Requires recommendation of the President
3) Referred by the President to the Legislature
of State for expressing its views within six
months
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D.1 and 2 only
(b) Only 2 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 2 and 3
45) Which of the following statement is
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A.1 only
(a) Only 1 and 3
correct?
(a) Being member of Commonwealth is against
India's sovereignty.
(b) In India Right to religious independency is
limited to citizens only.
(c) Sovereignty conferred by the Constitution is
43) 'Price Elasticity of Demand' for a goods
vested in Indian Parliament.
can be defined as:–
(d) In Keshwanand Bharati vs Kerala state
(a) Change in demand due to change in its price
(1973) case it was said that Preamble is
per unit.
the part of the Constitution.
17
41) ~moH$mo ham_ g§~§Yr {ZåZ {ddaU Ho$ ~mao _o gmo{ME …
1. `h CJ«dmXr Bñbm_r g_yh h¡, Omo {b{~Am _o
H$m`©erb h¡, dh ~__mar Ed§ AnhaUÛmam Xoe _o
{h§gmMma`wŠV AamOH$ Ho$ {bE {Oå_oXma h¡ &
d)
2. `h _wñbr_ {ddaU H$m n«gma H$aVm h¡ {Oggo
_wñbr_mo§ H$mo npíM_r g_mO Ho$ gmW amOH$r` Ed§
gm_m{OH$ H¥$Vr H$mo n«{V~§Y H$aVm h¡ &
Cna _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ?
a)
c)
{g\© 1
1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo
b)
{g\© 2
d)
Hw$N Zhr§
42) ZE amÁ` H$r ñWmnZm Ed§ _m¡OwXm amÁ`mo§ Ho$ joÌ,
{g_m `m Zm_ _o ~Xbmd g§~Y
§ r ~rb …
1. {g\© amÁ` n[afX _o hr n«ñVwV {H$`m Om gH$Vm h¡&
2. Bgo amîQ—nVr {g\ mare H$r OéaV h¡ &
3. amîQ—nVr Zo amÁ` {dYmZ _§Sb H$mo CZH$r am` Nh
_{hZo _o XoZo Ho$ {bE ^oOm h¡ &
Cna _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ?
a)
{g\© 1
b)
{g\© 2
c)
1, 2 Am¡a 3
d)
{g\© 1 Am¡a 2
(a )
(b)
c)
d
a
b
a)
c)
b)
d
c)
18
(c) Central Ministry of Law
correct?
(d) None of these
(a) In Presidential form of government,
President is the actual head of the
Executive.
49) Which of the following features are
present in the Indian Constitution?
(b) In Parliamentary form of government,
President does not represent the country.
1. Absolute Federalism
(c) All provisions mentioned in the Indian
Constitution can be enforced through the
court.
2. Supremacy of Constitution
(d) Indian Constitution is a written Constitution
and it is rigid like America‟s in the context
of amendment.
4. Welfare State
3. Sovereign State
Code:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
47) Consider the following statements:
(c) Only 1 and 4
1. Preamble of Indian Constitution is the
integrated organ of the Constitution.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Preamble of Indian Constitution is not
justiciable and on it‟s basis judicial interpretation can not be done.
correct?
3. Preamble of the Constitution can't be
amended.
(a) Indian Constituent Assembly was set up on
the basis of recommendations by
Government of India Act 1935.
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) H.C. Mukherjee was appointed as the Vice
Chairman of Constituent Assembly.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the
Chairman of Rules Committee, Steering
Committee and Adhoc Committee.
48) Which of the following constitutional
organ in India has right to invalidate
those laws and orders which are against
the basic theme of the Constitution?
(d) All of the above.
(a) Council of Ministers led by Prime Minister
(b) Parliament of India
19
46)
b
a
c
d
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
20
51) The full name of newly constituted NITI
Aayog is:
55) Churning poor are those:
(a) National Institution for Transforming India.
(a) Who regularly move in and out of poverty.
(b) National Institution for Technological
Innovation.
(b) Who are always poor.
(c) National Intelligence Training Institute.
(c) Who are rich most of the time but at
sometimes they have to face bad luck.
(d) None of these.
(d) All of the above.
52) Disguised Unemployment means:
(a)
Unemployment
technology.
due
to
change
56) Who were deputed to establish peace
between government and Congress during
Civil Disobedience Movement?
in
(b) Low productivity of labour.
1. Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) Large number of unemployed people.
2. Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) Marginal productivity of labour is zero.
3. M.R. Jaikar
Code:
53) “Each buyer and seller in the market is a
price-taker”. It is a feature of which of
the following?
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Monopolistic Competition
57) What were the objections of Congress in
the context of Cripps Mission?
(b) Perfect Competition
(c) Oligopoly
1. Dominion status
(d) Duopololy
2. Right of separation from federation given to
the provinces
54) The consumer's surplus can be defined
as:
3. Provision to maintain the supremacy of
Governor General.
(a) Surplus utility derived from an extra unit of
consumption.
4. Process
Assembly.
(b) The difference between actual price and
potential price.
Code:
(c) Total utility from consumption.
21
of
formation
of
Constituent
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
51)
(a )
( a)
(b )
( b)
( c)
( c)
(d )
( d)
52.
(a )
(b )
( c)
(d )
53)
( a)
( b)
c
d
( a)
( b)
c
d
(a)
(b )
( c)
(d )
(a )
(b )
( c)
d
22
58)
Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct in the context of „Quit
India Movement‟?
61) Who started the system of depicting his
own image and the name of taksal on
coins?
(a) Shershah
(b) Akbar
1. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar did not support this
movement.
2. Muslim League participated actively in the
movement
even
after
ideological
difference with Congress.
3. In this Movement the Communists played a
neutral role.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Jahangir
(d) Adilshah
62) Which medieval period ruler issued
'Rupiya'?
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b)Muhammad Bin Tuglaq
(c) Shershah Suri
(d) Balban
63) Swami Ramanand Tirth was related to :
59) What were the reasons behind Religious
Reform Movements that occurred in
India during sixth century B.C.?
1. Development of critical approach among
new vaisya class towards vedic religion.
2. Support to Vedic rituals in Upanishad
thoughts.
3. Rising of new cities and spread of monetary
system.
4. Development of iron technology.
Code:
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(c) Only 2 and 4
(a) Punnapra Vayalar Satyagrah
(b) The movement launched in Hyderabad state
(c) Leadership of revolt of 1857 in Bareilly
(d) Revolt of Poligars in Andhra Pradesh
64)
(a) Sir John Simon
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Manavendra Nath Roy
(d) Lord Wellington
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
65) Which of the following leaders had
blamed Mahatma Gandhi in early
1930‟s that “Mahatmaji has failed as a
political leader” ?
is/are correct in the context of Jainism?
1. It says that World is real and indestructible.
2. It was based on theory of social equality in
which women too were considered eligible
for moksha.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2 both
Under whose leadership Indian
Statutory Commission was formed?
1. Subhash Chandra Bose
2. Bhagat Singh
3. Md. Ali Jinnah
4. Vithal Bhai Patel
(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
23
(b) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 3 and 4
(a )
(b )
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
a
b
c
d
c
d
24
1. The source of origin of Ghaghra River is
Chemayungdung glacier.
2. The source of origin of Brahmaputra river is
Mapchachungo glacier in Tibet.
correct?
correct?
(a) Immersed part of continents in oceans are
called continental slopes.
(b) Kosi river is called Sorrow of Bengal.
(c) Schist, Gneiss, Marble are examples of
igneous rock.
(d) Narrow valley of river in mountainous parts
is called Gorge. Its both edges have sharp
slopes.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70) Which type of cloud is seen in the sky
before tropical cyclone?
1. Mountain soil are acidic and have less
humous.
2. Soil erosion occurs only by human factors.
3. Crystallized igneous rock is appropriate for
growth of Red soil
(a) Cirrus Clouds
(b) Black Cumulus Nimbus Clouds
(c) Nimbo Stratus Clouds
(d) Sky remains clear, there is absence of
clouds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
71) Consider the following statements in the
context of water vapour:
1. Quantity of water vapour decreases from
equator to pole.
2. Water vapour contributes in volatility and
involatility of wind.
3. It works as blanket by absorbing some parts
of heat emitting from Sun and heat
emitting from the earth.
is/are incorrect in the context of Lakes
in India ?
1. Chilka is the biggest lagoon lake of the
country.
2. Ashtamudi, the biggest salt water lake of
India is in Kerala.
3. Vembanad lake is the longest lake of India.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(c) Only 2
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
25
(a )
(b )
( c)
a
c
b
d
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
26
a
b
c
d
72) Which of the following factors are
responsible for rainfall in India ?
3. Cloudless long nights and calm wind in
winters are the ideal conditions for inversion.
1. Western Disturbance
Code :
2. Tropical Cyclone
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
3. Jet Stream
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Mountain
Code :
(a) Only 2 and 4
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75) Which statement is incorrect in the
context of direction and velocity of winds?
(a) Wind blows due
atmospheric pressure.
to
difference
of
73) Consider the following statements in the
context of humidity:
(b) Friction generates due to surface
inequalities on land which affects velocity of
winds.
1. There is no unit of absolute humidity. It is
expressed in percentage.
(c) Coriolis force does not affect direction of
winds.
2. Relative humidity is expressed in gram per
cubic metre.
(d) Prevailing winds blow in the form of trade,
westerlies and polar winds.
3. Increase in the temperature of air does not
affect the potency of humidity.
Which of the above statements is/are in
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
74) Which of the following statements are
correct in the context of inversion of
temperature?
1. In polar regions, inversion of temperature in
whole year is common.
2. Due to inversion of temperature, smoke, dust
and pollutants cannot go upward in atmosphere
so during inversion frost, fog and mist are
formed more in winters.
27
(a)
(b)
c
d
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
a
b
c
d
d
28
PART- II (CSAT)
(b) Because he can overcome the anxiety and
dangers of diplomatic conduct.
Directions for (Q 76- Q 80 ): Read
the passages and answer the question that
follow. Your answers should be based on the
passages only.
(c) Because he knows how to be obsequious to
superior.
Superficially he appears to be an endangered
species. But the diplomat will survive. No
survivor is more adept at the art of survival
than he, whether it is the strains and perils of
diplomatic conduct or the whim and caprice of
the pompous, garrulous politician, the ignorant
foreign minister, at home. The first book
should be read by students of diplomacy, Right
to Information activists, babus who resist
transfer of files to the National Archives of
India and, not least, those who disparage
diplomats. The second book should be read by
those diplomats who win note for arrogance
and boorishness unredressed by worth or talent
and aggravated by the time honoured traits of
survivors-obsequious to superiors,devious with
equals,and overbearing to subordinates. Over
the centuries, the British Diplomatic Service
had the practice of the Valedictory Despatch,
written by the Ambassador as he prepares to
leave the post, whether on transfer or
retirement. It was ended in 2006 by an inept
and vengeful upstart, foreign secretary
Margaret Beckett. She professed to be shocked
at remarks in a despatch about the "bullshit
bingo" of the new management consultancy
culture in Whitehall, which were leaked to the
press. Her own language was no better. These
dispatches, circulated in confidence in the
Foreign Office. (F.O.) and to some posts
abroad, were avidly read for elegance of
language, with and depth of insight, and for
remarks which verged on the scandalous.
Readers did not spare the writer if his missive
was dull, boring or reeked of self pity or selfimportance.
(d) Because he knows how to be obsequious to
the foreign minister, at home.
77) It appears that the author has given a
book review in the passage. What can be
made/inferred about the first book from his
review?
(a) It is going to be more popular among
students of diplomacy, RTI activists, honest
babus and even those who disparage diplomats.
(b) It deals with diplomacy and how it ought to
lie.
(c) It imparts the art of survival for a diplomat.
(d) It is more unconventional in nature and
spirit of a book on diplomacy
78) On the basis of the passage, what can be
made/inferred about the second book?
(a) It has a pragmatic description of what
diplomacy and diplomats have reduced to,
today.
(b) It covers the story of diplomats known for
their arrogance and boorishness
(c) It imparts time tested art of survival for the
diplomats, the more conventional ones.
(d) It is a sequel to the first book, with the
description of the other side of the coin
76) Why is the Diplomat called an adept
survivor in the passage?
(a) Because he is able to meet the expectations
of diplomacy abroad and the whims of his boss,
at home.
29
(b)
(Q 76- Q 80 )
(c)
(d)
77)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
78)
(a)
(b)
76)
(c)
(a)
(d)
30
79) Valedictory Despatch-
passages only.
(i) is practiced in Britain
(ii) Written by a new joinee
(iii) Written by the incubment in an inept way
about the malaises of being an Ambassador.
(iv) Was not written in 2006, by the then
Foreign Secretary of Britain.
The global climate has been changing since
time immemorial, and the inhabitants of the
Earth have hadto either adapt to these changes,
or disappear. Some changes have been slowly
evolving over millenniums; others have been
faster, evolving over centuries, or even
decades. Whilst in the past climatic change has
been due to natural causes, the past century has
seen such rapid changes, and indications of
more changes to come, that only a combination
of natural and man-induced causes can explain
it. So, while climate change is not new, the
present pace and scale of it is worrying, to the
extent that it now dominates the global political
discourse.The debate has two dimensions:
mitigation and adaptation. The mitigation
dimension is concerned with looking at how to
reduce the human impact on the main drivers
of climate change by limiting emissions of
greenhouse gases, primarily by reducing our
energy consumption or changing the energy
mix. The adaptation dimension is concerned
with how to deal with the impacts of climate
change: those already observed, those predicted
to happen with a high degree of certainty, and
those more uncertain, but also more frightening
impacts that may happen.
For good reasons the political debate has
centered on the first aspect, the root cause of
the problem. This needs to be the subject of
binding global agreements and treaties. The
second dimension, the adaptation challenge,
has so far taken second place in the debate,
including at COP15. The political debate on
adaptation has focused almost entirely on “how
much”, i.e. on the level of financial support
from rich to poor countries; the “what”and
“how” discussion has largely remained in the
technical spheres and are not likely to enter
into a new treaty.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (i) and (iv)
(d) None of these
80) With reference to the passage, consider
the following statements(i) The valedictory Despatch practiced in
Britain mainly contained written criticism of
management consultancy culture in
Whitehall.
(ii) The valedictory Despatch used to be a
classified letter sent to the Foreign Office
(F.O.) and to some posts abroad.
(iii) The valedictory Despatch was famous for
its elegance of language, wit and depth of
insight and for remarks which verged on the
scandalous.
(iv) The valedictory speech attracted criticism
if it smelt of self pity or self importance
Which of the statements above are correct?
(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
31
79)
(Q 81- Q 84 )
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(i), (ii)
(iii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i)
(iv)
80)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(a)
(i), (ii)
(b)
(iii)
(c)
(ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
(iv)
32
81) Which of the following is correct
regarding mitigation and adaptation
dimensions of climate change?
84) Suggest the suitable title for the passage?
(a) Unfortunate debate on mitigation and
adaptation dimension of climate change.
(b) Natural and Man-Made reasons of climate
change.
(c) Evolving nature of climate change for the
past many centuries.
(d) Climate Change and its political discourse.
(1) One is more political in its character than
the other one.
(2) One is focussed towards the root cause and
the other one towards the repercussion of
climate change.
(3) Both regard climate change as man-made
problem.
Directions for (Q 85- Q 88): Read
passages only.
given below:
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (2) Only
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
The social contract theory can be defined
loosely as a sort of hypothetical or actual
agreement between society and its state. This
agreement has been said to be responsible for
the bases of our moral decisions and stances. In
other words, we merely abide by the
government‟s rules and regulations in the hope
that others will do the same, subsequently
leading to a more secure and comfortable life.
This theory draws on several philosophers, who
include Hobbes, Locke, Hume and Rousseau,
to explore whether it is true that our moral
obligations can be explained by a social
contract. Each Philosopher has a different take
on this argument. Hobbes, for example, gives a
vivid and bleak account of what life would be
like without a social contract; otherwise known
as the „state of nature‟, denoting that the social
contract plays a big part in our moral actions.
Whereas, Locke is a lot more optimistic and
painted a more attractive picture of the „state of
nature‟, suggesting that our moral duties would
still stand even without enforced rules and
regulations. Hume passes judgement on both
these philosophers and feels that there is no
need for a social contract to shape our moral
obligations because common sense would tell
us that respect for each other would be a
necessity to ensure a manageable society.
82) Why climate change is now a matter of
grave concern in a global political
discourse?
(a) Unlike past, climate change is now a
problem inflicted upon by human beings.
(b) It is now a more serious threat globally
because of rapid change.
(c) Unlike past, climate change impact is now
more visible.
(d) All (a), (b) and (c).
83) With which of the following, author is
most likely to agree as far as climate change
control initiative are concerned?
(1) Globally accepted norms to control climate
change.
(2) By being specific on climate change control
targets.
(3) By categorically saying how we will control
climate change.
(4) By properly funding those countries who
cannot afford technology to fight climate
change.
given below:
(a) (1), (3) and (4) Only
(b) (2), (3) and (4) Only
(c) (2) and (3) Only
(d) (1), (2) and (3) Only
33
81)
(a)
(b)
(1)
(c)
(2)
(d)
(3)
(Q 85- Q 88 )
(a) (1)
(c)
(3)
(b) (2)
(2)
(d) (1), (2)
(3)
(3)
82)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) (a), (b)
(c)
83)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(a) (1), (3)
(c) (2)
(4)
(3)
(b) (2), (3)
(4)
(d) (1), (2)
(3)
84)
34
The last philosopher, named Rousseau, felt
that the social contract was an agreement
between individuals that is held together by
common interests. Rousseau gives a different
perceptive on the social contract, explaining
that it doesn‟t have to mean sacrificing our
freedom to a government in the hope for
security, simply because so much can be
gained by co-operating as part of a society. By
examining each of these philosophers‟ views
regarding the social contract theory, we can
begin not only to question the nature of our
morality but also our relationship with
authority.
87) Through out the passage, the author is
trying to search the answer of which of the
following questions?
(a) Social contract whether required or not in
modern times?
(b) Individual‟s freedom and government‟s
rules and regulations.
(c) Whether relation between individuals can
be moved by any enforced rules or not?
(d) How can an individual respect each other
through moral obligations?
88) Which of the following issue can be
considered as the biggest differentiator
between those who approved social contract
and those who do not?
85) Which of the following can be a logical
explanation of social contract theory?
(1) It is a pathway for individual morality.
(1) Some believe social contract derives
individual‟s morality, while others believe
morality stands on its own.
(2) It talks about the authority of the state over
the individual in a society.
(2) Some believe social contract is not required
to improvise one‟s moral duties, while others
believe that social contract can upheld
individual freedom in the society.
given below:
(3) It searches for the answer of an individual‟s
moral obligations and role play of state‟s rules
and regulations.
given below:
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (2) and (3) Only
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) All (1), (2) and (3)
(a) (1) Only
(b) (2) Only
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Neither (1) nor (2)
passages only.
86) Hobbes, Locke, Hume and Rousseau would
all agree upon–
(a) Interference of state on individual freedom.
The environment is often viewed as the
archetypal example of a global issue. This is
because environmental processes are no
respecters of national borders; they have an
intrinsically transnational character. As
countries are peculiarly environmentally
vulnerable to the activities that take place in
other countries, meaningful progress on
environmental issues can often only be made at
the international or even global level.
(b) Agreement between state and society for social
contract.
(c) They were not in an agreement as each had a
different take on social contract.
(d) Questioning requirement of a social contract for
an individual‟s moral obligations.
35
87)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
88)
85)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(1)
(2)
(b)
(2)
(c)
(1)
(3)
(d) (1), (2)
(a)
(3)
(1)
(c) (1)
(3)
(2)
(Q 89- Q 92 )
86)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
36
(b)
(d)
(2)
(1)
(2)
Nevertheless, international cooperation on such
matters has sometimes been very difficult to
bring about. This has occurred for a number of
reasons. In the first place, the environment has
been an arena of particular ideological and
political debate. Disagreements have emerged
about both the seriousness and nature of
environmental problems and about how they
can best be tackled, not least because
environmental priorities tend to conflict with
economic ones. Can environmental problems
be dealt with within the existing socioeconomic system, or is this system the source
of those problems? Such debates have been
especially passionate over what is clearly the
central issue on the global environmental
agenda, climate change. Despite sometimes
catastrophic predictions about what will happen
if the challenge of climate change is not
addressed, concerted international action on the
issue has been frustratingly slow to emerge.
What have been the obstacles to international
cooperation over climate change, and what
would concerted international action on the
issue involve? Finally, climate change is not
the only issue on the global environmental
agenda. Another issue of major concern is
energy security, with some talking in terms of a
new international energy order in which a
country's ranking in the hierarchy of states is
being increasingly determined by the vastness
of its oil and natural gas reserves, or its ability
to acquire them. To what extent, has the energy
security reshaped global order, and are natural
resources always a blessing?
(d) Socio-economic system of one country
differs from the other, as a result environment.
Problems do not take centre stage.
89) Why is it getting more difficult to reach
a mutual international consensus on
environmental issues?
given below:
90) As per the information given in the
passage, why climate change though an
environmental problem has not taken the
centre stage internationally?
(1) Disasterous impact of climate change is still
not prevalent.
(2) Countries are not sure about the kind of
cooperation required to handle climate change.
(3) political perception about the environmental
problem varies from one country to another.
given below:
(a) (1) and (2) Only (b) (1) and (3) Only
(c) (1) Only
(d) (2) and (3) Only
91) according to the passage, how energy
security is going to create a new global
order?
(1) It may prompt a nation to acquire a top rank
through any means in the hierarchy of energy
security.
(2) Countries rich in natural resources and oil
will reap maximum benefit out of energy
security.
(a) Different countries held each other
responsible of environmental degradation.
(b) There are many ambiguities as far as
environmental issues and their solutions are
concerned.
(c) Environmental priorities of one country do
not match economic aspirations of another.
37
(a) (1) Only
(b) (2) Only
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(c)
(d)
90)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(1)
(2) (b)
(1)
(3)
(c)
(1)
(d)
(2)
(3)
91)
(1)
(2)
89)
(a)
(a)
(c) (1)
(b)
38
(1)
(2)
(b)
(d)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(b) How international co-operation on
environmental issues is still elusive?
The contemporary Indian architecture was also
beset with problems like population explosion,
lack of vision among the planners, lack of
support from the government and a less than
satisfactory standard of architecture education.
The result was that during the initial years after
Independence, foreign architects continued to
play a leading role in Indian architecture.
(c) Why countries are not doing enough to save
environment from climate change?
93) Why Indian architecture was in poor
state after Independence?
(d) Different obstacles involved in handling
environmental problems globally.
(a) Indian architects were not in a position to
realize their true potential.
passages only.
(b) Indian architects were not able to transform
from past legacy to the new changes.
92) What author wants to convey in this
passage?
(a) Why climate change is still an abstract
environmental issue among nations?
(c) Indian architects were embroiled in the
revivalist and the modernist debate.
After the British left India in 1947, Indian
architecture dropped into an abyss. Indian
architects, who were relegated to the role of
being assistants to the British architects under
the British Raj, took their own time to express
their ingenuity. Perhaps, there was an identity
crisis, a dilemma whether to bask in the glory
of the past or move forward with times using
new ideas, images and techniques. While in
other fields like art, music and culture, the
distinct Indian imprint was more enhanced in
the post-Independence period, no such thing
was discernible in the case of architecture. It is
no doubt that the Indian architects were unable
to achieve a transformative architecture despite
the existence of great potential at the time of
Independence.
The post-Independence period saw the
emergence of two schools of thought in
architecture - the Revivalist and the Modernist.
The Revivalists, who advocated "continuity
with the past," could not break the shackles of
colonial legacy and left no significant impact
on the neo-Indian architecture. The Modernists
too depended heavily on the European and
American models and tried to adopt them in
India without taking into consideration regional
aspirations, diversities and requirements of the
country.
(d) Indian architect do not get any support from
government or they do not have proper
education.
94) Which of the following can act as the
distinguishing factor between the revivalist
and the modernist?
(a) The revivalists were occupied with their
Colonial past where as modernists were in awe
with European and American culture.
(b) The revivalists reject neo-Indian
architecture and the modernists accept
European and American architecture.
(c) The revivalist were finding it difficult to
come out of rich legacy of past whereas the
modernists were excited with European and
American architecture.
39
92)
(a)
(b)
(c)
93)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(Q 93- Q 96 )
(c)
(d)
94)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
40
To understand the concept of nation-state it is
important to know the difference between two
related, but normatively different terms,
„nation‟ and „state‟. The term 'nation', although
often used interchangeably with 'state' is a term
that has cultural implications.
95) After British rule, what can we logically
infer about art, music and culture situation
in India?
(1) These categories maintain the typical Indian
identity.
(2) There was no such dilemma in these
categories as prevalent in Indian Architecture.
It refers to a body of people united by a sense
of identity and shared values which Benedict
Anderson termed as an „imagined community‟.
This unity is based on such cultural factors as
shared history, common language, common
religion, ethnic homogeneity, and common
customs. The term 'state', on the other hand,
refers to both a political idea and a legal entity.
However, taken together, the term 'nation-state'
refers to a cultural unit, a 'nation', whose
boundaries are the same as the politico-legal
boundaries of a 'state'. Niccolo Machiavelli was
probably the first political theorist to describe
the political essence of the modern state in his
The Prince. In fact, The Prince is primarily an
advice to the then Italian rulers as to how to
establish and maintain a state. The state
became both the organising vehicle for survival
in a hostile world and the instrument for
aggrandizement vis-a-vis other , states.
given below:
(a) (1) Only
(b) (2) Only
(c) (1) and (2)
96) What all the problems Indian
architecture was facing during the initial
years after Independence?
(1) identity crisis
(2) lack of direction
(3) foreign architects
(4) good architectural education
given below:
(a) (1), (3) and (4) Only
(b) (2), (3) and (4) Only
(c) (1), (2) and (3) Only
(d) All except (3).
97) What can be adjudged as the core value
adopted in this passage?
(a) Relevance of „Nation‟ and „State‟ in world
Politics.
passages only.
(b) How Nationalism evolved over a period of
time.
Despite spectacular shifts as well as routine
adjustments in the general landscape of the
world politics in recent years, the basic unit in
International Relations still remains the nationstate. Its designation as the most fundamental
entity in contemporary world politics does not
imply that it is the only basic unit. The state,
more particularly, nation-state is the central
entity simply because it is at this stage of
human history the power is centered.
(c) Niccolo Machiavelli as the founding father
of world political thought.
(d) Importance of Machiavelli‟s and
Anderson‟s thoughts on world politics.
41
95)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(1)
(c) (1)
(2)
(b)
(d)
जैसे
(2)
(1)
(2).
96)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(a)
(1), (3)
(4)
(b)
(2), (3)
(4)
(c)
(1), (2)
(3)
97)
(d) (3)
(Q 97- Q 99 )
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
42
(i) Ram noticed that all the people present in
the room had scored a distinct number of points
(depends upon kind of play) whereas Balram
scored the same number of points as he did.
98) According to the theme given in the
passage, which of the following statement/s
is/are true for the term „Nation‟ and „State‟?
(1) Nation is a religious concept.
(2) State is a politico-legal concept.
(3) Nation is a cultural concept.
(4) When cultural identity synchronizes with
politico-legal concept it becomes the „NationState.‟
(ii) Each of two younger ones present in the
room scored exactly 2 points more than their
elder ones.
(iii) Nobody scored more than five or less than
one point Balram won by a prime number of
points.
given below:
100) Who scored Minimum number of
points?
(a) (1), (2) and (3) Only
(b) (2), (3) and (4) Only
(c) (1), (3) and (4) Only
(d) All are correct.
99) Which of the following can be inferred
about Niccolo Machiavelli‟s The Prince?
(a) Raj
(b) Shyam
(c) Ram
(d) Cannot be determined.
101) What is the total number of points
scored by Shyam-Ghanshyam?
(1) It‟s a political philosophy which talks about
how to rule the state.
(2) It‟s a theoretical book on how to overcome
other states power.
(3) It‟s political book that first differentiates
between the „Nation‟ and the „State‟.
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 9
102) Who scored maximum number of
points?
given below:
(a) Raj
(b) Shyam
(a) (1) Only
(b) (1) and (2) Only
(c) Ram
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (1), (2) and (3).
103) What is the difference between the
points of Raj and Ram?
Directions (Qs. 100- 103):
(a) 1
(b) 2
Three pair of siblings Ram- Balram, ShyamGhanshyam and Raj-Gajraj in the order of elder
brother-younger brother are playing carom
tournament one on one. Ram plays against
Gajraj, Shyam plays against balram and rest
two plays the third game. When all matches
were finished, Balram left the room
(c) 3
(d) 4
104) A man buys oranges at the rate of Rs 2
for 6 and sells the whole lot at the rate of Rs.
3 for 7. In this process he gained Rs. 20. How
many oranges did he purchase?
(a) 210
(b) 105
(c) 250
(d) None of these.
Further information is also given below.
43
98)
(i)
(1)
(ii)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(iii)
(a)
(1), (2)
(3)
100)
(b)
(2), (3)
(4)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1), (3)
(4)
(d)
(c)
(d)
99)
101)
(1)
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 9
(2)
102)
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
103)
(a)
(1)
(c)
(2)
(b)
(3)
(1)
(d) (1), (2)
(2)
(3)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
104)
:
44
(a) 210
(b) 105
(c) 250
(d)
Directions (Qs. 105- 106):
Ramu, Rajat and Rohit have 32, 56 and 72
coins respectively which they want to distribute
among some poors such that any poor gets
coins from at most one person. Find:
Directions (Qs. 110-111):
105) Maximum number of poors that can be
served such that every poor gets equal
number of coins.
(a) If statement (1) alone is sufficient to solve
the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
(a) 8
(c) 20
Each of the following questions is followed
by two statements (1) and (2). Mark your
answer as:
(b) If statement (2) alone is sufficient to solve
the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
(b) 11
(d) 160
(c) If neither statement (1) nor statement
(2) is individually sufficient to solve the
question, but a combination of both is
sufficient to solve the question.
106) Maximum number of poors that can be
served such that every poor gets maximum
equal number of coins.
(a) 8
(c) 20
(b) 11
(d) 160
(d) If both the statements taken together are not
sufficient and more information is required to
solve the question
107) find the value of
110) If P and Q are two perfect squares,
what is the value of P + Q?
(𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟑 − (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟑
(𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑 𝐗 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕 + (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟐
(a) 0.004
(c) 0.56
Statement
1. P and Q are both 2-digit number and
P + Q is a perfect square.
(b) 0.102
(d) 0.006
2. P + Q is an even number.
108) If p, q and r are real numbers and
𝒑 + 𝒒 + 𝒓 𝟑 = 343
and pq + qr + pr = 10, then what will be the
greatest value of p?
(a) 2
(c) 29
111) The probability of selection of white
ball is 7/11.Find the number of permutations
possible among all the balls. If all the balls,
in the box from which they are drawn of
same colour, are identical.
(b) 7
(d) 5
Statement
109) In a certain game, two balls are selected
at random from a container with 100 balls,
numbered from 1 to 100, both inclusive. If
the winner of a game, is awarded a cash
prize in the amount of 1,000 times the
product of the numbers on the two selected
balls, which of the following is a possible
amount of the
cash prize given to the winner?
(a) 9.85 × 106
(c) 9.9 × 107
1. Balls were of a maximum of 2 colours.
2. Balls were a maximum of 3 colours with
3 red balls.
(b) 9.9 × 106
(d) 1.00 × 108
45
:
:
(1)
(2)
(a)
105)
(b)
(a) 8
(c) 20
(b) 11
(d) 160
(c)
106)
(a) 8
(c) 20
(d)
(b) 11
(d) 160
107)
110)
P
Q
P + Q
(𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟑 − (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟑
(𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑 𝐗 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕 + (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟐
(a) 0.004
(c) 0.56
(b) 0.102
(d) 0.006
1. P
108)
p, q
r
𝟑
𝒑 + 𝒒 + 𝒓 = 343
pq + qr + pr = 10,
P+Q
2. P + Q
p
111)
(a) 2
(c) 29
(b) 7
(d) 5
109)
1.
2.
(a) 9.85 × 106
(c) 9.9 × 107
Q
(b) 9.9 × 106
(d) 1.00 × 108
46
7/11
Directions (Qs. 112-113):
Study the following information to answer
the given questions:
them is replaced by 0. What can be said
about p?
(a) p is less than 5.
(b) p is greater than 5.
(c) p is equal to 5.
(d) None of these.
M, N, O, P, Q and R seated in a circle facing
the centre. M and O are seated adjacent to each
other and Q and N are also adjacent to each
other. N is the immediate left of R. There are
two persons between P and Q. M is not seated
adjacent to Q.
117) Mohan is hired for 30 days on follwing
conditions:
(i) For each day he works, gets Rs 60.
(ii) For each day he doesn‟t work, he pays back
Rs 90.
112) Who is the immediate left of Q?
(a) O
(b) N
(c) R
(d) None of these.
At the end of the month he gets nothing then
for how many days did he work?
113) How many persons are seated between
R and Q if we go anticlockwise from R to Q?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 20
(d) 15
(c) 3
(d) None of these.
118) In a group of Six men, there are 4
cricketers, 4 footballers, 1 actor and 3
musicians. A and B are among the musicians
while C and D are not musicians. D and E
are among the cricketers. B, C, D and E are
all footballers and two of them are also
musicians. If F is an actor, who among the
following is both a cricketer and musician?
114) Three of the following four are alike in
a certain way based on their seating
positions in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
(a) OR
(b) PQ
(c) NM
(d) NP
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
115) One-third, one-fourth, one-fifth and
one-seventh of the human population of
Wasseypur, which has fewer than five
hundred human inhabitants, are all
whole numbers, and their sum is exactly the
human population of Jhumritaliyaa. What is
the human population of Jhumritaliyaa?
119) What quantity of pure milk should be
added to 100 litre of 88% milk solution to
make it 95% milk solution?
(a) 100 lit.
(b) 120 lit.
(a) 420
(b) 840
(c) 130 lit.
(d) 140 lit
(c) 389
(d) 287
116) The average of five different positive
numbers is 25. p is the decrease in the
average when the smallest number among
47
:
p
p
(a) p, 5
M, N, O, P, Q
R
(b) p, 5
M
O
Q
(c) p, 5
N
(d)
N, R
P
Q
117)
M, Q
(i)
112) Q
(a) O
(b) N
(c) R
(d)
113)
R
Rs 60
(ii)
Rs 90
Q
R
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d)
Q
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 15
118)
A
114)
C
B, C, D
D
D
E
F
(a) OR
(b) PQ
(c) NM
(d) NP
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
115)
119)
(a) 420
(c) 389
(b) 840
(d) 287
116)
0
48
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 130
(d) 140
B
E
120) Two trains travel in opposite directions
at 30 kmph and 42 kmph respectively. A
man sitting in the slower train passes the
faster train in 8 sec. The length of the faster
train is:
1960. The lawmakers decision was directly
based on which of following assumption?
(a) 200 m
(b) 150 m
(b) Women were superior to men in the ability
to make political decisions.
(c) 175 m
(d) 160 m
(a) Women would vote in ways that would
make the state a better place to live.
(c) Women would want to live in place where
they could vote.
121) After rolling two dices, what is the
probability of getting 3 on first dice and 4 on
second dice?
(a)
(c)
1
9
1
27
(b)
(d)
(d) Women who were willing to endure frontier
conditions deserved the right to vote.
1
18
125) Rajesh has just seen two regions:
therefore the next bird Rajesh sees, will be a
Pigeons. Which of the following, if true,
most strengthens the argument above?
1
36
122) M is C‟s Son, C and S are sisters, D is
S‟s mother. T is the son of D. Which of the
following statement is true?
(a) Pigeons tend to move in flocks.
(b) Pigeons do not move in scattered way and
are considerable close to each other always.
(a) T and M are cousins.
(b) T is the paternal uncle of M.
(c) Rajesh is in city A and pigeons are
generally seen in city A.
(c) S is M‟s grandmother.
(d) Rajesh has never seen Pigeons in other
places than the place where he is now.
(d) C and T are siblings.
123) Three friends Sachin, Saurav, and
Sehwag are talking to each other about the
fours hit by Gawaskar in a match. Sachin
says it is at least 10. Saurav says it is less
than 10. Sehwag says it is at least 1. If you
know that only one of the three friends is
right, how many fours did Gawaskar hit?
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 0
(d) 12
126) The daily work of 2 men is equal to 3
women or that of 4 youngsters. By
employing 14 men, 12 women, and 12
youngsters a certain work can be finished in
24 days. If it requires to finish it in 14 days
and as an additional labour, only men are
available, how many of them will be
required?
124) Because they were anxious to balance
the population of 8,000 men and 2,000
women in the state, the state‟s lawmakers
extended voting rights to women in the year
49
(a) 20
b) 18
(c) 48
(d) 28
120)
(a)
(a) 200
(b) 150
(c) 175
(d) 160
(b)
121)
(a)
(c)
(c)
1
(b)
9
1
(d)
27
122) M, C
(d)
1
18
1
125)
36
C
S
D, S
T, D
(a) T
(a)
M
(b) T, M
(b)
(c) S, M
(d) C
T
(c)
123)
A
A
(d)
126)
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 0
(d) 12
124)
50
(a) 20
(b) 18
(c) 48
(d) 28
127) What is the number of digits in the
product
(100 –1) (100 – 2) (100 – 3) ........ (100 – 199)
(100 – 200)?
130) In which year, least number of children
died?
(a) 2010
(c) 2012
(a) 1
(b) 400
(c) 0
(b) 2011
(d) 2013
Directions for (Q 131- Q 132 ):
Production of cars by A, B, C and D in three
different years is shown below
(in thousands).
Directions for (Q 128- Q 130 ):
The graph given below shows information
related to children who took birth and their
survival during 2009 to 2013.
131) How many companies are there in
which the production is not increased in any
given years over previous year?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
128) In how many year the number of
children that survived were more than the
average number of children that survived
during the given period?
(a) 0
(c) 2
132) Find the percentage increment in the
average production in 2013 over 2011.
(b) 1
(d) 3
(a) 57%
(b) 58.5%
(c) 59.5%
(d) 60%
129) In which year, the percentage increase
in the number of children that survived over
previous year is maximum?
(a) 2010
(c) 2012
(b) 2011
(d) 2013
51
(100 – 1) (100 – 2) (100 – 3)
127)
130)
......................
(100 – 199) (100 – 200)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) 1
(b) 400
(c) 0
(d)
(Q 131- Q 132 )
A, B, C
(Q 128- Q 130 )
रेने
131)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
128)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
132)
(a) 57%
(b) 58.5%
(c) 59.5%
(d) 60%
129)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
52
D
Directions for (Q 133- 135) : Decision
making question, so there is no negative
marking for these 3 questions.
Temple authorities have not requested for
any arrangements as such. Now, the district
administration which is responsible to take
care of any arrangement should be doing
what?
133) In an Annual General Meeting, the
chairman of the company was addressing his
employees. Suddenly, a group of few
employees were raising slogans against the
company policies, shouting for just work
condition. Now, at this juncture what should
be the chairman's response?
(a) Consulting temple authority whether they
need any arrangement or not.
(b) Asking newspaper team what type of
arrangement should be these.
(a) He should order those employees to leave
the premise as this is indiscipline at its best.
(c) Sending a team to micro-inspect the
situation and suggesting if anything can be
done.
(b) He should immediately take cognizance of
their grievances and should address the
meeting later on.
(d) It would be improper to interfere in these
religious matters.
(c) He should request those employees to meet
him personally immediately after the meeting
is over.
(d) He should order his personal assistant to
learn their grievances.
134) You have been recently appointed as
the superintendent of police in a district
where so many youth's are indulged in drugs
consumption. Many social law and order
problems have also emerged because of it.
Now, as the police authority, what would be
your top most priority?
(a) Giving severe punishment to those who are
consuming drugs and are eventually becoming
menace for the society.
(b) Improving police intelligence to control the
supply of drugs and organizing drug
renouncement camp on the regular basis.
(c) Identifying those people who are habitually
consuming drugs and put them under some
Medical observation.
(d) Cracking down on drug peddlers and posing
severe punishment for Anti social activities.
135) Because of religious festival, one temple
is overcrowded from devotees and the local
newspaper is reportedly saying that their
are no arrangements to handle any mishaps.
53
Directions for (Q 133-135) : Decision making
question, so there is no negative marking for
these 3 questions.
(d)
133)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
54
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
55
जफ िक आऩको मह ऩयीऺण ऩुस्तिका खोरने को न कहा जाए िफ िक न खोरें
SAMPLE PAPER FOR
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मा छूटा हुआ ऩष्ृ ठ आदि न हो & मदि ऐसा है , िो इसे सही प्रश्न ऩुस्तिका से फिरने Ho$ {bE AZwamoY {H$OrE &
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go EH$ {VhmB© A§H$ िॊ ड Ho$ én _o§ KQmE± OmE§Jo &
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OmEJm Am¡a Cna {XE JE AZwgma Cgo िॊ ड hmoJr &
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56
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
SAMPLE PAPER FOR
DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND
TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE
Time Allowed: 2 Hour
Maximum Marks: 200
PART – III (Essay writing)
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
2.
Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test
booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages etc. If so, request for its
replacement.
You have to write the following detail as per the information provided to you in Admit card.
Name (As in Admit card)
Seat/ Roll Number
Application Id.
Gender (Male/ Female)
Physically Disabled (Yes/ No)
Mobile Number
Examination Centre (Name & Address)
Candidate Signature
Invigilator Signature
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
This test booklet contains Five questions, out of this students have to attempt any Two
question.
You have to write essay only in English language.
You have to write essay in Maximum 1000 Words for each Essay.
After you have completed writing essay and the examination has concluded, you should hand
over to the invigilator this test booklet.
Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in
1
2
Write Essay on any TWO of the following topics, in not more than 1000 words each.
(2 X 100 = 200 marks)
1.
Managing work and home-is the Indian working women getting a fair deal?
कामकाज और घर की संभाल - क्या भारतीय कामकाजी महिला एक न्यायोचित बरताव प्राप्त
कर रिी िै ?
2.
Sciene and mysticism : Are they compatible ?
ववज्ञान और रिस्यवाद : क्या वे संगत िैं ?
3.
Does Indian cinema shape our popular culture or merely reflect it?
क्या भारतीय ससनेमा िमारी लोक - संस्कृती को रूप प्रदान करता िै या कक वि केवल उसको
प्रततबबम्बबत करता िै ?
4.
Credit based higher education system- status, opportunities and challenges
ऋण- आधाररत उच्ि सिक्षा प्रणाली- म्स्ितत, अवसर एवं िन
ु ौततयां
5.
Geography may remain the same; history need not.
भूगोल यिावत ् बना रिा सकता िै ; इततिास के सलए यि आवश्यक निीं िै |
__________________________________________________________________________
Q. No.
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Q. No.
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
Space for Rough Work
23
Space for Rough Work
24

SAMPLE PAPER FOR CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016

Transcription

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