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CAPM
Number: CA0-001
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Exam A
QUESTION 1
A scope management plan in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management
plan prepared
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiation
Colllect requirements
Define Scope
Verify Scope
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
On what is project baseline development established?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Approved product requirements
Estimated project cost and schedule
Actual project cost and schedule
Revised Project cost and schedule
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible
components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Work breakdown structure
Organizational breakdown structure
Resource breakdown structure
Bill of materials
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
what is a tool to improve team performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Staffing plan
External feedback
Performance reports
Co-location
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product
Cost benefit
Stakeholder
Research
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stackholders in a timely
manner. What is an output from information distribution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Earned value analysis
Trend analysis
Project records
Peformance reviews
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving
or deterioring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control chart
Earned Value
Variance
Trend
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and
current?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perform periodic project performance review
Identify quality project standards
Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
Complete the quality control checklist
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an example of risk symptom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Failure to meet intermediate milestones
Force of nature, such as a flood
Risk threshold target
Crashing front loading or fast tracking
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
During what process is the quality policy determined?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiating
Executing
Planning
Controlling
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Responsibility assignment matrix
Project network diagram
Mandatory dependencies list
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Scope verification is PRIMARLY concerned with which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acceptance of the work deliverables
Accuracy of the work deliverables
Approval of the scope statement
Accuracy of the work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Negociating the ontract
Authorizing contractor work
Developing the statement of work
Establishing evaluation criteria
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customers
Project sponsor
Project management team
Insurance claims department
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1.000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today, the
actual expenditure is $1.200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.
Was is the cost variance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
-$700
-$200
+$200
+$500
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
How is quality control performed?
A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determing how to satisfy them.
B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining
corrective actions as needed
C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance prosesses
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance
to quality standards.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
As part of mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost.
You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
A.
B.
C.
D.
BAC
EAC
ETC
WBS
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EV less AC
AC less PV
EV less PV
EV less PV
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
The project management processes in the PMBOK Guide should
A.
B.
C.
D.
Always be applied uniformly
Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
Be selected as appropriate by project team
Be applied based on ISO guidelines
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be
performing them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project sponsor and project manager
Project sponsor and functional manager
Project manager and project team
Project team and functional manager
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all prosses needed to meet its
requirements
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perform Quality Control
Quality Policy
Perform Quality Assurance
Quality Planning
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which process occurs within the monitoring and controlling Process Group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost Control
Quality Planning
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Cost Budgeting
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
The Define Scope Process is in which of the following process groups ?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & controlling
D. Executing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which activity is an input to select sellers process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizational process assets
Resource availability
Change control process
Team Performance assessment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check –Act-Cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto
Ishikawa
Shewart – Deming
Delphi
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flowcharting
Earned Value
Cost-benefit analysis
Pareto Analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the
product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Utilize the change control process
Crash the schedule to fix the defect
Leave the detect in and work around it.
Fast-track the remaining development.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
which tool is used to develop technical details within the project managemet plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert Judgment
Project Management Methodology
Project Management Information
Project Selection Methods
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requested changes, forecast, recommended corrective actions
Forecast, resources plan, bottom up estimating
Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts.
Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project
closure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resource leveling
Parametric measuring
Pareto chart
Earned Value
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizational structure
Organizational Process Assets
Organizational matrix
Organizational Breakdown Structures
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
The product scope description is used to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gain stakeholder ‘s support for the project
Document the characteristics of the project
Describe the project in great detail
Formally authorize the project.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers an non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost-Benefit Analysis
Variance Analysis
Reserve Analysis
Stakeholder Analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
WBS
CPI
OBS
BOM
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Quality Plan
Project Schedule Network
Project Schedule Network
Project Scope Management Plan
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which of the following are inputs to activity Definition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure
Activity List and Arrow Diagram
Change Requests list and organizational Process assets
Project Management Plan and Resource Availability
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Activity resource requirement and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time
Management Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule Control
Activity Definition
Schedule Development
Activity Resources Estimating
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Activity Sequencing
Activity Resource Estimating
Schedule Development
Schedule Control
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical path
Rolling wave
PDM
Parametric
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which activity duration estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Analogous Estimating
Expert Judgment
Optimistic Estimates
Reserve Analysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation
has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Applying calendars
Resource Leveling
Resource Planning
Resource Conflict Management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which of the following outputs from the schedule control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any
performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Performance Measure
Baseline Schedule
Schedule Comparison
Variance Analysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Cost Baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost Control
Cost Budgeting
Cost Estimating
Cost Planning
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert Judgment
Project Management Software
Vendor Bid Analysis
Reserve Analysis
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project Duration is planned be one year. At the completion of week
16 of the project, the following information is collected
Actual cost $50,000
Plan cost $45,000
Earned Value $40,000
What is the cost performance index
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.80
0.89
1.13
1.25
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.33
2.00
0.75
0.5
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV
A.
B.
C.
D.
Positive
Zero
Negative
Greater than one
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Based on the following metrics EV $20,000, AC $22,000 and PV $ 28,000 what is the project CV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
-$8,000
-$2,000
$2,000
$8,000
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost right at the estimated value
Cost under the estimated value
Cost right at the actual value
Cost over the estimated value
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule Analysis
Checklist Analysis
Assumption Analysis
Cost Benefit Anaysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cause and effect diagram
Control Chart
Flowchart
Histogram
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cause and effect diagram
Control Charts
Pareto Chart
Histogram
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ishikawa diagram
Control Chart
Run Chart
Pareto Chart
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Team performance assessment
Roles and responsabilities
Staffing management plan
Enterprise environments factors
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk Register
Risk data quality assessment
Risk Categorization
Risk Urgency
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brainstorming
Strategies for opportunities
Decision Tree Analysis
Risk Data Quality Assesmet
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risk that may have a negative impact on project
objectives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exploit
Share
Enhance
Transfer
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan contracting
Request Seller responses
Select sellers
Plan purchase and acquisition
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
Projects contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed-price cost reimbursable, time and materials
Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed price
Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed price
Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus –incentive
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract plan
Procurement plan
Clousure process
Procurement audits
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twenty-five percent sataff turnover is expected
The technology to be used is cutting-edge
Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment
The product is needed in 250 days.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
A project Management office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project
objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns projects resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
Which of the following correctly explains the term (Progressive elaboration) ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Changing project specifications continuosly
Elaborate tracking of the project progress
Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
What is a function of the project managemet office (PMO) ?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied
to the parent organizations or the clients overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organizations business
objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle
any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost and quality of the
work packages.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Methodology
Standards
Constraints
Interdependencies
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects
of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.
Resource B s roles is that of a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager
Portfolio manager
Work breakdown manager
Program manager
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?
A. Repetitive
B. Unique
C. No outcome
D. Permanent
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Initiating, planning, executing. Monitoring and controlling and closing are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Process groups
Phase gates
Knowledge areas
Project phases
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which of the following is the definition of a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product service or result.
Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
The project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Guide to project management processes tools and techniques
Methodology for managing projects.
Guide for project, portfolio and program management
Standard for project, portfolio and program management.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Which of the following is a Process Group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scoping
Budgeting
Closing
Quality
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional
Projectized
Matrix
Balanced
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as
project time advances?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The influence of stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases
The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes increases
The influence of stakeholders increases the cost of changes decreases
The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes decreases
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
Projects can be divides into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases
known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Complete project phase
Project life
The project life cycle
Project Cycle
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional manager
Project manager
Program manager
Project management office
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
At which of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Final phase of the project
Start of the project
End of the project
Midpoint of the project
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the start of the project
At the end of the project
During execution
Stakeholders have constant influence
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring
its success?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stakeholder management
Monitoring and controlling
Project governance
Project management methodology
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one
after other or at the same time.
Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in the delivering the full product when product
requirements are subject to rapid change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sequencing the delivery phases one after other
Overlapping the delivery phases
Delivering the products iteratively
Delivering all of the products at the same time.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability?
A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. Strong
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
Which Stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sponsor
Portfolio Manager
Program manager
Project manager
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional
Strong Matrix
Balanced Matrix
Projectized
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sequential, Overlapping, Non –Overlapping
Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
Iterative, Overlapping, Non-Overlapping
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which is a true statement regarding project governance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.
Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase
Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 90
A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weak matrix
Functional
Balanced matrix
Projectized
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 91
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requested changes
Approved preventive action
Work performance information
Implemented defect repair
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project stakeholders
Project sponsor and project stakeholder
Project manager and project team
Project manager and project sponsor
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 93
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager is appointed
Stakeholders approve the project
Project charter is approved
Project sponsor approves the project.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
How is the process of collecting requirement defined?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Defining and documenting project sponsors needs to meet the project objectives
Defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet the project objectives
Defining and documenting the project teams needs to meet the project objectives
Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project risk management.
Project scope management
Project time management
Project integration management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which process group can be performed outside the projects scope of control?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop Project Management Plan
Develop Schedule
Identify Stakeholders
Determine Budget
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan Communications
Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Which of the following is defined by a projects life cycle and varies by application area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product
Product oriented processes
Project management process groups
Project management process groups
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 100
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
8
9
12
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam B
QUESTION 1
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Planning
Executing
Monitoring and control
Closing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control)
Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place to
manufacture and test the quality of the coke. Like the machines , people, recording mechanism etc. QC is
doing the actual testing on finished product. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it would
either pass or fail the Q standards.
So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable is
made. Like giving trainings to people, Auditing the process, ensuring everyone understands the process etc are
all QA activities.
QUESTION 2
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the
management process groups to formally complete the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Closing
Executing
Monitoring Controlling
Monitoring Controlling
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which process groups defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was
undertaken to achieve?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiating
Executing
Planning
Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
9
10
12
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
The Monitoring and controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan Quality
Perform Quality Assurance
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control)
Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place to
manufacture and test the quality of the coke. Like the machines , people, recording mechanism etc. QC is
doing the actual testing on finished product. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it would
either pass or fail the Q standards.
So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable is
made. Like giving trainings to people, Auditing the process, ensuring everyone understands the process etc are
all QA activities.
QUESTION 6
Which Process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiating
Planning
Monitoring and Controlling
Executing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Team
Project manager
Customer or sponsor
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Integration Management
Project Time Management
Project Procurement Management
Project Human Resource Management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project Human Resource Management includes the processes required to make the most effective use of
the people involved with the project. It includes all the project stakeholders—sponsors, customers, individual
contributors, and others.
QUESTION 9
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product scope description
Project charter
Preliminary project scope statement
Communications management plan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the projects scope
is managed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enterprise environmental factors
Project management processes
Project scope management plan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The fourth edition PMBOK® defines Organizational Process Assets as “any or all process related assets,
from any or all of the organizations involved in the project that can be used to influence the project’s success.”
Examples include: plans, procedures, lessons learned, historical information, schedules, risk data and earned
value data. Organizational Process Assets fall into two broad categories—Processes and Procedures, and
the Corporate Knowledge Base. The key concept is that these are assets a project manager may use for the
benefit of the project. They work together with Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF’s) to bring those things
outside the project team into focus.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Approved corrective actions
Approved contract documentation
Work Performance information
Rejected change requests
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which of the following consists of the detailed project projects scope statement and its associated WBS and
WBS dictionary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scope Plan
Product scope
Scope management plan
Scope baseline
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected,
how are they documented, how are they verified, prioritised, updated, changed etc. But the scope management
plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. It is the other way round - The Scope Baseline is part of the
Scope Management Plan.
QUESTION 13
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of
the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Build vs buy
Expert judgment
Alternatives Identification
Product analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule management plan
Project management plan
Quality management plan
Resource management plan
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
Resource Breakdown structure (RBS)
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used to create an hierarchical list of the resources. There are
organizational and geographical RBS. Activity lists, resource calendar, and resource estimating are the major
RBS tools.
Resource Breakdown Structure or RBS is an integral part of any effective project management in geneal and
resource management in particular. Managing any project means organizing project resources and project
components, such as the project team members, to ensure that they are strategically productive throughout the
lifecycle of the project.
RBS Tools
Activity List — creating a list of all the project-based activities and every conceivable information about them.
This includes the usual resources employed by the listed activities.
Resource Calendar — making a list of diverse resources regarding their availability over a period of time to
ascertain whether they can be assigned for particular projects.
Resource Estimating — making estimates regarding the variety/volumes of resources that would be employed
for each defined activity in the most cost-effective and productive manner.
QUESTION 16
What cause replanning of the project scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requested changes
Project scope statement changes
Variance analysis
Approved change requests
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A.
B.
C.
D.
WBS directory
Activity list
WBS
Project schedule
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Work breakdown structure, WBS, is a project management technique initially developed by the US Defense
Establishment, which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete the
project. The project management work breakdown structure, WBS, is utilized at the beginning of the project to
define the scope, estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules.
Work breakdown structure, WBS, captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. Breaking down
large, complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing and managing
the project. WBS can facilitate resource allocation, task assignment, responsibilities, measurement and control
of the project.
QUESTION 18
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project
objectives and create the required deliverables?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
Work Performance information
Work Package
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Work breakdown structure, WBS, is a project management technique initially developed by the US Defense
Establishment, which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete the
project. The project management work breakdown structure, WBS, is utilized at the beginning of the project to
define the scope, estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules.
Work breakdown structure, WBS, captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. Breaking down
large, complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing and managing
the project. WBS can facilitate resource allocation, task assignment, responsibilities, measurement and control
of the project.
QUESTION 19
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project boundaries
Project constraints
Project assumptions
Project objectives
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The boundaries of a project are measurable and auditable characteristics that define what belongs to the
project and what doesn’t belong to it. Project boundaries are closely linked to project objectives, they create a
holistic perception of project work, and they define the content of the project in terms of expected results. A
clear boundary statement helps direct the things that are applicable to those areas within the project scope.
EXAMPLE
An organization is going to sell office equipment within The United States. It makes an agreement with a
domestic US distributor. This agreement actually states a project for selling office equipment. The boundaries
of this project will affect US operations only. All other locations are out of scope (that is out of the defined
boundaries).
QUESTION 20
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product
acceptance criteria?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decompositions
Benchmarking
Inspection
Checklist analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The term inspection refers to one of the most critical elements of the entire process that surrounds the
execution and successful completion of a given project. The term inspection refers specifically to the act in
which the project management team, project management team leader, or other interested and significant
parties take the effort to go review the entirety of the project in meticulous detail to determine whether or not the
project meets certain predetermined requirements for completion.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project document updates
Scope baseline
Product analysis
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Define Scope process involves defining detailed description of the project and major deliverables. The
Input, Tools and Techniques and Output of the Define Scope process are:
QUESTION 22
What is an output of Control Scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Accepted deliverables
Work performance measurements
Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Control Scope process involves monitoring the status of project and managing scope changes. The Inputs,
Tools and Techniques and Outputs of Control Scope process are:
QUESTION 23
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Subdivide the estimated cost of individual activities
Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components
Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units.
Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
A project manager needs the project team to make group decision. Which of the following is a method that can
be used to reach a group decision?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert judgment
Majority
SWOT analysis
Brainstorming
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Decompositions is a tool and technique used in which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define Scope and Define Activities
Collect Requirements and Estimates Activity Resources
Create WBS and Define Activities
Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requieremets process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group decision making techniques
Project management information system
Alternative identification
Communication requirement analysis
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is an input to collect Requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stakeholder register
Requirements documentation
Prototypes
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Collect Requirements process involves documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives. The
Inputs, Tools and Techniques, and Outputs of Collect Requirements process are given below.
QUESTION 28
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan quality
Define Scope
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which is an input of the collect Requirements process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirement documentation
Requirements management plan
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements traceability matrix
Project charter
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Requirements Traceability Matrix
Defining the RTM
The Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) is a tool to help ensure that the project’s scope, requirements, and
deliverables remain “as is” when compared to the baseline. Thus, it “traces” the deliverables by establishing a
thread for each requirement- from the project’s initiation to the final implementation.
The diagram shows that the RTM can be used during all phases of a project to:
· Track all requirements and whether or not they are being met by the current process and design
· Assist in the creation of the RFP, Project Plan Tasks, Deliverable Documents, and Test Scripts
· Help ensure that all system requirements have been met during the Verification process.
The Matrix should be created at the very beginning of a project because it forms the basis of the project’s
scope and incorporates the specific requirements and deliverables that will be produced.
How do you create an RTM?
In each of the steps shown above, each requirement must be unique and clearly defined. The requirement is
then part of each critical component of the project. The references throughout the entire process must be
consistent and unique. In order to insure that this occurs, the Matrix traces each requirement and creates a
relationship between each of the processes
Req#: Requirement Number; for each project requirement, begin to list them on the RTM in a numerical order
and group them by function.
Name: Enter the name and brief description of the requirement
RFP #: Request For Proposal (RFP); specify the identification number of the requirement as listed in the RFP.
DDD #: Deliverable Definition Document (Also referred to as the Deliverable Expectation Document- DED);
use the RFP requirement number as a
reference for the DDD that is created for the requirement.
PPT #: List the MS Project Subtask and Task numbers that are associated with the requirement.
TS #: Test scripts should be prepared for the actual testing process.
Verification: Use this field to record completion of the signoff process
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Delphi technique
Unanimity
Observation
Presentation Technique
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Delphi Method is an information gathering technique that was created in the 1950s by the RAND
Corporation. The Delphi Method is based on surveys and makes use of the information of the participants, who
are mainly experts. By using this method, you can get qualitative and quantitative results. The expert surveys
are conducted over multiple rounds until a consensus is reached. After each round, feedback is provided, which
encourages convergence of thought. A key point to note about the Delphi Technique is that while gathering
thoughts, the participants do not know who the other participants are. Hence, participants are not influenced by
others taking part in the process.
Uses of the Delphi Method in Project Management
As you might already suspect, the Delphi Method has many uses in project management. You can use the
Delphi Method for any activity that requires the convergence of expert thought, such as in:
Risk Management: For identifying risks and quantifying risks.
Time Management: For estimating stories or work activities.
QUESTION 32
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan communications
Develop Project Team
Report Performance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product analisys
Ishikawa diagram
Inspection
Requirements Traceability Matrix
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Inspection is a tool and technique for wich of the following processes?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control scope
D. Verify Scope
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably
estimated and managed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Work Product
Work Package
Project deliverable
Scope Baseline
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A work package is a portion of the work breakdown structure that allows project management to define the
steps necessary for completion of the work package. A work package can be thought of as a mini project, that
when combined with other work package units, form the completed project. An individual work package
contains essential steps involved in completion of the work package along with a deadline by which each of the
steps must be completed in order for project management to stay on track. A work package may in itself be
thought of as a deliverable. Work packages allow for simultaneous work on many different components of a
project at the same time by multiple teams. Each team follows the steps defined in the work package and
completes them by the specified deadline. When all teams have finished their individual work packages, the
whole project comes together with seamless integration. Completion of a work package is most often overseen
by a specific person whether it is a manager, supervisor, team leader, or a designated team member. A work
package is usually the bottom tier of the project management process. Related term: control account.
QUESTION 36
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project and product
Staffingand Budget
Stakeholder and Customer
Business and Technical
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Plurality is a type of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group creativity techniques
Group decision making techniques
Facilitated workshops
Prototypes
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which of the followings events would result in a baseline update?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion
Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget
One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.
One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which Schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been
done sequentially
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crashing
Fast Tracking
Leads and lags adjustment
Parallel task development
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fast tracking means that you look at activities that are normally done in sequence and assign them instead
partially in parallel. If you were fast-tracking, you would start constructing the solution in areas where you felt the
design was pretty solid without waiting for the entire design to be completed.
"Crashing" the schedule means to throw additional resources to the critical path without necessarily getting the
highest level of efficiency. For instance, let’s say one person was working on a ten-day activity on the critical
path. If you were really desperate to shorten this timeframe, you might add a second resource to this activity.
Similarities are:
1) Both the approaches are aimed at reducing the schedule
2) Both the approaches require addition of resources to achieve the goal
3) Even though fast tracking doesn't mention the term Critical Path, it's obvious that the Critical Path tasks need
to be done in parallel to reduce the schedule. So, both the approaches involve changes to Critical Path
activities schedule.
QUESTION 40
Wich Schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Human resource planning
Fast Tracking
Critical Chain method
Rolling Wave planning
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM):
According to PMBOK Critical chain method is a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project
schedule to account for limited resources. It mixes deterministic and probabilistic approaches to schedule
network analysis. The critical chain concept was coined by Eliyahu Goldratt. Following few sections briefly
describe the concepts Critical Chain depends on and are useful to understand the example that will follow
shortly after that.
QUESTION 41
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date late start date?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical Path method
Variance analysis
Schedule comprenssion
Schedule Comparison bar chart
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Critical Path Method (CPM):
The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a schedule network analysis technique. CPM was developed by the DuPont
Corporation in 1957.Critical path determines the shortest time to complete the project and it is the longest
duration path through a network of tasks. Critical tasks (activities) are tasks (activities) on the critical path.
To understand CPM further let's first understand nature of the task. According to PMBOK every scheduled task
can be defined by the following four parameters.
• Early Start (ES): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can start.
• Early Finish (EF): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can finish.
• Late Start (ES): Latest possible point in time on which a task can start.
• Late Finish (EF): Latest possible point in time on which a task can finish.
Early Start and finish dates are calculated by means of Forward Pass and Late Start and Late Finish dates are
calculated by means of Backward Pass. Many Tasks have some amount of buffer added to them referred as
Slack Time or Float. Float time is amount of time a task can slip before it delays project schedule. There are
two common types of
floats.
• Free Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying the early start of any successor
task.
• Total Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying project completion.
Mathematically Float is defined as: Float = LS - ES or LF - EF.
Critical path has zero or negative Total Float. A project can have several critical paths
QUESTION 42
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Variance analysis
A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
A critical path diagram
Critical chain analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected
performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost aggregation
Trend Analysis
Forecasting
Variance analysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Earned value is the Actual Amount of Work Accomplished whereas Variance Analysis is the Difference
beween the Amount of Work Planned and the Work actually accomplished. Variance Analysis is applicable
(computed) to the triple constrains in the project i.e. you have 3 Variance Analyses: For A) Scope B) Schedule
C) Cost where as Earned Value is generally calculated for Cost. That is why you see variance Analysis as an
output on all 3 KAs where as You see EV Analysis as an output only in the Cost Management
QUESTION 44
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV= $500
PV=$750
AC=$1000
BAC=$1200
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.67
1.50
0.75
0.50
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behind
the schedule(<1).
Cost performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than
(CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)
QUESTION 45
Which enterprise enviromental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
Marketplace conditions and company structure
Commercial databases and company structure
Existing human resources and market place conditions
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which process involves aggregating the estimated cost of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost baseline
Cost forecasting
Cost variance
Cost budgeting
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC=$ 100,000
PV=$50,000
AC=$80,000
EV=$40,000
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.00
0.40
0.50
0.80
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
the schedule(<1).
QUESTION 48
The project manager calculated a schedule performance index 0.80 and a cost performance index 1.1 for the
project. What is the actual status of this project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Behind the schedule and over budget
Behind the schedule and under budget
Ahead of schedule and under budget
Ahead of schedule and over budget
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
the schedule(<1).
QUESTION 49
EAC (Estimate and complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus and ETC
(Estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EAC= AC + [(BAC-EV)/(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)]
EAC= BAC - AC
EAC= 1-CPI
EAC =EV + [1-(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)/BAC]
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are 4 types of EAC forecast calculation formulas available, but confused when to use each type.
EAC = BAC / CPI
EAC = ETC + AC
EAC = (BAC-EV) + AC
EAC = [BAC-EV / spi * cpi] + AC
Explanation
EAC = AC + Bottom up ETC -- Used when original estimate is fundamentally flawed
EAC = BAC / Cumulative CPI - Used if no variances have occured and same rate of spending will continue
EAC = AC + (BAC- EV)
- Used when variances are atypical /irregular
EAC = AC + ( BAC-EV / Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) - Used when variances are typical(regular).
Assumes poor cost performance
QUESTION 50
Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EV/PV
PV/EV
EV-PV
PV-EV
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Schedule Variance Formula
Schedule Variance is calculated as follows:
Schedule Variance = Earned Value – Planned Value
Earned Value is also known as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). And Planned Value is also known
as Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS).
So you may see the formula written as:
Schedule Variance = BCWP - BCWS
What does Schedule Variance mean?
The result of the Schedule Variance formula is a number. So what does this number mean?
A value of less than zero means the project is behind schedule.
And a value greater than zero means the project is ahead of schedule.
(A value of zero means the project is exactly on schedule but this is very rare).
Exam C
QUESTION 1
Which tool and technique uses a statical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate
estimates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Analogous estimating
Three-poit estimates
Parametric estimating
Bottom-up estimating
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Parametric Estimating: Refers, primarily, to an estimation technique which utilizes the statistical relationship
that exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables. Some examples
of these variables include square footage in a contraction project, the number of lines or code that exist in a
software application, and other similar variables. This information is them implemented for the purposes of
calculating and demonstrating an estimate for the entity of activity parameters. One valuable aspect of
parametric estimating is the higher levels of accuracy that can be built into it depending on how sophisticated
the original data that was built into the estimate turns out to have been.
Analogous Estimating It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation.
It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations. The validity of duration estimates
derived using this method depends on:
- historical information
- similarity of the historical projects
- expert judgement
Three Point Estimation: is a technique used to estimate the time required for a project based on historical
information. This includes:
Most Optimistic:Best case scenario in which nothing goes wrong and all conditions are optimal.
Most Likely:The most likely duration and there may be some problem but a lot will go right.
Most Pessimistic: The worst case scenario which everything goes wrong.
Bottom-Up Cost Estimation Is
*An estimating the cost for each work package in the WBS.
*The most accurate method but it is also the most challenging, costly and time consuming.
QUESTION 2
Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EV-AC
AC-EV
AC+EV
AC/EV
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Cost Variance (CV) Is very important factor to measure project performance. Cost Variance (CV) indicates
how much over or under budget the project is.
Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula
Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC)
OR
Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP - ACWP
The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost has
been to complete the work as of date.
Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budget
Negative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget
Cost Variance %
Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage.
Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula
CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV)
OR
CV % = CV / BCWP
The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less or
more money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage.
Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget.
Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget.
QUESTION 3
Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?
CO= $7,000
CM= $10,500
CP= $11,000
A.
B.
C.
D.
$4,750
$9,500
$10,000
$11,500
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
CE = (CO + 4CM + CP)/6
QUESTION 4
What is the expected activity cost for a projecct having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115,
and a worst case scenario of $165?
A.
B.
C.
D.
$115
$138
$140
$165
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
EC=(140+115+165)/3
QUESTION 5
What does a SPI value greather than 1.0 indicates?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Most work was completed than planned
Less work was completed than planned
Cost overrun for completed work has occurred
Cost underrun for completed work has occurred
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
the schedule(<1)
QUESTION 6
Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Funding limit reconciliation
Scope baseline
Activity cost estimates
Cost baseline
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Under budge and ahead of schedule
Over budget and behind schedule
Over budget and ahead of schedule
Under budget and behind schedule
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
In the earned Value EV is $1000, actual cost AC is $800, and planned Value PV is $1500, what would be the
cost performance index CPI
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.66
0.8
1.25
1.5
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Cost performance Index(CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than
(CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)the budget allotted at that stage.
QUESTION 9
Control, charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what
process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Performance Reporting
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which Tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
scope audits
Scope reviews
Quality Audits
Contro Chart
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A quality Audit is an independent evaluation, inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system to
improve quality performance of a project.
The audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals.
The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projects
or other parts of the organisation.
QUESTION 11
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control chart
Flowchart
Run Chart
Pareto Chart
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. It also shows the elements between a
process or system.
It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out. This can be done with the
actions to take based on the result of each decision.
QUESTION 12
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves caomparing actual or planned practices to those of other
projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Histogram
Quality audits
Benchmarking
Performance measurements analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or project
practices
- In comparison to those of other groups.
- Identify best practics
- In order to meet them
QUESTION 13
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scope Management
Time Management
Communications Management
Quality Management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues.
It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems.
It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes.
QUESTION 14
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Metrics
Less rework
Quality control measurements
Benchmarking
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
What is the ame of the statiscal method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a
product or process under development or in production?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Failure modes and effects analysis
Design of experiments
Quality Checklist
Risk analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Design of Experiment (DOE) is:
a technique to systematically identify varying levels of independent variables.
It determines:
*which variable has the greatest effect.
*what is the relationship between each variable and the quality specifications (with customer focused).
*What is the best value for each variable, ensuring optimal quality or value.
QUESTION 16
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical
characteristics?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scope
Quality
Specification
Grade
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Grade is “a category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use (e.g., “hammer”), but
do not share the same requirements for quality (e.g., different hammers may need to withstand different
amounts of force)”.
QUESTION 17
Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profitability and impact matrix
Expert Judgment
Benchmarking
Risk Categorization
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or project
practices
- In comparison to those of other groups.
- Identify best practics
- In order to meet them
QUESTION 18
Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Actions, decision points, and process drivers
Activities, decision points, and the order of processing
Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing
Actions, decision points, and activities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. It also shows the elements between a
process or system.
It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out. This can be done with the
actions to take based on the result of each decision.
QUESTION 19
Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests,
corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality checklists
Quality Metrics
Quality audits
Process analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A quality Audit is an independent evaluation, inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system to
improve quality performance of a project
The audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals.
The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projects
or other parts of the organisation.
QUESTION 20
Which tool technique uses the 80/20 principle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto Chart
Cause and effect diagrams
Control Charts
Flowcharting
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues.
It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems.
It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes.
QUESTION 21
What is cost of nonconformance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rework
Inspections
Trainings
Testings
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Cost of Non-Conformance
>>However, if there is a choice made not to conduct quality activities, there is a potential for costs associated
with any resulting problems. These costs are referred to as the costs of non-conformance. This is money spent
because of failures.
>>Costs of non-conformance can include things such as payments made out on warranties, re-work or scrap,
and/or damage to reputation.
QUESTION 22
What is included in a control chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Baselines
Planned Value
Upper specification limit
Expenditure
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Control Charts are graphs used to analyse and communicate the variability of a process (or project activity)
over time.
The components include the process mean the Upper Control Limit (UCL) and the Lower Control Limit (LCL).
Data points within this range are generally though of as "In Control".
QUESTION 23
What tool and technique includes all cost incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing
nonconformance to requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost of quality
Measure of design
Satatical control
Systematic analysis
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
COST OF QUALITY: CoQ can be defined as the costs associated with not creating a quality product. In
project management, CoQ needs to be consider while estimating costs and performing Life-Cycle Costing
(LCC).
Total Cost of Quality = External Failure + Internal Failure + Appraisal + Prevention Costs
External Failure Costs. These are associated with problems found in the product or service after the customer
has received it. For
example, technical support calls, investigation of customer complaints, product refunds and recalls, lost
customer goodwill, warranty costs, and liability costs.
Internal Failure Costs. These are associated with defects that have been found before giving the product or
service to the customer. For example, bug fixes, regression testing, wasted resource time, and rework.
Appraisal Costs. These are associated with finding quality problems. For example, inspection, testing, and
audits.
Prevention Cost. These are activities that are performed to prevent poor quality. For example, process reviews,
quality improvement team, training, usability analysis, and collecting requirements.
QUESTION 24
In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire
process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:
A. Is under control
B. Is out of control
C. Has increasing trend
D. Has decreasing trend
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
In which tool and technique is possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fishbone diagram
Control chart
Run chart
Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
This is one of the Tools and Techniques of the Perform Quality Control.
Scatter diagrams use two variables, one called an independent variable, which is an input, and one called a
dependent variable, which is an output. Scatter diagrams display the relationship between these two elements
as points on a graph.
The important thing to remember about scatter diagrams is that they plot the dependent and independent
variables and the closer the points resemble a diagonal line, the closer these variables are related.
QUESTION 26
A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which category does
this cost fall?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Appraisal
Internal failure
External failure
Prevention
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To identify quality requirements of the project
To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them
To assess performance and recommend necessary changes
To ensure quality standards are used
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
Ground rules for interaction
Enhanced resource availability
Functional managers become more involved
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Negotiation
Roles and responsabilities
Recognition and rewards
Prizing and promoting
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce amount of conflict?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Clear role definition
Negotiation
Risk response planning
Team member replacement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Conflicts should be best addressed in which manner?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
Early, in plublic, using a indirect, collaborative approach
Early, in private, using a indirect, cooperative approach
As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Role dependencies chart
Reporting flow diagram
Project organization chart
Project team structure diagram
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Organization Chart : A project organization chart is a graphic display of project team members and their
reporting relationships.
QUESTION 33
Whitin a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible
for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional manager
Project Manager
Functional manager supported by the project manager
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Manage Project Team
Manage Project Team involves tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and
coordinating changes to enhance project performance. The project management team observes team
behavior, manages conflict, resolves issues, and appraises team member performance. As a result of
managing the project team, the staffing management plan is updated, change requests are submitted, issues
are resolved, input is given to organizational performance appraisals, and lessons learned are added to the
organization's database.
Management of the project team is complicated when team members are accountable to both a functional
manager and the project manager within a matrix organization (Section 2.3.3). Effective management of this
dual reporting relationship is often a critical success factor for the project, and is generally the responsibility
of the project manager.
QUESTION 34
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
rganizational chart
Organizational theory
Organizational Structure
Organizational Behavior
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Refers to all the theories that attempt to explain what makes people, teams and work units perform the way
they do. I'll talk more motivation techniques (which are a type of organizational theory). "Developing the project
Team." Organizational theory improves the probability that planning will be effective and helps shorten the
amount of time it takes to produce the Develop Human Resource Plan outputs.
QUESTION 35
In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project an their
formal roles and responsibilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Forming
Storming
Norming
Performing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collaboration
Issue log
Leadership
Motivation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
CONFLICT RESOLUTION TECHNIQUES
Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here, the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict, and allows the
persons involved in conflict to find their own solution. No action is taken by the project manager.
Smoothing or Accommodating: Here, the project manager is involved in the conflict, tries to avoid areas of
disagreements, and focuses on commonalities. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions.
Compromising: It is a mid-way approach. Here, everybody loses and gain something. All parties get some sort
of satisfaction. It is a lose-lose approach.
Forcing: Here, decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It can demoralize the
team member and may cause to increase the conflicts. It is a win-lose approach.
Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. Here, the project manager will work with all parties to
find a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. This technique reinforces
mutual trust and commitment.
Problem Solving or Confronting: Here, a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager has
to find a solution. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for the
occurrence of the conflict, encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement,
and then arrives at a solution.
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas
of difference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Withdrawing/ Avoiding
Forcing
Collaborating
Smoothing/acommodating
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here, the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict, and allows the
persons involved in conflict to find their own solution. No action is taken by the project manager.
Smoothing or Accommodating: Here, the project manager is involved in the conflict, tries to avoid areas of
disagreements, and focuses on commonalities. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions.
Compromising: It is a mid-way approach. Here, everybody loses and gain something. All parties get some sort
of satisfaction. It is a lose-lose approach.
Forcing: Here, decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It can demoralize the
team member and may cause to increase the conflicts. It is a win-lose approach.
Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. Here, the project manager will work with all parties to
find a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. This technique reinforces
mutual trust and commitment.
Problem Solving or Confronting: Here, a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager has
to find a solution. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for the
occurrence of the conflict, encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement,
and then arrives at a solution.
QUESTION 38
In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly and
effectively?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Norming
Forming
Storming
Performing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
The resource calendars document is an output of which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Estimate Activity Resources
Acquire Project Team
Develop Schedule
Develop Project Team
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, and
adjust the work habits and behavior?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Norming
Forming
Storming
Performing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decissions. The project team is in which
of the following stages of team development?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Storming
Forming
Norming
Performing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their
ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Team training
Co-location
Team location
Organizatin training
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
co-location represents an organizational technique in which the location of team members is determined in a
strategic way to maximize productivity
QUESTION 43
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflict
management techniques?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Smoothing
Compromising
Avoiding
Forcing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which knowledge area is concerned with the process required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,
collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project integration management
Project communications management
Project Information Management System (PIMS)
Project scope Management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract management
Performance reporting
Project status reports
Information Distribution
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are
all outputs of which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk monitoring and controlling
Manage stakeholders
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Performance Reporting is:
The process of gathering and communicating information regarding the current status of a project as well as
projections for progress over time.
Durng performance reporting:
Information regarding the work being accomplished
resources being used is collected, analysed and displayed in various report formats.
QUESTION 47
Which of the folowing is contained within the communications management plan
A.
B.
C.
D.
An organizational chart
Glossary of common terminology
Organizational Process assets
Enterprise enviromental factors
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection,
distribution, storage, retieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all
outputs of which project management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Manage stakeholders
Scope definition
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert Judgement
Project Management methodology
Stakeholder analysis
Status review meetings
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam D
QUESTION 1
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project 28 potential communication channels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7
8
14
16
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2
QUESTION 2
What information does the stakeholder register contain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication model
Identification information
Communication Method
Identification Plan
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and realtes it to the purpose of the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements, influence, and functional department
Interest, requirements, and functional role.
Requirements, expectations, and influence
Interest, expectations, and influence
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a tool or technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Issue log
Change register
Interpersonal skills
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time series method
Casual method
Econometric method
Judgment method
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Push
Decode
Pull
Duration
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The elements in this model are:
• Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver; eg,
written English, spoken French or a drawn diagram.
• Message: What is sent: the output of encoding
• Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face, telephone, email)
• Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance, culture,
language differences)
• Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts.
A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender and
checked for accuracy against the original idea. Once this loop has been closed both people have a common
understanding of the idea. This does not require agreement or concurrence, but if there is to be a
disagreement, it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute.
Effective communication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Report performance
Communications requirements analysis
Communication methods
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according
specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past months. Which tool or technique is used
in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert judgment
Quality assurance
Quality control
Variance analysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. How many
communication channels are there?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
28
36
42
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2
QUESTION 10
ABC project is a risk for failling to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues.
Team member morale is low.
Who is primrily responsible for the project being a risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Team members who have low morale
Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project
Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations
Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Push
Interactive
Parallel
Pull
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Interactive Communication Interactive communication is the most efficient method of communication to
ensure a common understanding as it is real time.
Interactive communication should be used when an immediate response is required and when the
communication is sensitive or likely to be misinterpreted.
Push Communication Push communication is communication that is delivered by the sender to the recipients.
While the communication can be confirmed that it was sent, it does not necessarily mean it was received and
understood. Push communication should be used when the recipients need the information but it does not
require an
immediate response and the communication is non-urgent or sensitive in nature.
Pull Communication Pull communication is a communication method that provides access to the information
however the receiver must proactively retrieve the information.
Pull communication should be used when the communication is informational only. If the recipients don’t read it,
it will not affect the project.
QUESTION 12
What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Root cause analysis
Assessed probability and impact
Expert judgment
Risk identification
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by
assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Qualitative risk analysis
Quantitative risk analysis
Risk management planning
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Qualitative Risk Analysis
A qualitative risk analysis prioritizes the identified project risks using a pre-defined rating scale. Risks will be
scored based on their probability or likelihood of occurring and the impact on project objectives should they
occur.
Probability/likelihood is commonly ranked on a zero to one scale (for example, .3 equating to a 30% probability
of the risk event occurring).
The impact scale is organizationally defined (for example, a one to five scale, with five being the highest impact
on project objectives - such as budget, schedule, or quality).
A qualitative risk analysis will also include the appropriate categorization of the risks, either source-based or
effect-based.
A quantitative risk analysis is a further analysis of the highest priority risks during a which a numerical or
quantitative rating is assigned in order to develop a probabilistic analysis of the project.
A quantitative analysis:
- quantifies the possible outcomes for the project and assesses the probability of achieving specific project
objectives
- provides a quantitative approach to making decisions when there is uncertainty
- creates realistic and achievable cost, schedule or scope targets
In order to conduct a quantitative risk analysis, you will need high-quality data, a well-developed project model,
and a prioritized lists of project risks (usually from performing a qualitative risk analysis)
QUESTION 14
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may required near term
action?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Probability and impact matrix
Contingency analysis report
Risk urgency assessment
Rolling wave plan
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
sensitivity analysis
Probability and impact matrix
Risk data quality assessment
Risk categorization
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Sensitivity Analysis
Sensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project by
analyzing that effect on the project plan. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. Uncertainty and risk are
reflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. In
practice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost, time or economic
return, and to which the project is most sensitive.
QUESTION 16
When does risk monitoring and control occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At project initiation
During work performance analysis
Throughout the life of the project
At project milestones
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk monitoring and controlling
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis prosess requires that different levels of the risk's
probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk breakdown Structure (RBS)
Risk probability and impact
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
What is one of the objectives of project risk management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decrease the probability and impact of event on the project objectives
Distinguish between a project risk and a project issues so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
Increase the probability and impact of positive events
Removal of project risk
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mitigate
Transfer
Share
Avoid
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transference
Avoidance
Exploring
Mitigation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risk on project objectives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expert judgment
Risk Registry
Interviewing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Interviewing. Interviewing techniques are used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project
objectives. The information needed depends upon the type of probability distributions that will be used. For
instance, information would be gathered on the optimistic (low), pessimistic (high), and most likely scenarios for
some commonly used distributions, and the mean and standard deviation for others. Documenting the rationale
of the risk ranges is an important component of the risk interview, because it can provide information on
reliability and credibility of the analysis.
Probability distributions. Continuous probability distributions represent the uncertainty in values, such as
durations of schedule activities and costs of project components. Discrete distributions can be used to
represent uncertain events, such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree.
Expert judgment. Subject matter experts internal or external to the organizations such as engineering or
statistical experts, validate data and techniques.
QUESTION 23
What defines a portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procurement management plan
Evaluation Criteria
Work Break Structure (WBS)
Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
Design: Details what is required in terms of physical characteristics.
Performance:Specifies measurable capabilities the end product must achieve in terms of operational
characteristics.
Functional: Defines what the deliverable is required to do but not necessarily how to do it. This allows the
prospective sellers to offer different possible solutions for archiving the same end-use function.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Purchase requisition
Purchase order
Verbal Agreegment
Request for quote
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which of the following list contain processs
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers.
Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk assesment analysis
Make or buy analysis
Contract value analysis
Cost impact analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Make-or-Buy Analysis:
Is a technique used to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a prudct or service inhouse or from an outside vendor.
Can significantly impact project time, cost, quality, scope, etc.
QUESTION 27
A purchase order for a specific item to be delivered by specified date for a specified price is the simplest form
of what type of contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost-reimbursable
Time and material
Fixed Price or lump - sum
Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procurement documents
Expert judgment
Bidder conferences
Contract Types
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Bidder conference (also called a contractor or vendor conference)
A meeting with prospective sellers to ensure all sellers have a clear understanding of the product or service to
be procured. Bidder conferences allow sellers to query the buyer on the details of the product to help ensure
that the proposal the seller creates is adequate and appropriate for the proposed agreement.
QUESTION 29
A contract change control system defines which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Process by which the procurement is being satisfied
Process by which the procurement can be modified
Process by which the procurement can be obtained
Process by which the procurement can be disposed
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable cost for performing the contract work and
receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost -plus-fixed-fee
Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Firm-fixed-price
Fixed-price-incentive-fee
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Contract Types in Procurement
Procurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable.
Fixed Price
Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier than
schedule 1000$ will be paid
Fixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ is
awarded with the max award of 10000$
Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer Price
Index.
Purchase Order – generally used for commodities
Time and Material –
100$ /hr plus cost
Cost Reimbursable
Cost Contract – Seller receives no profit. Used by non profit organization
Cost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as fees
Cost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in fees
Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target fee is
determined. The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyer
ratio.
Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance.
QUESTION 31
Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Executive management
Project members
Project manager
Contract administrator
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional cost above the price ceiling
becomes the responsability of performing organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)
Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)
Cost-Reimbursable Contractors
Time and Material Contracts (T&M)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fixed Price
Index.
100$ /hr plus cost
Cost Reimbursable
ratio.
QUESTION 33
The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract Type
Sponsors
Project Manager
Stakeholders
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price
plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.
For which type of contract have they subscribed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed-Price_Incentive_fee contracts (FPIF)
Firm-fixed-price-Contracts (FFP)
Fixed-Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)
Time and Material Contract (T&M)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fixed Price
Index.
100$ /hr plus cost
Cost Reimbursable
ratio.
QUESTION 35
Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement Management
Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan Procurements
Conduct Procurements
Administer Procurements
Close Procurements
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which procurement management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirements
and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?
A. Plan procurements
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Administer Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which contract is tipically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of
years?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)
Fixed Price with Economics Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)
Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee Contracts (CPFF)
Time and Material Contracts (T&M)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fixed Price
Index.
100$ /hr plus cost
Cost Reimbursable
ratio.
QUESTION 38
The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the following
processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop Project Charter
Direct and Manage Project Execution
Monitor and control Project Work
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Final product transition is an output of which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Close Project or Phase
Perform Integrated Change Control
Monitor and Control Project Work
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approved
changes and baselines within a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Configuration management System
Change control board
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procurement management plan
Project Scope document
Project charter
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Describes how changes are managed?
Approves or rejects change requests
Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.
Describes how changes are documented
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group of stakeholder’s, that analyze and
review the change requests that have been forwarded by the project management team and accordingly take
decision whether the change request needs to be accepted or rejected.
*Consists of stakeholder’s.
*Approve or reject changes.
*Decisions are often accepted and considered final.
*Role clearly defined.
*All change requests should go through it.
QUESTION 43
Which document is a narrative description of products or serices to be delivered by the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project charter
Contract
Business case
Project statement of work
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project Statement of Work
The project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the
project and is provided by the project initiator or customer for external projects or the sponsor or requesting
organization for internal projects. If the project is being done for an external customer, the SOW may be
received from the customer as part of a bid document.
The SOW details the business need for the project, the product scope description, the strategic plan, and the
characteristics of the product the project will create.
Business Case
The business case will confirm the business need and drivers for the project and will most likely include
information on a cost benefit analysis, so as to justify the funding of the project, such as: net present value
(NPV), internal rate of return (IRR), and/or return on investment (ROI).
The business case should also reference the driver behind the project, such as: market demand, organizational
need, customer request, technological advance, legal requirement, or social need.
The business case is generally completed by the sponsor of the project.
QUESTION 44
Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the project
management plan are part of which process?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risk
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders needs and expectations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project charter
Project statement of work
Project scope statement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
A Project Charter is a formal document that authorizes the start of a project. It names and appoints a project
manager, assigns a summary budget, establishes a project time line, and documents key assumptions and
constraints. The project boundary, its key deliverables - the mission of the project are documented as much as
possible.
A Project management plan is the planning document, capturing the entire project end-to-end, covering all
project phases, from initiation through planning, execution and closure.
QUESTION 46
The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perform integrated Change Control
Monitor and control Project work
Direct and Management Project Execution
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Who authorizes a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sponsor
Project Manager
Project Team
Buyer
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perform Integrated Change Control
Monitor and Control Risks
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
A business case is an input to which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define Scope
Develop Project Charter
Develop Project Mangement Plan
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional requirement
Status report
Customer Need
Defect repair
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam E
QUESTION 1
What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional requirement
Status report
Customer need
Defect repair
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
The project integration Management Knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop project charter, direct and manage project Execution Perform integrated Change Control
Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase
Develop project charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Cost
Identify Stakeholders, plan communications, develop Project Management Plan.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project clousure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer acceptance
Statement of work
Product report
User Manual
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monte Carlo Analysis
Top-down estimating
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Estimating techniques can be applied to resources, effort, duration, and costs. The following are different
methods of estimating you can use, depending on the situation.
QUESTION 5
Which process involves identifying and documentating the logical relationships among activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule development
Activity sequencing
Create WBS
Applying leads and lags
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Activity Sequencing process involves the identification and documentation of the logical relationships
among schedule activities. Schedule activities can be logically sequenced with appropriate precedence
relationships, leads and lags to enable a realistic, achievable project schedule. Sequencing may be performed
using project management software and/or manual techniques.
QUESTION 6
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while
work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Finish-to –start planning
Rolling wave planning
Short term planning
Dependency determination
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rolling wave planning is a project management technique that involves progressive elaboration to add detail
to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) on an ongoing basis. At the beginning of the project, near term
deliverables are decomposed into individual components (work packages) and defined at the greatest level of
detail. Deliverables and schedule activities that will take place several reporting periods in the future are more
broadly defined
QUESTION 7
When would resource levelling be applied to a schedule model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Before constraints have been identified
Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
After it has analyzed by the critical path method
After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which is the duration of the project?
Task
Duration
Predecessor(s)
Start
0
NONE
A
6
START
B
4
START
C
7
A
D
10
A
E
8
B
F
9
D
G
11
C and E
0
F and G
END
A.
B.
C.
D.
63
65
66
70
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decomposition
Project management software
Expert judgement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Leads and Lags:
Leads and Lags are types of float. Let's take an example to understand this.
In project management, there are four types of dependencies:
Finish to Start (FS) - Later task does not start until the previous task is finished
Finish to Finish (FF) - Later task does not finish until the previous task is finished
Start to Start (SS) - Later task does not start until the previous task starts
Start to Finish (SF) - Latter task does not finish before previous task starts
Take the scenario of building two identical walls of the same house using the same material. Let's say, building
the first wall is task A and building the second one is task B. The engineer wants to delay task B for two days.
This is due to the fact that the material used for both A and B are a new type, so the engineer wants to learn
from A and then apply if there is anything to B. Therefore, the two tasks A and B have a SS relationship.
The time between the start dates of the two tasks can be defined as a lag (2 days in this case).
If the relationship between task A and B was Finish to Start (FS), then the 'lead' can be illustrated as:
Task B started prior to Task A with a 'lead'.
Conclusion For a project manager, the concepts of float, lead, and lag make a lot of meaning and sense.
These aspects of tasks are important in order to calculate project timeline variations and eventually the project
completion time.
QUESTION 10
What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight,
and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a
future project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Three-point estimates
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and projects critical path schedule
activities with activity date information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule Table
Schedule network diagram
Bar chart
Milestone chart
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which is the total float for the activity G?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
3
5
10
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
End to end
Finish-to-end
Satrt-to-end
Start-to-start
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
FINISH -TO- START
START-TO-START
FINISH - TO - FINISH
START -TO- FINISH
QUESTION 14
In three point estimating technique, if the most likely estimates for an activity to completes is 100 days, the
optimistic estimates is 60 days and the pessimistic estimates is 200 days, what is the expected duration in
which the activity will be completed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90 days
100 days
110 days
660 days
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ed= (Mop + 4Mest + Mpes)/6
QUESTION 15
Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Three-point-estimating
Reserve analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparasion with other cost estimate techniques?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Uses contingency reserves
Less costly and time consuming
Can be applied to segments of work
More accurate
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alternative analysis
Bottom-up-estimating
Resources breakdown structure
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Finish-to-start
Activity-on-node
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
When the work of Task 2 can start only after all the work of Task 1 is finished, the tasks have a Finish-to-Start
(FS) dependency.
Task 1 is the predecessor of Task 2, and Task 2 is the successor of Task 1.
For example, you can start to print a manual only after it has been written.
QUESTION 19
During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Activity name, dependencies, assumptions
Activity ID WBS ID, activity name
Activity ID, assumptions, constraints
Activity name, WBS ID, activity description
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule network template
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer and
unfolds. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What-if scenario analysis?
Benchmarking
Variance analysis
SWOT analysis
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
What-if scenario analysis Thinking through potential outcomes, the What-If Scenario Analysis is a tool and
technique of the Develop Schedule process and the Control Schedule process, both described in the fourth
edition PMBOK®. This technique is used to estimate impacts to the project schedule if potential scenarios
occur. This technique simply repeatedly asks “what if” a certain event should happen. It is useful to have more
than one person’s perspective and ideas for this analysis. For example, Katy has two hours to bake three dozen
cookies. She and her family are doing a What-If Scenario Analysis for this cookie baking project. “What if you
burn the first batch?” asks her husband. They estimate that will extend the schedule an hour. “What if Dad is
eating the cookies as fast as you can make them?” asks her daughter. They estimate that he’ll become full at a
certain point, so it’ll extend the schedule half an hour. In summary, What-If Scenario Analysis simply estimates
the effect that potential events may have.
QUESTION 22
Rolling wave planning is used as tool and technique in which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Estimate Activity Durations
Define Activities
Develop Schedule
Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer and
unfolds. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project.
QUESTION 23
Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use
AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.
What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22
23
24
25
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use
AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.
What is the total float on path BEG?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
1
2
3
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
If the schedule Variance (SV) = $55, and the Planned Value (PV) = $11, What is the earned Value (EV)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
$0.2
$5
$44
$66
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Earned Value (EV)
This is also referred to as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). Earned Value (EV) or BCWP is the total
cost of the work completed/performed as of a reproting date.
This is calculated as:
EV or BCWP = Baselined Cost * % Complete Actual
Schedule Variance SV = EV - PV
QUESTION 26
What is the status of the project if the cost Performance index is 1.25 and the schedule Performance Index is
0.75?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Under budget and behind schedule
Over budget and ahead of schedule
Under budget and ahead of schedule
Over budget and behind schedule
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
CPI = EV / AC
QUESTION 27
Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Activity list and activity attributes
Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
Schedule data and activity resource requirement
Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
The risk register contains which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identified risks and potential responses
Identified risk and updates to scope baseline
Risk management plan
Risk related contract decisions
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an input to identify risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication management plan
Expert judgment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expected monetary value analysis
Sensitivity analysis
Modeling and simulation
Expert judgment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Sensitivity Analysis
Sensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project by
analyzing that effect on the project plan. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. Uncertainty and risk are
reflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. In
practice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost, time or economic
return, and to which the project is most sensitive.
QUESTION 31
Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identify Risk
Monitor and control Risk
Plan Risk Management
Plan Risk Responses
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Brainstorming the Project
Brainstorming is likely the most common approach to risk identification. It’s usually completed together as a
project team to identify the risks within the project. The risks are identified in broad terms and posted, and then
the risks’ characteristics are detailed. The identified risks are categorized and will pass through qualitative and
quantitative risk analysis later.
QUESTION 32
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monitor and control Risk
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Plan Risk Responses
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reserve analysis: refers to a specific technique that is often implemented by the project management team
and/or the project management team leader or leaders for the purposes of helping to better maintain and
manage the projects that they may have under their guise at that respective time.
Specifically speaking, the technique of reserve analysis is a particular analytical technique that is used for the
purposes of making a complete and thorough determination of the entirety of the specific and exact features
and or in many cases relationships of all of the individual project related components that currently exist as part
of the previously determined project management plan. The purpose of the execution and implementation of a
reserve analysis is the establishment of an estimated reserve that can be used for the purposes of establishing
a schedule duration, any and all estimated costs, the budget, as well as the complete funds assigned or
allocated to the project.
QUESTION 33
What is risk Tolerance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ability to manage risks
Willingness to accept varying degrees of risk
Ability to mitigate risks
Willingness to develop a risk management plan
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Probability distribution
Decision tree diagram
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Decision trees are predictive models, used to graphically organize information about possible options,
consequences and end value.
QUESTION 35
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Probability distribution
Decision tree diagram
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Decision trees are predictive models, used to graphically organize information about possible options,
consequences and end value.
QUESTION 36
An Ishiwaka of fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identifying causes of risks
Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks
Developing a resource plan
Developing schedule
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fishbone Diagram:
Also Called: Cause–and–Effect Diagram, Ishikawa Diagram
Variations: cause enumeration diagram, process fishbone, time–delay fishbone, CEDAC (cause–and–effect
diagram with the addition of cards), desired–result fishbone, reverse fishbone diagram
The fishbone diagram identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem. It can be used to structure a
brainstorming session. It immediately sorts ideas into useful categories.
When to Use a Fishbone Diagram
When identifying possible causes for a problem.
Especially when a team’s thinking tends to fall into ruts.
QUESTION 37
Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as tool and technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perform quality assurance
Perform quality control
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ignore low-priority risks
Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks
Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks
Increase the contingency reserve
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which of the following is a technique for identify Risks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk categorization
SWOT analysis
Risk register categorization
Risk Probability and impact assessment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Analyzing SWOT
SWOT means strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. SWOT analysis is the process of examining
the project from each of the characteristic’s point of view. For example, a technology project may identify
SWOT as
Strengths The technology to be installed in the project has been installed by other large companies in our
industry.
Weaknesses We have never installed this technology before.
Opportunities The new technology will allow us to reduce our cycle time for time-to-market on new products.
Opportunities are things, conditions, or events that allow an organization to differentiate itself from competitors
and improve its standing in the marketplace .
Threats The time to complete the training and simulation may overlap with product updates, new versions, and
external changes to our technology portfolio.
QUESTION 40
The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been
identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.
This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mitigate
Accept
Avoid
Transfer
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
The project team reviews identified risks and the risks response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizes
that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk.
This new risk is which of the following types of risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
This new risk is which of the following types of risk?
Primary
Residual
Tertiary
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the first step in preparing the risk register?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk identification
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
What is the Project Porfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing,
staffing, executing and controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and
meet strategic business objectives
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
When is a project finished?
A.
B.
C.
D.
After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
When the project objectives have been met
After resources have been released
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledge
area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time management
Cost management
Scope management
Human resources management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Performed by systems
Constrained by limited resources
Repetitiveness
Uniqueness
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
What are the components of the “Triple constraint”?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scope, time, requirements
Resources, time, cost
Scope, management, cost
Scope, time, cost
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Recognized by every project manager
Constantly evolving
The sum of all knowledge related to project management
A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
What do composite organizations involve?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional and project managers
Functional managers only
Project managers only
Technical manager and project managers
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Staffing level is highest at the start
The stakeholders influence is highest at the start
The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start
The cost of changes is highest at the start
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
What Happens to a stakeholder´s project influence over time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases
Decreases
Stays the same
Has no bearing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam F
QUESTION 1
To which process is work performance information an input?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract administration
Direction and management of project execution
Create WBS
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an output of the information Distribution Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project calendar
Communication management plan
Requested changes
Communication requirement plan
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which process document the business needs of aproject and the new product, service or other result that is
intended to satisfy those requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop project management plan
Develop project charter
Develop preliminary projects scope statement
Scope planning
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project budgets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monotoring & Controlling
Executing
Planning
Initiating
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
What process determines which risks might affect the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Qualitative risks
Identify risk
Plan risk Management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop preliminary project scope satatement
Close project or Phase
Develop project charter
Create WBS
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is know
as what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
variance analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project management information system (PMIS)
Activity duration estimates
Schedule network analysis
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Performance Report
WBS
Requested changes
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the project is initiated
As an output of the scope verification process
When the project is closing
In the contract clousure process
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
During what process would you obtain stakeholders formal acceptnce of the completed project scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Control
Scope verification
Scope control
Close Project
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alternatives identifiction
Scope decomposition
Expert judgement
Product analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risk arranged by risk category?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk register
Risk Break Down Structure (RBS)
Risk management plan
Risk category
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Templates, forms and standads
Change requests
Stakeholder analysis
Project Assumptions
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Stakeholder Analysis is done to prepare for the communication plan. Generally speaking, there are people
with various degrees of interest in projects who have similar authority in an organization. Communications to
these constituents needs to be respectful of their time.
This is an optimal output from the Discovery team.
The project may need services or support from individuals with:
Q1 -- Low Authority and Low Interest, Monitor -- Do not bore with excessive communications
Q2 -- High Authority and Low Interest, Satisfy -- Keep happy, do not bore
Q3 -- High Authority and High Interest, Fully Engage
Q4 – Low Authority and High Interest, Inform, Engage -- Often very helpful with detail of project, issues
All types need to be “properly” motivated to participate.
QUESTION 15
what is the total float of the critical path?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Can be any number
Zero or positive
Zero or negative
Depends on the calendar
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Begin A-C-D-E- END -B-D
Begin A-B-C-D-E-END
Begin A-B-D-E- END -A-C-D
Begin A-C-D-E-END-B-C
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Network reserve analysis
Critical chain method
Lead and lag adjustment
Critical path method
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing
project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased
The critical path will have ositive total float
Contingency reserves are released for redeployment the project manager
Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity duration
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which estimating technique uses the actual cost of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the cost
of the current project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Analogous
Parametric
Bottom-up
Top-down
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Analogous
One of the estimation common used in project management is the "Analogous Estimation". What exactly is
Analogous Estimation?
It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation.
It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations. The validity of duration estimates
derived using this method depends on:
- historical information
- similarity of the historical projects
- expert judgement
QUESTION 20
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be
your concern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is a cost under run
There is a cost overrun
May not meet deadline
The project is 20 days behind schedule
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which ilustrate the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Work Breakdown structure
Network diagrams
Responsibility matrix
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), also known as RACI matrix or Linear Responsibility Chart (LRC),
describes the participation by various roles in completing tasks or deliverables for a project or business
process. It is especially useful in clarifying roles and responsibilities in cross-functional/departmental projects
and processes. RACI is an acronym derived from the four key responsibilities most typically used:
* Responsible: Those who do the work to achieve the task. There is typically one role with a participation type
of Responsible, although others can be delegated to assist in the work required.
* Accountable (also Approver or final Approving authority): The one ultimately accountable for the correct and
thorough completion of the deliverable or task, and the one to whom Responsible is accountable. In other
words, an Accountable must sign off (Approve) on work that Responsible provides. There must be only one
Accountable specified for each task or deliverable
* Consulted: Those whose opinions are sought; and with whom there is two-way communication.
* Informed: Those who are kept up-to-date on progress, often only on completion of the task or deliverable;
and with whom there is just one-way communication.
QUESTION 22
When can pre-assigmnet of the project team members occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Whe the project uses capital expenditures
When the required staff can be acquired from outsides sources
When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to asses the priority of identified
risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative Risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
In which process might you use risk reassesment as a tool and technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk monitoring and control
Monitoring and control project work
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resource plan
Cost control plan
Expected monetary value plan
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
A contract cannot contain ....
A.
B.
C.
D.
Illegal activities
Deadline for the completion of the work
Penalities and fines for disclousure of intellectual rights
All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Scope statement
Quality plan
WBS
Development plan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
You are the project manager ofa project. During the process of selecting the seller, you reject one vendor
because it does not have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weigthing System
Screening system
Seller rating system
Expert judgement
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Screening System – Establish minimum performance requirement for one or more criteria.
QUESTION 29
_________________ Provides detail about how the project scope may be changed
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control Scope system
Verify Scope
Scope Charter
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of aproble and take steps to prevent further
occurences?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Root cause analysis
Quality audits
Project audits
Risk audits
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Root Cause Analysis The technique of root cause analysis refers to the act of analyzing a series of variances,
risks, or defect that may exist in and around the project or any specific or particular component of that project
and attempt to determine through careful review the actual root causes, or unique underlying factors, that may
exist which is ultimately leading to this unfavorable result, and which would need to be addressed and or
compensated for if there is the goal to alter the outcome.One single root cause can actually have a significant
impact, and can in fact be the cause of a number of defects or risks.
QUESTION 31
Which of the following Provides the least accurate in estimating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rough order of magnitude
Budget estimate
WBS estimate
Definitive estimate
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate
A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is the least accurate estimate. ROMs are -50% to +50% accurate,
or potentially even larger. ROMs are used very early in the project when there is limited information from which
to develop an accurate estimate.
QUESTION 32
Who has the responsability for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager
Sponsor
Team lead
Management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
What is corrective action?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An action that brings future projects events into alignment with the project plan
An action to correct something in the project
An action to prevent something in the project
Corrective action is not related to project
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
True, real or certain
True, real or uncertain
Real
Verbal
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
A complete set of indexed project records is called_____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project archives
Index
Sow
Project History
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team members
have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You inmmediately set-up a
meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the
issues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional
Balanced Matrix
Projectized
Strong Matrix
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
You have been with the organization, you constantly hear rumours about a certain. CAPM failing to live up to
the CAPMCode. What you should do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
Confront the person inmediately
Ignore the rumours
Ass the romours along
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The project manager
The project sponsor
The team lead
The nianagement
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
In the PMBOK, the seller is ____________to the projecct team.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Integral
External
Outside
Assigned
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Project quality Management includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer satisfaction
Prevention over inspection
Continuous improvement
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200.000 andd is expected to
last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
$-00,00
$200,00
$50,00
None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budget cost) which is $200,00
Budget At Completion (BAC)
Budget At Completion (BAC) is the total budget allocated to the project.
Budget At Completion (BAC) is generally plotted over time. Say like periods of reporting ( Monthly, Weekly etc. )
BAC is used to compute the Estimate At Completion ( EAC ), explained in next section.
BAC is also used to compute the TCPI and TSPI
BAC is calculated using the following formula
BAC = Baselined Effort-hours * Hourly Rate
QUESTION 42
A risk register is a part of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager plan
Project scheduling plan
Project charter
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
A risk register is a part of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project scope
Project manager plan
Project Scheduling plan
Project charter
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
Gant Chart diagram (GCD)
Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
Arrow diagramming Method (ADM)
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Network Diagrams
One of the more important topics to understand when planning project activities is creating network diagrams.
Network diagrams provide a graphical view of activities and how they are related to one another.
QUESTION 45
Create procurement document is done in _____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan procurements
Conduct Procurements
Administer procurements
Close procurements
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of
________________
A. Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment
D. Project selection methods
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Most changes requests are a result of ___________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Value added change (Enhancements)
Schedule constraints
Regulatory constraints
Improvement to the project scope
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (Ennhancements)
QUESTION 48
Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project team
Project manager
QA manager
Validation engineer
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
The end of the project comes after which of the following ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project charter
Final deliverable
Schedule
QA activities are done
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
The product description of aproject can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following best
describes product description?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer
The product description defines the contracted work
The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam G
QUESTION 1
During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered aanother way to
complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the
customer. This is an example of ____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alternative selection
Assestment
Alternative identification
Product analysis
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Task
Work packages
sow
None
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Administrative closure should occur ___________
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the end of each phase of the project
At the end of the whole project
At the end of 50% of the project
At the end of the 100% of the project
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the planning stage
B. During the initiation stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Who gives project acceptance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sponsor
Customer
Project manager
Team Lead
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
A requirement document is an input of ____________ process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collect requirements
Define scope
Integrated Change Control
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Make-or-buy decisions measure the cost of both options. What are the two options ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Direct and indirect
Tactical and Strategic
Management and Project
Only Tactical
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the inputs od Define Scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements documents created in collect requirements process
Project files from previous projects
Project charter
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which document is best suited for tracking the assigment of all resources to sepecific tasks in a project
A.
B.
C.
D.
RACI Matrix
SOW
CPI
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
_____________Is the international organization that controls the standards for quality
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISO
CAPM
PMI
ISCN
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
The Work Break Down Structure is _________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Used to break down the project into manageable places
Set and does not change throughout the project
Needed as part of the project charter
Needed as part of the project Scope statement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Is a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The project is runnig ahead of the schedule
The project is running behind of the schedule
Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
None
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The SPI= EV/PV. A schedule performance Index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is aahead of
schedule.
QUESTION 13
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You are assigned the
resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her your decisions. Which type of
organizational structure are you working?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Projectized
Strong Matrix
Weak Matrix
Functional
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The begining of the project
Just before the end of the project
QA phase
Execution Phase
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
From who do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project clousure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about Bottom-Up estimating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total
Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project
Using the project characteristics (or parameters) in amathematical model to predict costs
Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which is no part of the project plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project scope Management plan
Schedule Management plan
Cost management plan
Project charter
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
All are part of Project Plan except Project charter
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the execution and control
phase?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Information management
Mantain scope statement
Maintain charter
Maintain closing document
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by
multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Funding limit reconciliation
Reserves analysis
None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager and now in the middle of creating RFP (Request for Proposal) RFTP (Request for
proposal) is done in ______________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan procurement
Conduct procurement
Administer Procurements
Close procurements
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements is true about Strategic Planning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Strategic Planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals
Strategic Planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizations goals
Stratgic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, Control chart, and statical sampling are examples of
____________________
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Qulity rules
D. CMM
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acceptance
Share
Mitigate
Transfer
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Acceptance is when NO change to the project is made for a risk. A contiengency can be set aside to offset the
impact of the risk
QUESTION 24
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project justification
Project product
Project manager authority
Project objective
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
What is acommunication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35
5
15
75
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Delta= n*(n-1)/2 - n1(n1-1)/2 where n= Individuals and n1= New individuals. No of communications channels n*
(n-1)/2
QUESTION 26
Collect requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase ans uses the outputs of the ________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiation Process
Project closer Process
Estimation Process
Closing Process
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project
________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Has ended before its started objective
Still cunning but missing resources
Will be closed due to lack of resources
None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
When you are developing the estimates for the project, you choose to add the individuals estimates for the
activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Top-Down estimating
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Who has responsibility for Plan Quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager
QA manager
Project Planner
Team Lead
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Assumptions in the project plan should be______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Written down
Understandable
Not Understandable
No need to write
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project sponsor
Project team
Project manager
Senior management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which of the following statement is true about project charter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders
Announces who is the project enginner
Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end
Announces who is the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project Charter: Formally authorizes the project, assign the project manager, and gives high-level definition of
the project and its deliverables
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
project management plan
Contract documentation
Deliverables
WBS
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is conflict resolution techniques?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compromise
Smoothing
Formal
Coercive
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The rest are forms of leadership power exept Smoothing
QUESTION 36
___________________ Is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the
most current information and revisting future activities when they near their starting dates
A.
B.
C.
D.
Progresive elaboration
Milestone detail planning
Expert judgemnet
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Updating Risk register
Determining risk roles and responsabilities
Identifying risk categories
Developing a risk management plan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Updating Risk register first happens in Identify Risk Phase. Determining risk roles and responsabilities,
Identifying risk categories, and Developing a risk management plan are part of Plan Risk Management
QUESTION 38
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ___________ relationship
A.
B.
C.
D.
Buyer or seller
Vendor or Seller
Purchasing
Sellino
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Administrative closure is the process that _____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Closes all activities pertaning to a specific project
Collect user acceptances of the project product or service
Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services
All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
You are the project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsability?
A. Quality in the organization
B. Acquiring HR Resources for the project team
C. Overall responsability for risk on the project
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Senior manager is responsible for Quality in the organization
QUESTION 41
Project sucess can be achieved only if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the bussiness strategy
The project sponsor leads the initiatives
The project manager is an expert in managing resources
Team members like project manager
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
You are a project manager of aproject and as part of the team acquisition process, you hire a new employee
and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, what needs level he most
likely is at?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Social need
Physical need
Safety and security
Security
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
As anew to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under Social Need
QUESTION 43
Which one of the following is not an output of contract clousure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Close contracts
Lessons learned documentation
deliverable acceptance
Scope statement
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
The intent of the risk management process group is to _____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project
Announce project risks
Not consider risks affecting the company
Announce project deliverables
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The risk management process groupserves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the project
QUESTION 45
ISO satands for ____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
International Organization for Standardization
International Standardized Organization
Standardized Organization
Indiana Standardized Organization
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
The project Baseline is _________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Original plans plus the approved changes
Important in the project initiation plans
Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
Original plans and the approved major changes
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is NOT a form a leadership power?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compromise
Smoothing
Foimal
Coercive
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
_____________________ Is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
results needed from outside the project team to perform the work
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procurement Management
Planning Management
Scope Management
Control Management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original Scope, what you do with
the old original scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
save the old version
No need to save the old version
Scrap the old version
Old version is not required
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
All version you need to keep in version control System
QUESTION 50
Which of the following subsidiary plan conatains the quality objectives for the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality baseline
Quality management plan
Process improvement plan
QA checklist
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam H
QUESTION 1
Function of the ________________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and
agreed to by the stakeholders
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sponsor
Project manager
Team Lead
Management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an output of verify scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Formal Accepatance
WBS template
SOW acceptance
Rework
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the ______________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
SOW
WBS
Project charter
Project Scope Satatement
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A work breakdown structure (WBS) in project management and systems engineering, is a tool used to define
and group a project's discrete work packages in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope of
the project. A work breakdown structure element may be a product, data, a service, or any combination. A WBS
also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providing guidance
for schedule development and control. Additionally the WBS is a dynamic tool and can be revised and updated
as needed by the project manager.
QUESTION 4
How many communication channels will be required in aproject in which 5 individuals are participating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
12
4
5
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
n*(n-1)/2
QUESTION 5
Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking cost of resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Psk Breakdown structure
WBS
Organizational Breakdown structure
Resource Breakdown structure
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
If a project with CPI of 0.8 what you tell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The project is falling behind
The project is using fewer resources than anticipated
The project is consumed more resources than anticipated
The project is running ahead of schedule
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have cost that are less the estimated CPI =
EV/AC (Earned Value/Actual Cost)
CPI greater than 1 is good (under budget):
< 1 means that the cost of completing the work is higher than planned (bad);
= 1 means that the cost of completing the work is right on plan (good);
> 1 means that the cost of completing the work is less than planned (good or sometimes bad).
Having a CPI that is very high (in some cases, very high is only 1.2) may mean that the plan was too
conservative, and thus a very high number may in fact not be good, as the CPI is being measured against a
poor baseline. Management or the customer may be upset with the planners as an overly conservative baseline
ties up available funds for other purposes, and the baseline is also used for manpower planning
QUESTION 7
Which monitoring or controling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control Scope
Manage project Team
Quality control
Manage Scope Statement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Scope schedule and Control costs can all result in corrective action, but Not preventive action.
QUESTION 8
_______________ Is the road map for the execution of the project
A.
B.
C.
D.
Strategic Planning
sow
WBS
Project Plan
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that
exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by chance to earn cash reward can most
accurately be explained by which theory
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hierarchy of needs
Expectancy theory
Achievement theory
All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy Theory.
Expectany Theory is: Employees who believe their efforts will lead to effective performance and who expectg
to be rewarded for their accomplishments remian productive as rewards meet their expectation.
Achievement Theory: It is one of the motivation theories used for the developing project team. In the latest
information era, people/employees need to be motivated beyond food & money as modern era overcome the
starvation.
According to Achievement Theory, people/employees are motivated mainly by three things.
1. Achievement It motivates based on the need to achieve or succeed.
2. Power This is drived based on influencing others and pride on it.
3. Affiliation Affiliation is mainly relationship based and people wants to develop with others.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following are input of close project process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract documentation
Deliverables
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Assign the project manager to the project
Formally describes the project
Produce the project charter
Formally authorize the project
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Output of project initiation is Formally authorize the project. Output of project scope initiation is: Project Charter
PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION 12
Which documents formally authorizes a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The WBS
Project scope
The project charter
Project closing documnet
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project _______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Has become part of the business processes
has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Main purpose of project initiation is ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Assign project manager
Formally describes project
Do WBS
Formally authorize the project
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project manager
Sender
Project coordinator
Sponsor
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receip and message is understood, and the
receiver needs to ensure that the senser received the acknowledgement.
The sender-receiver model
The sender-receiver model is the simplest communication model and underpins most others. The sender has
an idea or concept he/she wants the receiver to appreciate. Before any useful outcome can be achieved from
the communication, the receiver has to accurately understand the sender’s idea! This means the message has
to be effective in the receiver’s space; if the message does not engage the receiver, the sender is wasting his/
her time
The elements in this model are:
• Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver; eg,
written English, spoken French or a drawn diagram.
• Message: What is sent: the output of encoding
• Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face, telephone, email)
• Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance, culture,
language differences)
• Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts.
A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender and
checked for accuracy against the original idea. Once this loop has been closed both people have a common
understanding of the idea. This does not require agreement or concurrence, but if there is to be a
disagreement, it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute. Effective
communication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged. The sender needs to check that the
‘message’ has been received and validate the feedback
QUESTION 16
_________________ Is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined
A.
B.
C.
D.
Purchase order
Fixed Price
Time and material
Cost plus incentive fee
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
What is Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)?
Pays all cost an agreed upon fee plus a bonus for beating the performance objective stated in the contract.
QUESTION 17
With 5 participant how many channels are required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
5
8
20
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Communication Channels = (n)(n-1)/2, n= Numero de participantes.
QUESTION 18
Acceptance of the product should be ___________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Verbal
Cosnsistent
Personal
Formal
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you are
done?
A. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate
required resources and duration
B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS
balanced
C. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY
D. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
If a project with a SPI of 0.80 what you tell??
A. Project is running ahead of the schedule
B. Project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
SPI stands for Schedule Performance Index.
It is a very powerful measure of the amount of work actually completed on a project. It is part of the Earned
Value Management Techniques.
To calculate SPI for any project, get the Planned Value and the Earned Value. The formula for SPI is
SPI = EV / PV
As a rule of thumb, for Schedule performance index (SPI), EV/PV greater than 1 is good (ahead of schedule),
and less than 1 is bad ( behind schedule).
QUESTION 21
If aproject with a CPI of 1.2 what you tell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The project is consumed fewer resources than anticipated
The project is using fewer resources than anticipated
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
What are the inputs for initiation process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product description and Startegic Plan
Selection Criteria
Historical Information
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which of the following are parts of project scope management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Verify scope
Control Scope
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
There are following processes which are part of Project scope management: Collect Requirements, Define
scope, create WBS, verify scope, control scope
QUESTION 24
Project scope is________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service
The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function
Part of the project charter
Part of sow
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function or The features
and functions that are to be included in aproduct or service
QUESTION 25
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5000 and is expected to last 5
years in production, At the end of the 5 years the expected worth of the equipment is $2000. Using straight-line
depreciation, what is the amount that can be written off each year??
A.
B.
C.
D.
$600
$1200
$3000
Zero
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided
by number of time periods. calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600
Depreciation is technique used to compute the estimated value of any object after few years.
Straight line depreciation: The same amount is deprecated (reduced) from the cost each year
The calculation of ‘straight line’ depreciation is very simple:
($purchase price – $disposal value)/years,
where
- Years = the expected life of the asset (actual or set by legislation*)
- Disposal value = the likely sale price at the end of the assets useful life.
*This is often standardised to a 5 year life and equates to 20% depreciation per annum
Double-declining balance - In the first year there is a higher deduction in the value - twice the amount of straight
line. Each year after that the deduction is 40% less than the previous year.
Accelerated depreciation Sum of year depreciation - Lets say the life of an object is five years. The total of one
to five is fifteen (The sum-of-the-years’-digits are: 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1, or 15.). The numerator of the fraction for
the first year is the highest digit – in this case 5/15. The second year’s numerator is the next highest digit – in
this case – 4/15 – and so on.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following plans is not done during the writting of a project plan??
A.
B.
C.
D.
Executive communication
Risk management
Quality Management
Scope statement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Executive communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project plan
QUESTION 27
Stakeholders influence is greatest at the __________ of the project
A.
B.
C.
D.
Begining
Closing
Controlling
Executing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which of the following is not part of project scope management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Verify scope
Create WBS
None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This is
an example of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Schedule
Assumption
Constraint
Planning Process
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
A project must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints.
QUESTION 30
The project management plan:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated
Steps needed to complete a project task
Prepared at the begining and fixed throughout the execution of the project
Includes project charter
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The project management plan provides the overall plan for executing, monitoring, and controlling closing the
project
QUESTION 31
Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
Gantt Chart Diagram (GCD)
Dependency diagrams methods (DDM)
Arrow diagramming method (ADM)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Arrow diagramming method(ADM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Arrow (AOA) diagramming method.
Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Node (AON) diagramming method
QUESTION 32
What are commons types of cost-reimbursable contracts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CPF
CPFF
CPIF
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Advantages on Cost Reimbursable Contract are:
Simpler contract statement of work
usually requires less work to work the scope that fixed price
Generally lower cost than fixed price because the seller does not have add as much for risk.
QUESTION 33
Information should be communicated to ________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Everyone in the communication plan
Everyone on the team
Sponsor
Team lead
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
You are a project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your
project _______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
Resources are being assigned other areas of the bussiness
None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costs involved
with an upcoming project. Rather this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all tasks necessary to
get the project done. What you should do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project
Confront the other project manager inmediately
Mail to the PM headquarters
Ignore IT
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which document formally authorizes the project?
A. The project charter
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
You are the project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after
the contract is signed is _____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bad practice
Unprofessional practice
Bad for the buyer and seller
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
In PMBOK the buyer is ______________ to the project team
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internal
External
Outside
Assigned
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Internal to the project team
QUESTION 39
Define scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to
_______________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Improve the accurancy of cost time and resource estimates
Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
Facilitate clear responsibility assigments
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and
features of the new product line, you will have to perform ___________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Progressive elaboration
Stakeholders review
Plan project life cycle
Fast backing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The process of determining the characteristics and featuresof the product of the project is called Progressive
elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion.
Progressive Elaboration means that over time we elaborate the work packages in greater detail. Progressive
Elaboration refers to the fact that as the weeks and months pass we have planned to provide that missing,
more elaborated detail for the work packages as they now appear on the horizon
QUESTION 41
You are the project manager of a project. You have just completed the collect Requirement and Define Scope.
What should you do next?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Create WBS
Verify Scope
Value analysis
Control Scope
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Create WBS is the process that follows collect Requirement and Define Scope
QUESTION 42
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop the project charter
Develop the project statement of work
Develop project closing document
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
You are the project manager of a project. You have just complete the Define Activities, activity resources
estimating and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which Process have you left out??
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control Schedule
Create WBS
Sequence activities
Operations
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The PMBOK places Sequence activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources.
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Earn Value Analysis
Scope Baseline
Risk Register
Human resources plan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Earn Value Analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus
planned
QUESTION 45
Which of the following is NOT input of identify Risks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Charter
Stakeholder Register
Risk Management plan
Activity Cost Estimates
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
As a project manager of a project. You have just completed the Collect Requirement and define scope. What
should you do next?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Create WBS
Control scope
Value analysis
Verify scope
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
If you are the project manager for a project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of
the following which is the best source of information for your project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Historical information
WBS
Bussiness Plan
RBS
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Monitor implementation of approved changes
Validate deliverables
Staff, train, and manage the project team
Manage risks and implemant risk responses
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract must have
____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Offer and consideration
Start date and acceptance of start date
Signatures and stamp of a notary public
Signatures of all stakeholders
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
If a project with a CPI of 1.6 what you tell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The project is consumming fewer resources than anticipated
Is bad project
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam I
QUESTION 1
Which is a most risky phase of a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Planning
Closing
Execution
Control
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
A lesson learned session should be held at what point in a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the project conclusion
At key milestones
When risk event occur
When sponsor want
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Milestone is an event that receives special attention. It is often falsely put at the end of a stage to mark the
completion of a work package or phase. But milestones are rather to be put before the end of a phase so that
corrective actions in case of problems can still be met and the deliverable can be completed in time.
In addition to signaling the completion of a key deliverable, a milestone may also signify an important decision
or the derivation of a critical piece of information, which outlines or affects the future of a project. In this sense,
a milestone not only signifies distance traveled (key stages in a project) but also indicates direction of travel
since key decisions made at milestones may alter the route through the project plan.
QUESTION 3
What are the outputs of initiation process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project charter and PM assigned
Constraints
Assumptions
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which process group is for detailed resource assigments and responsabilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Human resources management plan
Project charter
Aplan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,
responsabilities, and reporting relationships to individuals groups.
QUESTION 5
You are the project manager for a project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and
some are from India. Client says budgets should no cost more than $12 millions. Because of the global
concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internationalization
Budget constraints
Management constraints
Quality constraints
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
This is an example of Budget constraints. The budgets must not exceed $12 millions.
Budget constraint are anothe element of the classic Triple constraint (Cost, schedule, Scope). Budget limit the
project teams ability to obtain resources and might potentially limit the scope of the project. For example
Component X cannot be part of this project, because the budget does not support it.
QUESTION 6
You are the project manager for a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost
and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the
requirements like (Wooden Coated). This is an example of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk
Assumption
Constraints
Budget
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
A and C are incorrect because the scenario did NOT describes a risk or constraint.This is an example of
assumptions because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (Wooden
Coated)
QUESTION 7
When you are developing the estimates for project. you choose in amathematical model to predict estimate.
What type of estimation method are you using?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Top-down estimating
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. This is one of the most common
estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimating the new
project. This method, though widely used, is simply a best-guess. The logic behind this estimate is that if this
project is twice as big as the previous project, it is likely to cost twice as much. Although this estimate is based
on expert judgment, it is also inaccurate unless projects are, in fact, the same
Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and as
many other variables as possible. We see this method commonly used in construction, as in price per square
foot; or in software development, as in cost per line of code written. Parametric estimating is still not
significantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. Parametric
estimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details and
costs on many previous projects.
Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated,
and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. This is the most sophisticated estimating
method of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. To complete a
bottom-up project estimate, you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. The scope of work
will include detailed drawings, specifications, vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete an
accurate estimate.
QUESTION 8
Purchasing insurance is an example of _________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transfer
Acceptances
Mitigation
Contingency
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
It means transfer the risk to a third party
QUESTION 9
How many communication channels exits in a team of 10 members?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45
10
30
20
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
(N)(N-1)/2
QUESTION 10
The primary output of the project closing process _______________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing
Lesson learned
To get customer and sponsor approval
Milestone list
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (Finish-to-start, finish-to-finsih,
start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
Gant Chart Diagram (GCD)
Dependencie Diagram Method (DDM)
Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Precedence Diagramming Method The PDM shows nodes, representing activities, connected by
arrows that represent dependencies. To represent that activity B is dependent on activity A. (in other words,
activity A must be complete before activity B starts), simply draw an arrow from A to B. PDM diagrams are also
referred to as activityon-node (AON) diagrams because the nodes contain the activity duration information.
(You don’t have enough information yet to complete all the
information presented here. You’ll fill in the duration information during activity duration estimating.) In fact,
nodes generally contain several pieces of information, including:
➤Early start—The earliest date the activity can start
➤ Duration—The duration of the activity
➤ Early finish—The earliest date the activity can finish
➤ Late start—The latest date the activity can start
➤ Late finish—The latest date the activity can finish
➤ Slack—Difference between the early start and the late start dates
You can represent four types of dependencies with a PDM diagram:
➤ Finish-to-start (the most common dependency type)—The successor activity’s start depends on the
completions of the successor activity.
➤ Finish-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessor
activity.
➤ Start-to-start—The start of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity.
➤ Start-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity
The PDM diagram in Figure shows eight activities, labeled A–H. The arrows show how some activities are
dependent on other activities. For example, activity B cannot start until activities A and C are complete. To
show this dual dependency, you draw an arrow from A to B and another arrow from C to B.
Arrow Diagramming Method The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is similar to the PDM, except that
all dependencies are finish-to-start. Also, durations are generally depicted on the arrows. For this reason, the
ADM diagram is also called the activity-onarrow (AOA) diagram. Figure shows an example of an ADM
diagram.
Dependencies are noted in a similar fashion to the PDM diagram, but there is another type of activity in ADM
diagrams. Look at the dependency between node 3 and node 2. The arrow has a dotted line, which means the
activity has no duration and is called a dummy activity. The purpose of dummy activities is simply to allow you
to depict dependencies.
Gantt chart GCD is a type of bar chart, developed by Henry Gantt, that illustrates a project schedule. Gantt
charts illustrate the start and finish dates of the terminal elements and summary elements of a project. Terminal
elements and summary elements comprise the work breakdown structure of the project. Some Gantt charts
also show the dependency (i.e., precedence network) relationships between activities
QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes project scope?
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature an function
B. The description of the project deliverables
C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign
resources to the tasks
D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
In which phase you define the final deliverable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Closing
Execution
Planning
Initiation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project will close after the final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase.
QUESTION 14
The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ________________
A. Project time management
B. Control Schedule
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contrator team in a fourth country.
What tool would optimize communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extranet-based electronic document repository
Manual filing system
War loom
Verbal
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Conformance to specifications document is one description of ____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality
Scope
Integration
Procurement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the project
QUESTION 17
Customer formally accepts the deliverable of each project phase. This process is know as
___________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Verify Scope
Quality Assurance
Quality control
Quality Measurement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
________________ Is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost plus incentive fee
Fixed price
Time and material
None
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is NOT well defined. Fixed
price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.
QUESTION 19
You are the project manager of a project and the project is aminth into the executing phase. There are some
cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supporting
Delegating
Coaching
Directing
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best for this example.
The leadership
styles includes:
Directing: Telling others what to do
Facilitating: Coordinating the input of others
Coaching: Instructing others
Supporting: Providing assistance along the way
Autocratic: Making decisions without input
Laissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making process
Consultative: Inviting ideas from others
Consensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement
QUESTION 20
Cost benefit analysis, score card modelling, paybacks periods, and internal rate of return are examples of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project
Integarl parts of the SOW
Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment
Project selection methods
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or bussines need.
QUESTION 21
When the version control numbers should change?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any change occurs
Major changes are made
Any change related to scope only
Only if minor changes are made
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
For 10 individuals how many communication channels exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45
12
10
5
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
N0 Communication Channel = N*(N-1)/2, N= Numero de individuos
QUESTION 23
Market conditions are part of ___________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project management concerns
Cost factor
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
PBS
WBS Template
Constraints
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The project scope statement is the definition of the project—what needs to be accomplished. The Develop
Preliminary Project Scope Statement process addresses and documents the characteristics and boundaries of
the project and its associated products and services, as well as the methods of acceptance and scope control.
A project scope statement includes:
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
Project and product objectives
Product or service requirements and characteristics
Product acceptance criteria
Project boundaries
Project requirements and deliverables
Project constraints
Project assumptions
Initial project organization
Initial defined risks
Schedule milestones
Initial WBS
Order of magnitude cost estimate
Project configuration management requirements
Approval requirements
QUESTION 25
The buyer and seller are bound by the ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract
Responsabilities
WBS
Identification
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which is not the tool and techniques used in Contract Administration:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract change control System
Contract negotiation
Payment System
Performance rating
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which describes how cost variances will be managed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost management plan
Cost baseline
Cost estimate
Chart of accounts
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
A _________________ Is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project plan
Process
Schedule
Flowchart
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
A project Cost Mangement plan is created as a part of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop Project Management Plan process
Control Cost Process
Determine Budgets Process
Estimate Cost Process
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Ther is no separate process in the Project cost estimation Knowledge area to develop a cost management
plan. It is developed in Develop Project Management Plan process
QUESTION 30
_____________________ Involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
A.
B.
C.
D.
Life-cycle costing
Parametric Modelling
Bottom Up estimating
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Parametric Modelling. Using a mathematical model example (Price per square foot)
Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. This is one of the most common
estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimating the new
project. This method, though widely used, is simply a best-guess. The logic behind this estimate is that if this
project is twice as big as the previous project, it is likely to cost twice as much. Although this estimate is based
on expert judgment, it is also inaccurate unless projects are, in fact, the same
Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and as
many other variables as possible. We see this method commonly used in construction, as in price per square
foot; or in software development, as in cost per line of code written. Parametric estimating is still not
significantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. Parametric
estimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details and
costs on many previous projects.
Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated,
and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. This is the most sophisticated estimating
method of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. To complete a
bottom-up project estimate, you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. The scope of work
will include detailed drawings, specifications, vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete an
accurate estimate.
QUESTION 31
Adjusting Leads and Lags is atechnique for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop Schedule
Estimate Activity resources
Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Analogous Estimate Cost is ____________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Generally Accurate
Generally less accurate
Bottom-Up estimating
None
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Analogous Estimate Cost is Generally less accurate. Analogous Estimate Cost Uses Expert Judgement. It is
used when refernce projects are similar. It is useful in early phases of the project.
QUESTION 33
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is
_________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.0
22.5
25.0
27.5
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
mean= (20+30+40)/3
QUESTION 34
what is the mean of PMBOK
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Manager Book
Project manager Body of Knowledge
Project Manager Book of knowledge
None of above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Formal acceptance
WBS template
SOW Acceptance
Rework
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Resource planning
Estimate costs
Determine Budget
Control Costs
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Resource planning. Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning projects roles, responsabilities, and
reporting realtionships to individuals groups.
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gantt Chart
Milestone Chart
Fishbone Diagram
Network diagram
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Fishbone diagrams otherwise called as Ishikawa diagrams (or cause-and-effect diagrams) are diagrams that
show the causes of a certain event. In project management, this tool is used in Quality Management & Risk
Management processes.
QUESTION 38
A change control Board should be ___________?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flexible
Include the Project manager
Appropriate authority
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
CCB should have all the mentionated characteristics
Change Control Board Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group of
stakeholder’s, that analyze and review the change requests that have been forwarded by the project
management team and accordingly take decision whether the change request needs to be accepted or
rejected.
Consists of stakeholder’s.
Approve or reject changes.
Decisions are often accepted and considered final.
Role clearly defined.
All change requests should go through it.
QUESTION 39
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _______________ which will adversely affect
project objectives.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Likely events
Complex activities
Complex schedules
Uncertain occurrences.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source selection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contract negotiation
Weighting system
Payment system
Screening system
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Source Selection process uses several tools and techniques to select the final vendor. This is usually a
complicated process, except for the cases where price is the only determining factor. Let’s examine each of the
tools and techniques of this process.
Contract Negotiation
In contract negotiation, both parties come to an agreement regarding the contract terms. Negotiation skills are
put into practice here as the details of the contract are ironed out between the parties. At a minimum, contract
language should include price, responsibilities, regulations or laws that apply, and the overall approach to the
project.
Weighting Systems
Weighting systems assign numerical weights to evaluation criteria, then multiply this by the weight of each
criteria factor to come up with total scores for each vendor. Weighting systems are useful when you have
multiple vendors to choose from, as they allow you to rank order the proposals to determine the sequence of
negotiations.
There is an example of a weighted scoring system in Chapter 3. These systems are commonly used to
evaluate vendor proposals.
Screening Systems
Screening systems use predetermined performance criteria to screen out vendors. Perhaps your project
requires board-certified engineers. One of the screening criteria would be that vendors propose project team
members who are board-certified engineers. If they don’t, they’re eliminated from the selection process.
Weighting systems and screening systems are often used in combination to come up with a selection.
Independent Estimates
Your procurement department might conduct an independent estimate of the costs of the proposal and use this
to compare to the vendor prices. If there are large differences between the independent estimate and the
proposed vendor cost, one of two things is happening: The SOW, or the terms of the contract, was not detailed
enough to allow the vendor to come up with an accurate cost, or the vendor simply failed to respond to all the
requirements laid out in the contract or in the SOW.
QUESTION 41
Which of the following is ensuring that aall features and functions are included in a product or service
A.
B.
C.
D.
Project Scope
Project Verification
Project Control
Product Scope
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
A major assumption of all network schedulling methods is that the activity duration must be ________________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statistically dependent
Variance distributed
Statistically independent
Deterministic
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is not part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Management Contingency Reserve
Management Overheads
Project management Planing
Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
The diference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project competion is Mnagement
Contingency Reserve Management Contingency Reserve is NOT part of aproject Baseline.
QUESTION 44
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional
Weak matrix
Projectized
Dedicated Project team
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which of the following is not part of the Earned Value calculations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unknown Unknowns
Project Budgets
Knowns Unknowns
Amount of work completed
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To show which work elements have been assigned to organizationals units
To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework
To show the organizational structure of a program
All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
A project scope Management includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiation
Project plan execution
Overall Change Control
Report Performance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project scope Management includes: initiation, Collect requirements, define Scope, verify scope and control
scope.
QUESTION 48
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initial stage
Closing Stage
Execution stage
None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
An activity that consumes no time or resource and show only that a dependency exists between two activities is
called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A milestone
A hammock
A dummy activity
A and C
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
A change request can occur due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
An external event such as a change in govermment regulation
An error omission in defining the scope of the product
An error omission in defining the scope of the project
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam J
QUESTION 1
Another term for top down estimating is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anallogous estimating
Life-cycle costing
Parametric modelling
Bottom up estimating
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Analogous Estimating, is one form of expert judgment and it also known as Top-down Estimating. This
technique is used to determine the duration of the project. After finalizing the high level scope/requirement, the
PM will refer & compare the previously completed project’s similar activities with the current activities and
determine the duration.
This estimation technique will be applied to determine the duration when the detailed information about the
project is not available, usually during the early stages of the project. This technique will look the scope/
requirement as a whole single unit to estimate. This estimate will give a ball-park idea about the estimation and
will have bigger variance.
Eg : To estimate the time required to complete the project of upgrading XYZ application’s database version to a
higher version, is to compare similar past projects and estimate the duration. This is done irrespective of the
complexity, size and other factors.
QUESTION 2
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Estimate Activity Resources
Sequence Activities
Define Activities
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reserve Analysis is one of the techniques used to determine a project budget. During Reserve Analysis, a
project is analyzed from a cost overruns point of view and buffers are placed in appropriate place. These
buffers are called Contingency and Management Reserves.
It is also referred to as a “contingency reserve” or “buffer.” The concept is quite simple—we know to expect the
unexpected, so we plan for it. Applicable to both time and cost, it is the technique of adding some extra time to
complete activities and extra funds to the budget.
QUESTION 3
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
A project plan is:
A. A formal approved document used guide both project execution and project control
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Start-To-Finish
Finish-to-Start
Start-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
An arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a network diagramming technique in which activities are
represented by arrows. It is used for scheduling activities in a project plan.
The precedence relation between activities is represented by circles connecting to one or more arrows. The
length of the arrow represents the duration of the relevant activity.
Sometimes a "dummy task" is added, to represent a dependency between tasks, which does not represent any
activity.
The ADM is also known as the activity-on-arrow (AOA) method, it only show finish-to-start relationship. ADM
network drawing technique the start and end of each node or event is connected to an arrow.
The start of the arrow comes out of a node while the tip of the arrow goes into a node. Between the two nodes
lies an arrow that represents the activity.
The event represented by the circular node consumes neither time nor resources.
A node is a specific, definable achievement in the project.
It has zero duration and consumes nil resources.
All activities that lead into a node must be completed before the activity lies following this node can start.
QUESTION 6
When should a project mnager be assigned to a project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
As early in the project as feasible
Preferably before much project planning has been done
At least prior to the start of project plan execution
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Dfine Scope Process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Product Analysis
Expert Judgement
Alternative Identification
All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to las for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly
across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent
$120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
-50%
50%
40%
20%
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Solution:
Execute Percentage > 12 ---------- 100%
04 ---------- X
X= 0.333333%
EV Earned Value= Execute Percentage% * Budget of the project
EV=0.33333%*240.000
EV= 80.000
AC= Actual Cost = 120.000
CV= EV - AC
CV= 80.000-120.000 = -40.000
CV% = CV/EV
CV% = -40.000/80.000 = -0.5
CV% = -50%
Cost Variance (CV) is very important factor to measure project performance. Cost Variance (CV) indicates
how much over or under budget the project is.
Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula
Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC)
OR
Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP - ACWP
The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost has
been to complete the work as of date.
Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budget
Negative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget
Cost Variance %
Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage.
Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula
CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV)
OR
CV % = CV / BCWP
The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less or
more money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage.
Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget.
Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start higher towards the end and drop rapidly as the project nears
completion
B. The probability of succesfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project
D. A and B
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project Life cycle : Cost and staffing Levels
QUESTION 10
A project manager is at the project Kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the
project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hierarchal
Authoritarian
Charismatic
Associative
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
The leadership styles includes:
Directing: Telling others what to do
Facilitating: Coordinating the input of others
Coaching: Instructing others
Supporting: Providing assistance along the way
Autocratic: Making decisions without input
Laissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making process
Consultative: Inviting ideas from others
Consensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement
QUESTION 11
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stakeholder requirements
Project performance
Control schedule
Project Control
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sequence Activities
Develop Schedule
Define Activities
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Dependencies that are directly related to the nature of the work being performed. This is known as hard
dependency or hard logic. This is also referred as Mandatory Dependencies .
This dependencies will be used duing the Project Planning specifically on Activity Sequencing in Time
Management.
Purchase the Server, Install Operating System, Install and configure Patches and finally install the Required
Software are examples of mandatory dependencies. The nature of the work itself dictates the order in which the
activities should be performed.
QUESTION 13
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is usefull in the Develop Human
resources Plan Process
A.
B.
C.
D.
Risk Manahgement activities
Activity Resources Requirements
Budget Control Activities
Quality Assurance Activities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Activity resource requirements. This is normally a document that describes the number of resources for each
schedule activity, and the knowledge, skills and experience of each. The work effort may be described as total
hours, or as skills set per time period. An example for the latter might be three bricklayers for a period of two
weeks. It is helpful to include assumptions and other detail in support of such estimates for each activity.
QUESTION 14
In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Projectized organization
Balanced Matrix Organization
Strong Matrix
Weak Matrix organization
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Balanced matrix Organization
Projectized organization
Strong Matrix
Weak Matrix organization
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
A trend Analysis is best described as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calculating Earned Value
Calculating Earned variance
Examining project performance over time
Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
In project management trend analysis is a mathematical technique that uses historical results to predict future
outcome. This is achieved by tracking variances in cost and schedule performance. In this context, it is a
project management quality control tool
QUESTION 17
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do:
A. An analysis of the critical path
B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. A and B
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Backward Pass A calculation method used to determine late start and late finish dates for activities in Critical
Path Method. Subtract the duration from the late finish date of the last activitiy and add one to get the late start
date. This calculation method is called as Backward Pass and this is quite opposite to Forward Pass.
Forward Pass is a calculation method used in Critical Path Method(CPM) to identify the early start date and
early finish date for the activities.
Based on the relationship between current activity and preceeding/succeeding activity the PM will calculate the
early start date and early finish date of the activity. The PM will do this calculation from the starting point of the
activity list. This method is called as Forward Pass
QUESTION 18
Which is NOT included in Performance Improvements:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Improvements in individual skills
Improvements in amount of overtime worked
Improvements in team behaviours
Improvements in team capabilities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT
weighted average?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4
6.3
6
6.1
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Simple Average Duration Estimate = (O + M + P)/3
PERT Duration Estimate = (O + 4M + P)/6
QUESTION 20
A scope management plan, in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management
plan prepared?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Initiation
Define Scope
Verify Scope
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Scope management plan is one of the major Scope communication documents. The Project Scope
Management Plan documents how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified and
communicated to the project team and stakeholders/customers. It also includes all work required to complete
the project. The documents are used to control what is in and out of the scope of the project by the use of a
Change Management system. Items deemed out of scope go directly through the change control process and
are not automatically added to the project work items. The Project Scope Management plan is included in as
one of the sections in the overall Project Management plan. It can be very detailed and formal or loosely framed
and informal depending on the communication needs of the project.
QUESTION 21
Project scope Is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service
A narrative description of work to be performed under contract
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
A and B
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Project Scope "The work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with the
specified features and functions"
Product Scope "The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result"
QUESTION 22
The planning process are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inputs, control, status reports, Risk control
Define Scope, team development, Control schedule, budget control, contract administration
Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development, Define Activities
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
A resource Leveling is a technique for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Develop schedule
Estimate Activity resources
Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Resource leveling
Helps in utilising resources consistently throughout the project. Ensures resources are not over allocated. Helps
the project manager avoid delays caused by bad allocations. Helps the project manager identify and take
advantage of unused times by analysing task dependencies. MSP can automatically level resources based on
resource calendar, task types, dependencies, and constraints, however, I have yet to find a project manager
that has felt comfortable with the way MSP does it. I level resources manually via the Resource Usage view, but
if you insist in using the automatic feature of MSP, save a copy first. If you find resource conflicts (over or under
allocations) you could:
Delay certain tasks.
Assign a different resource.
Change task dependencies.
Remove tasks.
Add tasks (instead of using the MSP's split task functionality, which is not supported by some project
management systems i.e. Clarity).
QUESTION 24
A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identification
Solicitation
Quantification
Response Development
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
An example of project is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Billing Customers
Managing an organization
Providing a building
Contructing a Building
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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