Review Masters - Simulated UPCAT 2011

Transcription

UPCAT Review – Simulated UPCAT
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PREFACE
Believe That You Can Pass the UPCAT!
by Leopold Laset
Do you sometimes find it hard to believe that your dream to pass the UPCAT can become a reality? If so, then there is
something very important that you need to know.
UPCAT is for dreamers like you.
Every student who passed the UPCAT began thinking or dreaming of passing the UPCAT.
Your near-perfect or perfect score in a quarterly test, your cellphone, PSP, or any gadget, your out-of-town (or out-ofcountry) vacation, your new pair of shoes, and any other stuff that you desired and now possess - are all the result of your
‘dream come true’.
What this means is that throughout your lifetime, you have had an idea, you have desired for many things and worked
hard for them, overcome problems and ultimately transformed your dream into reality.
And if hundreds and thousands of students have been able to pass the UPCAT in the past, by starting with a dream, then
it stands to reason, that you can do it too.
Often we make the mistake of thinking that UPCAT is for a small number of bright students who have the brains and
intelligence that we don’t possess.
But this is simply not true.
The fact that thousands of average students have brought their dreams of passing the UPCAT to fruition in the past
demonstrates that the opportunity to qualify in the UPCAT is something that is available to each UPCAT aspirant –
average or bright.
Right now, hundreds of UPCAT dreamers are taking the steps necessary to achieve the goals of passing the UPCAT.
Some are studying this early, some are joining community of fellow dreamers, and some are attending review classes.
What is it that you need to do?
In order to achieve your goal of passing the UPCAT, the only things you really need are:
(1) A crystal clear picture that you already passed the UPCAT
(2) An unshakeable determination to do whatever it takes to make your dream of passing the UPCAT a reality
As soon as you take these two steps, passing the UPCAT becomes achievable. If you need a help – you look for it. If you
encounter a difficult concept – you find a way to understand it. If you can’t solve a math problem – you try and try and
practice more.
And gradually, step-by-step, you bring your UPCAT dream into reality to join the dreams of the thousands of UPCAT
dreamers who have gone before you.
So today I’d like to encourage you to believe in yourself and appreciate the fact that you live in a world where ‘dreams do
come true’.
Understand that thousands of students have made their UPCAT dream a reality in the past – Thousands more will make
their UPCAT dream a reality in the near future and you CAN be one of them.
SIMULATED UPCAT ©2011
MATHEMATICS – 60 items, 60 minutes
1.
2.
3.
Which of the following does not belong to the group?
3
−3
A. 3 + 7i
B. −
C.
4
4
D. 2 + i 5
Which of the following is not an integer?
2
8
12
A.
B. −
C. −
8
2
3
D. 0
0.0424242….. expressed as a fraction is:
42
42
42
A.
B.
C.
1000
999
99
D.
14
330
4.
Given the sets A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} and B = {4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12}. A ∩ B would be:
A. {2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12}
C. {2, 9, 12}
B. {4, 6, 8, 10}
D. ∅
5.
For the given figure, which of the following is TRUE?
a
c2
A.
>0
b
6.
b
0
d −c
B.
>0
a
6 − 9 + 4 = _______.
A. –1
B. 1
c
d
a2
C. 2 > 0
c
D.
C. 3
D. 7
a
<0
b
7.
An inlet pipe can fill a tank in 1 hour. Another inlet pipe can fill the same tank in
45 minutes. How much time will it take to fill the tank if both pipes were opened?
A. 25 5 minutes
C.52 1 2 minutes
7
B. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour 45 minutes
8.
Solve for x: 3 + x – (4x + 4) = 5 – x
A. x = – 3
B. x = – 3
2
9.
C. x = – 1
D. x = 1
Which of the following demonstrates the commutative property?
1
A. 3 ⋅ = 1
C. a (5 − c) = 5a − ac
3
1
1 
B.  k  x = (kx )
D. (7 + y ) + h = h + (7 + y )
4
4 
1|Page
10.
Factor: 2x4 – 32
A. 2(x4 – 16)
B. 2(x – 4)(x + 4)
11.
Find the product of the expression:
A.
12.
x−6
4x +1
C. 2(x2 + 4)(x – 2)(x +2)
D. 2(x – 2)(x +2)(x – 2)(x +2)
B.
3x − 6
4x + 4
Find the value in lowest terms:
x−2 3
⋅
4 x +1
x2 − x − 2
C.
12
D.
12
x −x−2
2
3+3
3
A. 1+
3
3
13.
B.
3+ 3
3
C. 1+ 3
D. 2
Find the solution set of the equation: 8x2 + 10x = 3
 3 1
 3 1
 1 1
A. − , 
B. − , 
C. − , 
 2 4
 4 2
 8 3
14.
Find the values that satisfy the inequality x2 – 5x – 6 < 0
A. x < –6 or x > 1
C. x < –3 or x > –2
B. –1 < x < 6
D. –3 < x < –2
15.
Solve the equation
A. 7
16.
3 x + 8 13 x + 4
=
7
21
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Assuming that the variables represent nonzero numbers, which statement is
NOT true?
xy
x
A. n x ⋅ n y = n xy
C.
=
y
y
B.
x+ y = x + y
D.
x
y
17.
18.
D. {4,−3}
=
x
y
What is the slope of the line 3x + 4y = -12?
3
4
4
A. −
B. −
C.
3
4
3
Find the distance between the points ((–7, 4) and (–2, –8)
A. 17
B. 41
C. 13
2|Page
D. –3
3
D. 15
19.
What is the equation of the line that passes through the point (–4,
(
5) and is
parallel to 2x – y = 4?
A. 2y – x = 13
B. y – 2x = 3
C. y + 2x = 3
D. y – 2x =13
20.
What is the radius of the circle with the equation x2 + y2 – 32 = 0
A. 16
B. 32
C. 3 2
D. 4 2
21.
The domain of the function f(x) =
A. {x/x ≠ 0}
22.
23.
24.
25.
B. {x/x ≠ 5}
3x + 1
is
2x − 5
C. {x/x ≠ 5/2}
D. {x/x ≠ –5/2}
Given the function f(x) = x2 – 3x + 4, find f(-5).
A. –5
B. –6
C. 14
D. 44
Given f ( x ) = 4 x − 5 and h( x) = x 2 + 5 x − 2 , find ( f o h )(0) .
A. –13
B. –8
C. –2
D. 2
The zeros of the quadratic function f ( x) = 2 x 2 − 4 x are
A. 2 and 4
B. – 2 and 2
C. 0 and 2
D. 1 and –2
The inverse of the function f ( x ) =
A. f −1 ( x ) =
12 x − 8
21
B. f
−1
21x + 8
is
12
( x ) = 12 x − 8
C. f
−1
( x ) = 7 x − 24 D. f −1 ( x ) =
7 x + 24
5
26.
Which of the following is NOT a factor of f ( x) = 2 x 4 − 5 x 3 − 14 x 2 + 5 x + 12 ?
A. x – 1
B. x + 1
C. 2x + 3
D. x + 4
27.
The exponential function f ( x) = a x , a > 0 is
A. negative
B. zero
C. positive
D. undefined
What is the value of b in log b 2 3 = 3 ?
A. 2
B. 8/3
C. 3
D. 8
Evaluate: log 6 3 + log 6 12.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
28.
29.
30.
Which of the following ordered pairs are solutions of the system
A. (0, 3), (4, 1)
3|Page
B. ((-3, 0), (3, 0)
C. (0, -3)
x 2 + y = −3
x2 + y 2 = 9
D. none
.
31.
Evaluate
A. -11
32.
33 .
34.
35.
4
3
−1 2
.
B. -5
C. 5
4 0 5 
Find AB for A = –4
4 and B = 
.
6 − 3 4 
0
20
16
 0 − 15 16 
A. 
B. 
C.

0
20
24 − 12 16 
24
1 + 14 + 161 + 641 + ... = x . Find x.
A. 1/3
B.
¾
D. 11
30 − 12
 0
 − 16 0 − 20
− 18 24 16  D. − 24 12 − 16 




C. 4/3
Insert a geometric mean b
between 2 and 8.
A. -4 or +4
B. -4 or -6
C. -5 or +5
D. 3
D. 4 or 6
The value of k so that the terms 3k+1, 13, 19 form an arithmetic sequence is __.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
9
36.
Find the value of the series
∑ (5n − 2) .
n =1
A. 207
B. 189
C. 171
D. 46
37.
In the expansion of (a4 + b5)8, the 6th term is
A. 56a7b10
B. -56a7b10
C. 56a12b25
38.
How many 4-digit
digit numbers can be formed from the numbers 0-4
0
without
repetition?
A. 500
B. 256
C. 120
D. 96
39.
The probability that Ruth will not pass the UPCAT is 0.23. What is the probability
that Ruth will pass the UPCAT?
A. 0.11
B. 0.23
C. 0.77
D. 0.91
40.
May isang basket na naglalaman ng 3 dilaw, 4 na bughaw, at 5 luntiang bola.
Ano ang kalamangang mangyar
mangyarii na ang mabubunot na bola sa basket ay kulay
dilaw?
A. 1/3
B. ¼
C. 1/5
D. 1/12
41.
If two points of a line lie on a plane, then _________________.
A.
the line lies on the plane
B.
the plane lies on the line
C.
the lines coincides with the plane
D.
the line is parallel to the plane
4|Page
D. -56
56 a12b25
42.
Which of the following sets is non
non-convex?
A.
A circular polygon
C.
B.
A line
D.
An angle
A ray
43.
If the measure of an angle is 3 times its supplement, then the measure of the
angle is ____________.
A.
30°
B.
45°
C.
60°
D.
135°
44.
In a parallelogram ABCD, the diagonal BD separates the quadrilateral into two
triangles. Those triangles are congruent by the correspondence ____________.
A.
DAB ↔ DCB
C.
DAB ↔ DBC
B.
DAB ↔ BCD
D.
DAB ↔ CBD
45.
In what
hat kind of triangle is the length of the median always equal to the length of
an altitude?
A.
Isosceles triangle
C.
Equilateral triangle
B.
Right triangle
D.
Obtuse triangle
46.
Which of the following sets could be the angles of a quadrilateral?
A.
120°, 150°, 60°, 30°
C.
100°, 90°, 75°, 105°
B.
125°, 140°, 50°, 40°
D.
80°, 85°, 95°, 105°
47.
If a line segment intersects two sides of a triangle at the midpoint, then which of
the following is NOT true?
A.
The line segment is parallel to the third side.
B.
The line segment is half the third side.
C.
The line segment intersects the third side.
D.
The line segment is shorter than the third side.
48.
A line L is perpendicular to a plane E. This implies ________________.
A.
every point on L is e
equivalent to E
B.
L is perpendicular to every line on E
C.
L is perpendicular to at least two lines on E
D.
L intersects every line on E
49.
In a parallelogram ABCD, which of the following is true?
A.
The sides are parallel.
B.
Adjacent angles are congruent.
C.
Opposite angles are supplementary.
D.
Side AB is parallel to side CD.
50.
The number of triangular regions into which a square can be divided by joining
vertices is __________.
A.
2
B.
4
C.
6
D.
8
5|Page
51.
The median of a trapezoid is 12 cm. One of its bases is 8 cm. and its altitude is
10 cm. Then its area is ___________.
A.
100 cm2
B.
40 cm2
C.
120 cm2
D.
60 cm2
52.
The congruent sides of an isosceles trapezoid are 5 m each and its shorter base
is 1 m. If its altitude is 4 inches, find its area.
A.
34 m2
B.
54 m2
C.
16 m2
D.
56 m2
53.
The bisectors of the interior angles on the same side of a transversal to two
parallel lines are __________________.
A.
parallel
B.
intersecting but not perpendicular
C.
perpendicular
D.
skew
54.
Given:
ABCD, AB = 8, AD = 6, m∠A = 60. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A.
24 3
B.
24
C.
12 3
D.
48
55.
Find the midpoint of AB for A (-3, 6) and B (5, -2).
A.
(2, 4)
B.
(-1, 4)
C.
(1, -2)
56.
(1, 2)
If ∆ABC, m∠A is greater than m∠C. The bisector of angles A and C meet at point
D. Which of the following is true?
B
A.
B.
C.
D.
D
CD > AD
CD < AD
CD = AD
AD ≤ DC
C
A
57.
D.
The altitude from vertex A of equilateral triangle ABC is 10 meters. How many
meters long is each side of triangle ABC?
A.
400 m
3
B.
20 3
m
3
C.
10 m
D.
10 3
m
3
58.
A square is changed into a rectangle by increasing its length by 10% and
decreasing its width by 10%. Its area _____________________.
A.
remains the same
C.
increases by 10%
B.
increases by 1%
D.
decreases by 1%
59.
A diagonal of a rectangle is 50 cm long. If the altitude of the rectangle is 30 cm
long, find its area.
A.
1200 cm2
B.
1500 cm2
C.
2000cm2
D.
2400 cm2
6|Page
60.
What is the area of the region not shaded?
Each of these is a quarter circle.
8
8
A.
64 - 64π
B.
64 - 16π
C.
16 - 4π
D.
32 - 8π
***END OF MATHEMATICS SUB
SUB-TEST***
TEST***
DO NOT TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
7|Page
SCIENCE – 80 items, 40 minutes
61.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the earth’s crust?
A.
It is divided into the continental and oceanic crust.
B.
It has constant thickness.
C.
It contains aluminum, oxygen and silicon.
D.
It is part of the lithosphere.
62.
Which best explains the solidity of the lower mantle?
A.
It is composed of rocks with very low density.
B.
It has very high pressure.
C.
It is supplied with magma from subduction zones.
D.
It has a very high temperature.
63.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the earth’s core?
A.
It is the innermost layer of the earth.
B.
It has the highest density among the layers of the earth.
C.
It is penetrated by secondary seismic waves.
D.
It is composed of iron and nickel.
64.
Ang mga sumusunod na pangkasalukuyang kontinente ay nagmula sa
Gondwana maliban sa:
A. Africa
B. Antarctica
C. Asia
D. Australia
65.
Ang tawag sa pinagmulan ng isang lindol ay:
A. epicenter
B. fault
C. focus
D. plate boundary
66.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding composite volcanoes?
A. They have gentle slopes.
C. They cause earthquakes.
B. They exhibit explosive eruptio
eruptions.
D. They contain tephra deposits.
67.
Which of the following can scratch quartz?
A. corundum
B. diamond
C. topaz
D. all of the above
Which is not an igneous rock?
A. basalt
B. gneiss
C. gabbro
D. granite
Shale: slate, _________
___________ : marble.
A. limestone
B. obsidian
C. sandstone
D. rhyolite
68.
69.
70.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding minerals?
A.
They can form thru the hardening of organic material.
B.
They exhibit specific crystal structure.
C.
They are solid.
D.
They form thru natural processes.
8|Page
71.
Which of the following agents can cause BOTH chemical and mechanical
weathering?
A. air
B. friction
C. oxygen
D. water
72.
The layer of the atmosphere that exhibits weather patterns is called the:
A. exosphere
C. stratosphere
B. mesosphere
D. trophosphere
73.
Air mass A is 70% saturated while air mass B is 40% saturated. The temperature
of the two air masses is equal. Which of the following is true regarding the two air
masses?
A.
Air mass A hass the higher dew point.
B.
Air mass B would require a less drastic drop in temperature to induce
precipitation.
Air mass B contains more water vapor than air mass A.
C.
D.
none of the above
74.
A. barograph
B. hygrograph
C. hygrometer
D. psychrometer
75.
Which of the following best explains why the highest biodiversity on the planet is
found at tropical areas?
A.
There is no winter.
B.
There is abundant rainfall.
C.
There are more natural resources in tropical areas.
D.
Typhoons are rare in tropical areas.
76.
Which of the following statements is true?
A.
Density increases as altitude increases.
B.
Pressure increases as altitude increases.
C.
Density is directly proportion
proportional to pressure.
D.
Density is directly proportional to temperature.
77.
The energy source that drives the earth’s weather climates is the:
A. air temperature
C. ocean currents
B. magnetic field of the earth
D. sun
78.
This refers to the surface of the sun.
A. corona
B. chromosphere
79.
C. photosphere
D. stratosphere
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi kabilang sa grupo?
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Neptune
9|Page
D. Uranus
80.
A. black hole
B. pulsar
C. red giant
D. white dwarf
81.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.
The sole energy source of an ecosystem is the sun.
B.
Herbivores comprise the 3rd trophic level in a food chain.
C.
All organisms are acted upon by decompos
decomposers.
D.
The base of a food pyramid is composed of consumers.
82.
Which symbiotic relationship does not belong to the group?
A. bees and flowers
C. hermit crabs and sea anemones
B. sharks and remoras
D. algae and fungus in a lichen
83.
Which does not belong to the group?
A. mushrooms
B. Penicillium (the source of penicillin)
C. slime molds
D. yeast
84.
The following are found in all cells except:
A. cell membrane
C. nucleus
B. cytosol / cytoplasm
D. ribosome
85.
Which of the following
ollowing organelles is double
double-membraned?
A. endoplasmic reticulum
C. nucleolus
B. mitochondria
D. peroxisome
86.
Which of the following is TRUE?
A.
Plant cells lack cell walls.
B.
The cell membrane functions to mechanically protect the cell.
C.
Prokaryotic cells do not contain DNA.
D.
Animal cells possess vacuoles.
87.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the steps in photosynthesis?
A.
They are energy requiring.
B.
The light-independent
independent reaction occurs only at night.
C.
It requires oxygen.
D.
all of the above
88.
An organism has a chromosome number: 2n = 14. What is the chromosome
number of one of its skin cells?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 56
89.
A cell has 4 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would move to the
opposite poles during anaphase?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
10 | P a g e
90.
Which of the following BEST describes the evolutionary advantage of meiosis
over mitosis?
A.
Meiosis regenerates lost or worn down cells.
B.
Meiosis ensures the perpetuation of sexually re
reproducing
producing organisms.
C.
Meiosis generates variation thru genetic recombination.
D.
all of the above
91.
The following are products of photosynthesis except:
A. carbon dioxide
C. oxygen
B. water
D. glucose
92.
Which best explains why angiosperms are the most successful group of plants?
A.
They produce flowers and fruits.
B.
They are the most numerous among the plant groups.
C.
They can employ more modes of pollen and seed dispersal.
D.
They are woody plants.
93.
The plant hormone
mone responsible for rapid cell division
A. auxins
B. cytokinins
C. gibberellins
94.
A. club mosses
C. horsetails
B. ferns
D. liverworts
95.
Which of the following is a characteristic of most monocots?
A.
They have one cotyledon in their flowers.
B.
They have netted venation.
C.
They have fibrous roots.
D.
all of the above
96.
A. corals
B. jellyfish
C. milkfish
D. terpenes
D. starfish
97.
Which of the following is not a function of epithelial tissues?
A. excretion
B. locomotion
C. protection
D. reproduction
98.
The enzyme that digests fat:
A. amylase
B. bile
99.
C. lipase
D. protease
Which of the following best describes the ability of the DNA to carry diverse
genetic variation?
It has a specific sequence of phosphate groups.
A.
B.
It has a specific sequence of sugars.
C.
It has a specific sequence of nitrogen bases.
D.
all of the above
11 | P a g e
100.
Color blindness is an X
X-linked
linked recessive trait. A color blind man marries a normal
sighted woman. They have a colorblind son. Which of the following statements is
true?
A.
The son got a colorblind gene from his mother alone.
B.
The son got a colorblind gene from his father alone.
C.
The son got a colorblind gene from both parents.
D.
It is impossible for them to have a colorblind son.
101.
Two cylinders X and Y are identical. 20.0 g of O2 (molar mass = 32.0 g mol-1) is
introduced into cylinder X and 20.0 g of N2 (molar mass = 28.0 g mol-1) is
introduced into cylinder Y. Both cylinders are then closed. The temperature of
both cylinders is the same. Assuming both O2 and N2 behave as ideal gases,
which one of the following statements is correct?
A.
The gas pressure in the O2 cylinder is higher than that in the N2 cylinder.
B.
The gas pressure in the O2 cylinder is lower than that in the N2 cylinder.
C.
The gas pressure in the two cylinders is equal.
D.
The pressures cannot be compared without knowing the ttemperature.
emperature.
102.
Flask A is filled with 20.0 g of CO gas at 100 °C and another identical flask B with
20.0 g N2 gas at the same temperature. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
[ Molar masses (g mol--1) CO = 28.0; N2 = 28.0]
A.
The pressures of the gases in the two flasks are identical.
B.
The pressure of CO in flask A is higher than that of N2 in flask B.
C.
The pressure of CO in flask A is lower than that of N2 in flask B.
D.
The pressure of CO in flask A is twenty times that of N2 in
n flask B.
103.
A gas in a container of fixed volume is heated from 100°C to 200°C. Which of the
following is the best estimate of what will take place to the pressure of the gas?
A.
Remain the same
C. Decrease by a factor of 2
B.
Increase by a factor of 2
D. Increase by a factor of 1.3
104.
Heavy water, D2O (mol. wt. = 20.03) can be separated from ordinary water by the
difference in the relative rates of diffusion of the molecules in the gas phase.
Determine the relative rate of diffusion of H2O to D2O.
(Atomicc weights: O = 16.00, H = 1.00).
A.
1.05
B. 1.11
C. 0.898
D. 0.972
105.
The pressure exerted by 0.1 mole of gas enclosed in a rigid container at 50.0 °C
is 5.0 atmospheres. If the temperature of the container is raised to 100.0 °C
which one of the following would be the new pressure of the gas? Assume ideal
gas condition.
A.
2.5 atm
B. 5.8 atm
C. 10.0 atm
D. 100 atm
12 | P a g e
106.
Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?
A.
argon
B. fluorine
C. potassium
D. lithium
107.
Which one
ne of the following elements has the highest ionization energy?
A.
argon
B. fluorine
C. potassium
D. lithium
108.
When an atom of fluorine becomes a fluoride ion then its size ________.
A.
decreases
C. remains the same
B.
increases
D. none of the above
109.
The modern periodic law states that the properties of the elements are a periodic
function of their ________.
A. atomic mass
C. atomic number
B. atomic weight
D. isotope number
110.
Bohr's model of the atom was based, in part, on which of tthe
he following
experiments?
A.
the deflection of cathode rays by an electric field
B.
the deflection of cathode rays by a magnetic field
C.
scattering of alpha particles
D.
atomic spectra of hydrogen
111.
Which of the following statements are(is) true?
A.
Most of the volume of an atom is taken up by neutrons.
B.
An electron and proton have approximately equal masses.
C.
For any ion, the number of protons is always greater than the number of
electrons.
D.
The existence of both H2O and H2O2 illustrates the law of multiple
mul
proportions.
112.
Which of the following statement best describes an isotope?
A.
Atoms with the same number of protons but differing numbers of
electrons.
B.
Atoms with the same mass number but differing atomic numbers.
C.
Atoms with the same mass numbers and tthe
he same atomic numbers.
D.
Atoms with the same atomic numbers but differing mass numbers.
113.
Which one of the following electron configurations represents an element which
belongs to Period 2 of the Periodic Table and forms a monoatomic ion with a
charge of 3-?
A.
1s2 2s2 2p2
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
2
2
3
B.
1s 2s 2p
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
13 | P a g e
114.
Natural
tural gas is composed mostly of methane and ethane. Natural gas is
________.
A.
An element
C. A mixture
B.
A compound
D. A subatomic particle
115.
Water is always composed of 11% hydrogen and 89% oxygen by weight. This
statement illustrates the law of ________.
A.
Conservation of mass
C. Multiple proportions
B.
Definite proportions
D. Conservation of energy
116.
Which substances is made up of polar covalent molecules?
A.
S8
B. Na2S
C. H2S
D. NaF
117.
A chemical bond formed by the equal sharing of electrons is called ________.
A.
ionic
C. polar covalent
B.
nonpolar covalent
D. coordinate
118.
The simplest compound of carbon with hydrogen is ________.
A.
CH
B. CH2
C. CH3
D. CH4
119.
All of the following are bases except ________.
A.
KOH
B. NH3
C. NaOH
D. HCN
120.
Which of the following is not a solution?
A.
salt dissolved in water
C. carbonated drinks
B.
steel
D. margarine
121.
If a man can run 8m/s in still air, what will be his speed when running against the
wind?
A.
still at 8m/s
B.
less than 8m/s
C.
greater than 8m/s
D.
the speed will vary from time to time
122.
A man hikes 5 km north then turns east and hikes another 12km. What is the
total displacement of the man?
A.
7 km
B.
13 km
C.
17 km
D.
24 km
123.
What is the acceleration due to gravity of a stone thrown downward?
A.
The acceleration of the stone will be greater compared if it is dropped.
B.
10m/s2
less than 10m/s2
C.
D.
none of the above
14 | P a g e
124.
A projectile is thrown upward. Which of the following is not a description of a
projectile at the maximum height?
A.
The acceleration will decrease until it reaches zero at the maximum
height.
B.
The acceleration will be directed downward.
C.
The velocity at the top is equal to zero.
D.
The acceleration will always be constant.
125.
A car is moving
g in a highway with a constant velocity. The following statements
are correct with regards to Law’s of Motion EXCEPT
A.
The car is in a state of equilibrium.
B.
The net force acting on the car is zero.
C.
There are no forces acting on the car.
D.
The forward forces on the car are equal to the rearward forces.
126.
Man A and Man B pull on opposite ends of a rope in a tug of war game. Man B is
winning, who exerts the greatest force on rope?
A.
Man A
C.
Cannot be determined
B.
Man B
D.
both the same
127.
Why is it that you get hurt if you fall into a cemented floor compared to falling on
carpeted floor?
A.
lesser impulse in stopping
C.
both of these
B.
shorter time to stop
D.
none of these
128.
speed motorcycle driver accidentally h
had
ad a head on collision with a bug.
A high-speed
The sudden change of momentum for the bug spatters it all over the helmet’s
windshield. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the
change in momentum?
A.
The change in momentum of the bug is greater tthan
han the driver
B.
The driver experiences a greater change in momentum
C.
Both the driver and the bug experienced the same change in momentum
D.
Cannot be concluded since the data given are insufficient
129.
Which of the following have the highest potentia
potential energy?
A.
A boulder on top of a mountain
B.
An airplane inside a hangar
C.
A man running on an oval track
D.
A truck moving on a highway
130.
What is the force of gravity on a 50 kg woman standing on the earth’s surface?
A.
50 N
B.
250 N
C.
500 N
D.
509.8 N
15 | P a g e
131.
A car slows down while turning in a curve road because
A.
there might be an incoming vehicle
B.
reducing the speed would lessen the centrifugal force
C.
the centripetal force might decrease
D.
The car must maintain a constant acceleration
132.
Three identical boxes are suspended at various depth of a
swimming pool as shown. Which box will experience the
greatest buoyant force?
A.
box A
C.
box C
B.
box B
D.
same on each
A
B
C
133.
Two containers have the same volume; one is filled with sand while the other is
filled with air. When the two containers are fully submerged in water, the buoyant
force is greater on the one filled with
A.
sand
B.
air
C.
the same as long as the volume does not change
D.
data is not sufficient
134.
As the temperature of a metal ring decreases, what will happen to the hole?
A.
It will be bigger
C.
It will remain the same
B.
It will be smaller
D.
It will increase then decrease
135.
Evaporating water vapor actually
A.
warms the surrounding area
B.
cools the surrounding area
C.
cools then it will warms the surrounding area
D.
have no effect on the temperature
136.
A type of heat transfer that occurs in empty space.
A.
conduction
C.
radiation
B.
convection
D.
reflection
137.
As more devices are plugged to a circuit, the over
over-all
all current in the power source
A.
increases
C.
remains the same
B.
decreases
D.
not enough information
138.
Heat a copper wire and its electric resistance
A.
increases
C.
B.
remains the same
D.
16 | P a g e
decreases
none of the above
139.
Energy of a wave is often associated with its wavelength. The lower the energy
A.
the longer the wavelength
B.
the shorter the wavelength
C.
the longer the wavelength then becomes shorter
D.
not affected by the wavelength
140.
When a source of sound approaches you, there is an apparent increase in the
sound’s frequency, this is known as
A.
forced vibration
C.
Resonance
B.
Doppler effect
D.
Interference
***END OF SCI
SCIENCE SUB-TEST***
YOU ARE NOT ALLOWED TO GO BACK TO THE PREVIOUS SUB-TEST.
SUB
17 | P a g e
LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY – 40 items, 15 minutes
Directions: Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the italicized
word in the phrase.
141.
142.
grisly images of the dead and dying are maimed
A. cared for
B. disfigure
C. mutilated
D. silent
bitterness evoked by the war
A. resentment
B. kindness
D. lessons
C. awareness
Directions: Select the word or phrase which is similar in meaning to the italicized word
in the phrase.
143.
144.
arduous task of rehabilitation
A. challenging
B. difficult
C. strenuous
deleterious effect on tourism
A. beneficial
B. devastating
C. developmental D. harmful
D. exigent
Directions: Select the idiom that best fits the sentence from the choices under each
sentence.
145.
146.
The terrorists were not _____ the crimes they committed.
A. absolved in
B. absolved of
C. absolved from
D. absolved about
The Bb. Pilipinas finalists do not _____ the decision of the board of judges.
A. acquiesce with
C. acquiesce of
B. acquiesce in
D. acquiesce into
Directions: Each item is composed of three words. The first pair of words shows a
verbal analogy. Select the fourth word from the options provided
following the same verbal analogy as the original pair of words.
147.
148.
Entomologist : Zoologist : : Insects : _____
A. Agriculture
B. Animals
C. Numbers
D. Culture
Mendel : Heredity : : Newton : _____
A. Magnetism
B. Physics
D. Evolution
18 | P a g e
C. Gravitation
Directions: Each pair of words exhibits a form of association. Under each pair are two
sets of words. Select the pair of words that shows the same
relation as the original pair of words.
149.
150.
Doctor: Diagnosis: : __________
A. Priest: Church
B. Teacher: Grade
C. Nurse: Caregiver
D. Director: Artist
Whale: Mammal: : __________
A. Dugong: Mammal
B. Larva: Butterfly
C. Amphibian: Fish
D. Reptile: Frog
Directions: Choose the determiner or predeterminer that best fits in the sentence.
151.
Easy glider, _____ anaconda can cruise like a submarine and, with its eyes and
nostrils strategically positioned atop its small, flat head, peer above water like a
periscope.
A.
the
B.
an
152.
_____ anacondas tend to ambush their prey, not chase it.
A. This
B. These
Directions: Choose the correct noun derivation from the options.
153.
In choosing music for your wedding ceremony, your first _____ is to keep it true
to the purpose of the liturgy or service being said.
A. responsibility
B. responsible
154.
Music in a ceremony is not merely a form of _____ for your assembled guests
gue
but is an integral part of the service.
A. entertaining
B. entertainment
155.
She is the first _____ in lineage of the Paje’s.
A. major
B. majorette
156.
The women’s choir competition gave a special prize to the most outstanding
_____ performer.
B. countertenor
A. alto
19 | P a g e
Directions: Complete the following sentences accurately by choosing the correct noun
plurals.
157.
Nearly all _____ demand observance of the standard punctuation.
A. editor in chiefs
B. editors in chief
158.
Several _____ worked on the case together.
A. attorneys
B. attornies
Directions: For each sentence, choose the correct pronoun from the options.
159.
Jashmid said that he has been studying English for five years, but _____ fluency
is limited, so we conversed in Russian, his second language.
A. his
B. him
160.
The student stipend is only four dollars a month, so he worked overnight shift in a
cafeteria, _____ provided him with some extra money, hot food, and a cot to
sleep on
n when he could snatch an hour of rest.
A. that
B. which
161.
Mr. Dee and _____ will be visiting the site in Aurora next week.
A. I
B. myself
162.
Much preparation for the seminar was made by Ms. Aquino and _____ before the
brochures were sent out.
A. I
B. me
Directions: For each sentence, choose the correct verb from the options.
163.
A list of assignments _____ sent to the students.
A. was
B. were
164.
There _____ a driver and a conductor waiting at the school lobby.
A. is
B. are
20 | P a g e
Direction: In the following sentence pairs, choose the one that illustrates consistency
in use of subject, voice, and mood. Choose either A or B.
165.
(A)
(B)
166.
(A)
(B)
You
ou need more than technical skills; one also must be able to have
managerial skills.
You need more than technical skills; you also must have
managerial skills.
Jack and Poy were eager to continue, but Packoy wanted to quit.
Jack and Poy were eager to continue, but Packoy wants to quit.
Directions: For each sentence, choose the correct adjective or adverb from the
options.
167.
168.
After the interview, Tim looked _____.
A. calm
B. calmly
If you had been more _____, the box might not have been broken.
A. careful
B. carefuler
Directions: Select the preposition that best fits the sentence from the choices under
each sentence.
169.
_____ Calamba City, at least 1,500 workers from the Partido ng Manggagawa
and the Bukluran ng Mangagawang Pilipino staged a three
three-hour
hour rally
rall at the
Calamba junction of the South Luzon Expressway.
A. At
B. In
C. On
D. Inside
170.
Filipinos celebrate Labor Day _____ May 1.
A. at
B. on
C. in
D. by
Directions: Select the conjunction that best fits the sentenc
sentence
e from the choices under
each sentence.
171.
_____ years, environmentalists worldwide have been doing a lot to raise
awareness on and curtail the excessive exploitation of the environment.
A. Only
B. For
C. Again
D. As
172.
_____, it appears that a great deal of work needs to be done if we are to properly
and effectively preserve the environment.
A. Yet
C. Despite
B. For example
D. In addition
21 | P a g e
Directions: Choose the letter that corresponds to the word/phrase that makes the
sentence
tence inconsistent and confusing.
173.
If you write a page in your diary everyday, you will discover that one learn
A B
C
D
from practice.
174.
He went into his room, closed the door, opened the window and goes to bed.
A
B
C
D
175.
rerouted
We blocked the road, stopped the vehicles and had the traffic will be rerouted.
A
B
C
D
176.
They are sincere when
n you fulfill your promise.
A
B C
D
Directions: Each number has an ungrammatical sentence. Below it are sentences
related to the original sentence. Choose the letter that would correspond to the
best and clearest sentence from the options.
177.
The president’s Independence Day speech will be followe
followed
d by the firing squad.
A.
After the president’s Independence Day speech, the firing squad will
follow.
B.
The firing squad will follow the president’s Independence Day speech.
C.
The president’s firing squad will follow the Independence Day speech.
D.
Following the president’s Independence Day speech is the firing squad.
178.
Next Monday, we will see a program about mothers who gave birth to babies
who are alcoholic.
Next Monday, we will see a program about mothers who gave birth to
A.
alcoholic babies.
s.
B.
Next Monday, we will see a program on alcoholic mothers who gave birth.
C.
Next Monday, we will see an alcoholic program about mothers who gave
birth to babies.
D.
Next Monday, we will see a program on alcoholic mothers and babies.
179.
The motherr took the gift and gave it to the child from the bag.
A.
and gave the bag to the child.
B.
from the bag and gave it to the child.
C.
and gave it to the child from the bag.
D.
and gives the bag to the child.
22 | P a g e
180.
When you take the exam, he/she should expect the worst.
A.
When you take the exam, expect the worst.
B.
When you take the exam, you should expect the worst.
C.
Expect the worst exam.
D.
Expect your worst exam.
***END OF LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY SUB
SUB-TEST***
TEST***
SUB
23 | P a g e
READING COMPREHENSION – 40 items, 30 minutes
Directions: Read the passages and answer the succeeding questions.
Passage 1:
Leslie Cheung—movie
movie star and pop idol turned 46 last September, and he will stay
that age. But he chose a drastic method of shaving off wrinkles, a potbelly, the
whims of fickle public. Last Tuesday he scheduled a tea with his friend and former
agent, Chan Suk-fan,
fan, at a favorite haunt, the Mandarin Oriental Hotel. When he
didn’t show, Chan called Leslie, who was on the terrace of the hotel’s 24th-floor
24th
gym.
He said he’d meet her outside; he’d be right down. It, as a final tease-a
tease sick joke,
really-for when Chan
han came out she found his body on the pavement. He had leapt to
his death.—Richard Corliss, Time April 14, 2003
181.
The title that best describes the theme of the paragraph is
A.
Fatal Step
B.
To Fall from a Great Height
C.
Falling Star
D.
Fallen Angel
182.
The word haunt means
A.
Hunted house
B.
Trouble
C.
D.
Domicile
Hang out
Passage 2:
Yes, phone innovations are everywhere; color screens and built
built-in
in digital cameras are
popping up on lots of new handsets these days. Yet in most cases, these are just
add-ons
ons to the basic phone chassis. Smart phones have a whole different level of
computing power. Packed with new and more powerful chips, they sport up to 32
megabytes of memory and rival personal digital assistants in ter
terms
ms of capabilities.
But their real strength comes from operating
operating-system
system software developed specifically
for mobile handsets by the likes of Microsoft, Symbian and PalmSource. These
systems make smart phones more flexible and programmable; in short, they make
the devices more like portable personal computers. New capabilities can be added by
simply installing additional software.
software.—H. Asher Bolande, TIME, April 14, 2003
24 | P a g e
183.
The main idea of the paragraph is
A.
Yes, phone innovations are everywhere: color screens and built-in
built digital
cameras are popping on lots of new handsets these days.
B.
Smart phones have a whole different level of computing power.
C.
These systems make smart phones more flexible and programmable; in
short, they make the devices more like a portable personal computers.
D.
New capabilities can be added by simply installing additional software.
184.
The author suggests that smart phones are
A.
Easy to upgrade
C.
B.
Complex devices
D.
Expensive gadgets
All of the above
Passage 3:
It is not easy to write a familiar style. Many people mistake a familiar for a vulgar
style, and suppose that to write without affection is to write at random. On the
contrary, there is nothing that requires more precision, and, if I ma
may
y say so, purity of
expression, than the style I am speaking of. It utterly rejects not only all unmeaning
pomp, but all low, cant phrases, and loose, unconnected slipshod allusions. It is not
to take the first word that offers, but the best word in common use; it is not to throw
words together in any combination we please, but to follow and avail ourselves of the
true idiom of the language. To write a genuine familiar or truly English style is to
write as anyone would speak in common conversation who had a thorough command
and choice of words, or who could discourse with ease, force, and perspicuity, setting
aside all pedantic and oratorical flourishes. Or, to give another illustration, to write
naturally is the same thing in regard to common conversation a
ass to read naturally is in
regard to common speech. It does not follow that it is an easy thing to give the true
accent and inflection to the words you utter, because you do not attempt to rise
above the level of ordinary life and colloquial speaking. You d
do
o not assume, indeed,
the solemnity of the pulpit, or the tone of stage declamation; neither are you at
liberty to gabble on at a venture, without emphasis or discretion, or to resort to
vulgar dialect or clownish pronunciation. You must steer a middle cou
course.
rse. You are tied
down to a given appropriate articulation, which is determined by habitual associations
between sense and sound, and which you can only hit by entering into the author’s
meaning, as you must find the proper words and style to express yourself
yours by fixing
your thoughts on the subject you have to write about. Anyone may mouth out a
passage with theatrical cadence, or get upon stilts to tell his thoughts; but to write or
speak with propriety and simplicity is a more difficult task. Thus it is easy
ea to affect a
pompous style, to use a word twice as big as the thing you want to express: it is not
easy to pitch upon the very word that exactly fits it. Out of eight or ten words equally
common, equally intelligible, with nearly equal pretensions, it is a matter of some
nicety and discrimination to pick out the very one the preferableness of which is
scarcely perceptible, but decisive.
25 | P a g e
185.. According to the passage,
A. one should be permitted to speak in any way he wishes
B. getting on stilts should aid on
one in speaking more effectively
C. it is easier to write pompously than simply
D. the preacher is a model of good speech
186.. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements:
A. Bigger words describe complex ideas in a clearer fashion than small words
B. Speaking into a tape recorder will always help a writer to organize his
thoughts
C. The art of speaking and the art of writing share common tools
D. It is necessary to master public speaking before writing
187. When the writer says, “You
You must steer a middle course,”
,” he means that
A. you should speak neither too loudly or too softly
B. you should speak neither to formally or too colloquially
C. you should write as well as speak
D. you should not come to any definite conclusion about what is proper and not
proper in speech.
188. By “cant phrases”” is meant
A. type of language which is peculiar to a particular class
B. a sing song type of speech
C. expressions that consistently indicate refusal to do another’s bidding
D. obscene language
189.. The author mentions all of the following as important to good speech except
A. a good command of English vocabulary
B. the careful selection of words used
C. the use of allusions and metaphors
D. straightforward and precise delivery
26 | P a g e
Passage 4:
Studies serve forr delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight, is in
privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment, and
disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars,
particu
one by
one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best, from those
that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for
ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their ru
rules,
les, is the humor of a scholar.
They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural
plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves, do give forth directions too much
at large, except they be bounded in by experience. Crafty men contemn studies, simple men
admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that there is a
wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to contradict and
confute; nor to believe and take for granted; nor to find talk and discourse; but to weigh and
consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed
and digested; that is, some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not
curiously;; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books also
may be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others; but that would be only in the
less important arguments, and the meaner sort of books, else distilled books are like
l
common
distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man; conference a ready man; and
writing an exact man. And therefore, if a man write little, he had need have a great memory;
if he confer little, he had need have a present wit: and if he rread
ead little, he had need have
much cunning, to seem to know, that he doth not. Histories make men wise; poets witty; the
mathematics subtile; natural philosophy deep; moral grave; logic and rhetoric able to contend.
Abeunt studia in mores. Nay, there is no stone or impediment in the wit, but may be wrought
out by fit studies; like as diseases of the body, may have appropriate exercises. Bowling is
good for the stone and reins; shooting for the lungs and breast; gentle walking for the
stomach; riding for the head; and the like. So if a man's wit be wandering, let him study the
mathematics; for in demonstrations, if his wit be called away never so little, he must begin
again. If his wit be not apt to distinguish or find differences, let him study the Schoolmen; for
they are cymini sectores. If he be not apt to beat over matters, and to call up one thing to
prove and illustrate another, let him study the lawyers' cases. So every defect of the mind may
have a special receipt.
190.. The author believes that
A. every book should be read “from cover to cover”
B. in reading a book, one should skip a page or two if he feels tired
C. the technique of reading one book may, for the same person, be different
from that used in reading another book
D. some
ome books ought to be destroyed
191. “Reading
Reading maketh a full man
man” means that
A. a man who reads much will grow tired of reading
B. a man is not really a man unless he reads
C. reading may allay a man’s physical hunger
D. if you look at a person, you can tell what he reads
27 | P a g e
192.. The writer is most likely a
A. modern writer
B. romanticist
C. classical scholar
D. sports analyst
193.. The author mentions bowling, shooting, walking, and riding in order to demonstrate
A. that as physical activities serve different purposes, so studies can serve
different purposes
B. defects in the mind can be cured by physical activities
C. exercise moves oxygen to the brain and therefore helps the organism to
develop
D. appropriate exercises can stop the mind from wandering
194. The attitude expressed toward outlines in place of books themselves is one of
A. modified approval
C. enthusiastic acceptance
B. utter disdain
D. pretended acclaim
Passage 5:
When we use a word in speech and writing, its most obvious purpose is to point to some thing
or relation or property. This is the word’s “meaning.” We see a small four
four-footed
footed animal on the
road and call it a “dog,” indicating that it is a member of the class of four
four-footed
footed animals that
we call dogs. The word “dog” as we have used it there ha
hass a plain, straightforward, “objective”
meaning. We have in no way gone beyond the requirements of exact scientific description.
Let us suppose also that one grandparent of the dog was a collie, another was an Irish terrier,
another a fox terrier, and a fo
fourth
urth a bulldog. We can express these facts equally scientifically
and objectively by saying that he is a dog of mixed breed. Still we have in no way gone
beyond the requirements of exact scientific description.
Suppose, however, that we had called the same animal a “mongrel.” The matter is more
complicated. We have used a word that objectively means the same as “dog of mixed breed,”
but which also arouses in our hearers an emotional attitude of disproval toward that particular
dog. A word, therefore, can no
nott only indicate an object, but can also suggest an emotional
attitude toward it. Such suggestion of an emotional attitude does go beyond exact and
scientific discussion because our approvals and disapprovals are individual – they belong to
ourselves and nott to the objects we approve or disapprove of. An animal which to the mind of
its master is a faithful and noble dog of mixed ancestry may be a “mongrel” to his neighbor
whose chickens are chased by it.
Once we are on the lookout for this difference betwe
between
en “objective” and “emotional” meanings,
we shall notice that words which carry more or less strong suggestions of emotional attitudes
are very common and are ordinarily used in the discussion of such controversial questions as
those of politics, morals, a
and
nd religion. This is one reason why such controversies cannot yet be
settled.
When during World War II, thoughts were dominated by emotions, the newspapers contrasted
the heroism of American troops with the enemy’s ruthlessness. Now, with the more objective
objectiv
attitude that has been brought by the lapse of time, we can look back and see that heroism
and ruthlessness are objectively the same thing, only one word has an emotional meaning of
approval, the other of disapproval. A soldier going forward under shellf
shellfire
ire to probable death is
doing the same thing whether he is German or American. Applying the word ruthlessness to
the action of one and heroism to that of the other is to distort reality by using words to make
an emotional distinction between two actions w
which are objectively identical.
28 | P a g e
195.. According to the passage,
A. there is no real difference between calling a dog a mongrel and calling it a
dog of mixed breed
B. “a dog of mixed breed” is an emotional term
C. “mongrel” is an objective term
D. words may suggest emotional attitudes as well as objective meanings
196.. The author maintains that in discussing
A. controversial questions, objective terms are generally used to help clarify
meanings
B. scientific subjects, objective terms are generally used in order to avoid
controversy
C. any question, one should at no time use obscene language
D. controversial questions, emotional terms are used very often
197.. The author believes that people have disagreements on subjects because
A. people have not yet learned how to get along with each other without conflict
and argument
B. words used in discussing those subjects carry emotional overtones which
tend to antagonize people
C. words with objective meanings mean different things to different persons, and
must be used carefully
D. politics, morals, and religion cause controversies that cannot yet be settled
198.. The passage indicates that in World War II
A. Americans showed spirit and heroism, while the Germans displayed
ruthlessness and savagery
B. although Americans a
acted
cted heroically, there were occasions when they were
almost as ruthless as the Germans
C. there was no difference at all between the actions of Americans and those of
the Germans
D. most people thought that both sides had fought especially bravely, but with
the passage of time they began to realize how ruthless the Germans had
really been
199.. The tone of the passage is that of
A. controlled emotion
B. cautious neutrality
29 | P a g e
C.. reasonable compromise
D. studied objectivity
Passage 6:
Isa sa napakalaking naiambag ng mga Amerikano sa mamamayang Pilipino ang
pagkilala sa kababaihan. Sa mahabang panahong pagsikil sa kanilang kalayaan ay
nakamit din nila ang pagkilalang malaon ng minimithi. Ipinakilala ng mga kababaihan
ang kanilang kagalingan sa ibat-ibang larangan at aspekto ng buhay.
Kung noon, ang mga kababaihan ay nakatali lamang sa bahay at binigyan ng
tungkulin at pananagutan sa pag
pag-aasikaso
aasikaso ng mga pangangailangan ng pamilya
ngayon, malaya na silang nakakasalamuha sa mga kalalakihan at nakadadalo
na
na rin
sa mga pulong at iba
iba’t-ibang gawaing pansibiko. Kabahagi na sila sa pagbuo
pag
at
pagsasakatuparan ng kagalingang panlipunan.
Malaya na rin ang kababaihang pumili ng sariling kurso
urso sa kolehiyo na noon ay
tanging kalalakihan lamang ang kumukuh
kumukuha
a tulad ng abogasya, medisina at inhinyera
at iba pa.
200.
Ano ang sinikil sa mga kababaihan ayon sa seleksiyon?
A. pananagutan
C. karapatan
B. tungkulin
D. kakayahan
201.
Alin sa mga sumusunod ang nagsasaad ng positibong paniniwala?
A.
May nagagawa ang mga kababaihang di kayang pantayan ng mga
kalalakihan
Malaki ang bahaging ginampanan ng mga kababaihan sa pagsulong ng
B.
kabuhayan
C.
Maraming tungkulin sa lipunan ang kababaiha
kababaihan.
D.
May mga katangian ang kababaihang nakahihigit sa mga kalalakihan.
202.
Anong pamagat ang angkop sa kabuuan ng teksto?
A.
Kababaihan at P
Pananagutan
B.
Kababaihan, Bayani ng Sambayanan
C.
Pagkilala sa mga Kababaihan
D.
Ang Huwaran ng Sambayana
Sambayanan
203.
Ang mga kababaihan ay nararapat lamang na :
A.
Pagkalooban ng pantay na karapatan
B.
Sunud-sunuran
sunuran sa mga kalalakihan
C.
Maging mabuting tagasunod
D.
Managot sa tungkuling pang
pang-magulang
204.
Ang tesktong inyong binasa ay nasa uring ________
A. persweysiv
B.. deskriptiv
C. informativ
30 | P a g e
D. narativ
205.
Kayang iangat ng kalakalan ang kalagayan ng individwal sa aspeto ng
katatagan sa pananalapi at malaking saklaw naman sa ekonomiya ang kayang
ibangon nito.. Ito ay uri ng pangungusap ayon sa layong _______________.
A. nagsasalaysay
C. naglalarawan
B. nangangatwiran
D. naglalahad
206.
Tila tayo ay isang pintor na tumatalakay sa hitsura o anyo ng ating paksa,
maging tao man, bagay o pook. Biniigyan diin ng katangiang kaiba sa iba. Ito
ay uri ng pangungusap ayon sa layon na _
______
A. nagsasalaysay
C. naglalarawan
B. nangangatwiran
D. naglalahad
207.
Ang tono ng teksto ay _______.
A. malungkot
B.. masaya C. nanghihinayang
208.
Layunin ng teksto ang ______.
A. Parangalan ang mga kababaihan
B. Kilalanin ang karapatazn ng mga kababaihan
C. Pahangain ang mga kalalakihan
D. Higitan ang katangian ng mga kababaihan
209.
Paano sinimulan ang texto. Sa pamamagitan ng ______.
A. Paglalahad
glalahad ng impormasyon
B. Pagsasalaysay
C. Paglalarawan
D. Pangangatwiran
D.. nagyayabang
Passage 7:
Si Louie Beltran na kinikilalang Dekano ng “Print &Broadcast Media” ay sadyang isang
napakahusay na commentator. Siya’y kolumnista ng isang kilalang pahayagan, ang
Inquirer. Tinatalakay niya ang mga isyu ng bayan o kaganapang nangyayari sa
sandaigdigan. Ito’y isinasagawa
inasagawa niya ng maayos, walang kinikilingan at naaayon sa
batas ng mass media. Ganoon din and paghahatid at pagbibigay niya ng komentryo
sa kanyang panlinggong programa
programa—“Ang
“Ang Brigada Siete” ng Channel 7. Huwag nang
banggitin ang pang-umagang
umagang programa sa DZBB.
Subalit anumang pag-iingat
iingat at paghahabi ng mga salita, hindi maiiwasang ikaw ay
makasagasa o makasakit ng damdamin ng ibang tao. Ito’y naganap nang mailathala
niya sa Inquirer ang tungkol sa pagtatago diumano ng dating Pangulong Aquino sa
ilalim ng kama nang maganap ang isang kudeta noong taong 1988.
Siya’s humingi ng paumanhin sa dating Pangulo subalit natuloy pa rin ang
pagsasampa ng kasong libelo laban kay Louie Beltran.
31 | P a g e
210.
Sino si Louie Beltran?
A.
Kinikilang Dekano ng “Print &
&Broadcast Media”
B.
Isang magaling na tagapag
tagapag-ulat
C.
Kinikilalang Dekano sa Channel 7
D.
Tagapamahala ng Inquirer
211.
Anong uri siya na mamamahayag?
A.
Matapat
B.
Magaling maghabi ng salita
C.
Walang kinikilingan
D.
Mahusay makisama
212.
Ano ang dahilan ng pagsampa ng kasong libelo ng dating Pangulong Aquino
laban ay Louie Beltran?
A.
Pag-akusa
akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pagtatago sa ilalim ng mesa
nuong kudeta nuong 1988
B.
Pag-akusa
akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pangungurakot nuong 1988
C.
Pag-akusa
akusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pagta
pagtatago
tago sa ilalim ng kama
nuong kudeta nuong 1988
D.
Pag-askusa
askusa kay dating Pangulong Aquino ng pandaraya sa eleksyon
nuong 1988
213.
Anong pangalan ng programa ni Louie Beltran sa telebesyon?
A.
Imbistigador
B.
Saksi
C.
Inquirer
D.
Ang Brigada Siete
214.
Ano ang nangyari sa gawaing komentaryo ni Louie Beltran sa dating Pangulong
Aquino?
Nagsampa ng kasong libelo si dating Pangulong Aquno laban kay Louie
A.
Beltran
B.
Hiumingi ng tawad si Louie Beltran kay Kris Aquino
C.
Nagpahayag si Louie Beltran sa Inquirer ng maling paghusga kay dating
Pangulong
ngulong Aquino
D.
Humingi ng paumanhin sa publiko si Louie Beltran
32 | P a g e
Passage 8:
Kaya sinabi kong nasa panahong tradisyunal ang kulturang Pilipino sa kasalukuyan ay
sapagkat mahihirapan tayong sagutin ang katanungang ito. Nagdadalawang-isip
Nagdadalawang
tayo
tungkol sa pagiging tisoy ng ating kultura. Gusto nating ihagis nang lahat sa dagat
ang kaugalian at kaisipang hiram sa kaunla
kaunlaran,
an, lalong lalo na yaong nagiging balakid
sa kaunlaran sa bansa. Sa kabilang dako naman, sapagkat pinalaki, pinag-aral
pinag
tayo ng
isang
ang lipunan. Kung ang kahulugan ng pagiging maka
maka-Pilipino
Pilipino ay ang pagtanggi sa
lahat ng impluwensiyang banyaga, wala nang probl
problema.
ma. Magsuot ka lang ng bahag,
baha
humawak ng sibat
at at manirahan sa bundok ayos na. Pero kung progreso ang hatol
natin, kailangang buksan natin ang ating pinto sa mga impluwensiyang makakatulong
sa atin. Ang problema na lang ay kung paano natin malalaman kung aling
a
impluwensiya ang makakasama at alin ang kanais-nais.
215.
Ang tonong naghahari sa texto ay:
A. malungkot
B. masaya
C.. mabilis o mabagal
D. nanunudyo
216.
Ang kaisipang ipinapabatid ng texto ay:
A. Tanggapin
anggapin ang kulturang kaunlaran
kaunlaran.
B. Maging bukas sa mga impluwensiyang nakatutulong sa atin.
C. Nasa kulturang tradisyonal ang kulturang Pilipino.
D. Tangkilikin ang sariling atin
217.
Ang texto ay nasa uring:
A. argumentativ
rgumentativ
B. narativ
C. deskriptiv
D. informativ
218.
Batay sa seleksiyon, ano ang kahulugan ng salitang balakid ayon sa
gamit?
A. balbal
B. sagabal
C. istorbo
D. malaya
219.
Ang parilalang nasalungguhitan sa unang pangungusap ay nasa anyong:
A. di-katanggap--tanggap
C. deskeriptiv
B. formal
rmal na salita
D. informativ
220.
Ang salitang nasalungguhitan sa huling pangungusap ay isang
halimbawa ng:
A. Pandiwa
B. Panghalip
C.Pang-uri
D.Pang-abay
***END OF READING COMPREHENSION SUB
SUB-TEST***
TEST***
SUB
33 | P a g e

Review Masters - Simulated UPCAT 2011

Transcription

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