Sample Paper SNAP 2005

Transcription

Please read the Instructions for the test carefully
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2.
Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet.
3.
This booklet contains 20 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after the signal to start is given, verify that all
pages are printed properly.
4.
Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide
rules, drawing instruments, Calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular phones, pagers, Digital or any other
devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.
5.
Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides.
AT THE START OF THE TEST
6.
As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
7.
This Test Booklet contains 20 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify
that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.
HOW TO ANSWER
8.
This test has FIVE sections which examine various abilities. In all there are 155 questions. All the Questions carry 1
Mark each. You will be given TWO hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the five sections,
please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the five sections.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and
answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to
each question.
All the Questions carry one mark each. Wrong answer carries negative marks of 1/4th.
Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
AFTER THE TEST
13.
At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum-Answer sheet from your
seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.”. The invigilator will make the
announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cum-Answer sheets from every candidate in the room.
14.
You may retain the test booklet with you.
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Bulls Eye
SECTION – I
GENERAL ENGLISH
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Number of questions: 25
_____________ is to constitution as prologue is to ______________.
1. Independence
2. Law
3. Preamble
A. Eulogy
B. Write
C. Play
4. Amendment
D. Epilogue
1. 2C
4. 4D
2. 1D
3. 4A
____________ is to horse as bray is to_______________.
1. Drive
2. Hoof
3. High
A. Relay
B. Pony
C. Wagon
4. Saddle
D. Donkey
1. 1D
4.
2. 1A
3. 3C
___________ is to distance as kilogram is to _____________.
1. far
2. meter
3. Europe
A. heavy
B. ounce
C. weight
4. travel
D. noise
1. 2A
4. 1A
2. 2B
3. 2C
____________ is to never as all is to ___________.
1. always
2. usually
3. seldom
A. none
B. whole
C. every
4. often
D. total
1. 1A
4. 4A
2. 4D
3. 2B
____________ is to rain as dam is to ____________.
1. cloud
2. fog
3. water
A. electricity
B. flood
C. high
4. umbrella
D. spillway
1. 3B
4. 1A
2. 1B
3. 4B
____________ is to pacifist as religion is to _____________.
1. war
2. atlantis
3. object
A. devout
B. sacred
C. atheist
4. conscience
D. minister
1. 4C
4. 4A
2. 4B
3. 1C
____________ is to bird as shedding is to ______________.
1. calling
2. flying
3. migrating
A. barn
B. dog
C. hay
4. moulting
D. farm
1. 4A
4. 2A
2. 4B
3. 2C
____________ is to England as lira is to ______________.
1. London
2. pound
3. king
A. Italy
B. Mexico
C. mandolin
4. colony
D. Money
1. 1A
4. 2A
2. 1B
3. 1D
____________ is to Canada as Rangoon is to ____________.
1. Detroit
2. Florida
3. Toronto
A. Indonesia
B. Burma
C. East Pakistan
4. Alberta
D. Ceylon
1. 2B
4. 3A
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2. 3B
3. 3D
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10.
____________ is to all as part is to _____________.
1. each
2. right
3. none
A. whole
B. Separate
C. role
4. full
D. many
1. 1A
4. 4D
2. 4B
3. 1D
DIRECTION for questions 11 to 15: Select two words which are most nearly the SAME in meaning, or OPPOSITE
in meaning.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
A. comical
B. pretentious
C. tragic
D. climatic
1. AC
2. BC
3. AB
4. DA
A. deliberate
B. increasing
C. involuntary
D. incorrigible
1. DC
2. BD
3. AC
4. CD
A. sagacious
B. extravagant
C. fastidious
D. meticulous
1. CD
2. DB
3. BC
4. AC
A. dilatory
B. querulous
C. compatible
D. omnivorous
1. AC
2. BD
3. DC
4. CB
A. extravagance
B. prodigality
C. edification
D. acrimony
1. DC
2. AB
3. BC
4. CA
DIRECTION for questions 16 to 21: Choose the best answer among the listed alternatives.
16.
One major obligation of the social psychologist is to provide his own discipline, the other social sciences, and
interested laymen with conceptual tools that will increase the range and the reliability of their understanding
of social phenomena. Beyond that, responsible government officials are today turning more frequently to the
social scientist for insights into the nature and solution of the problems of with which they are confronted.
The above argument assumes that
A. Social psychologist must have a strong background in other sciences as well as their own.
B. The social scientist has an obligation to provide the means by which social phenomena may be understood
by others.
C. Social phenomena are little, understood by those outside the field of social psychology.
D. A good social psychologist is obligated principally by the need to solve inter-disciplinary problems.
1. B
17.
2. C
3. A
4. D
Once a company has established an extensive sales network in a foreign market and therefore has achieved
substantial sales, it seems that these market should be treated in a very similar fashion to those in one's own
country. It is therefore in those countries where only initial sales and representation have been developed
where marketing methods will have to differ from domestic activities. The above statement assumes that:
A. Sales network can be the same in both foreign and domestic markets.
B. Extensive sales networks are preferable to less developed ones.
C. Larger markets abroad are more adaptable to domestic marketing methods.
D. A study of marketing should consider the adaptability of advertising campaigns in different countries.
1. A
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2. B
3. C
4. D
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18.
1. D
19.
3. A
4. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
Product shipments of household appliances are expected to rise to $17 billion next year, an average annual
increase of 8.0 percent over the past five years. The real growth rate, after allowing for probable price
increases, is expected to be about 4.3 percent each year, resulting in shipments this year of $ 14 billion in
1987 dollars. Each of the following, if true, could help to account for this trend EXCEPT:
A. Increased consumer spending for durable products.
B. Consumer disposable income has increased.
C. The consumer price of electricity has decreased.
D. Individual tax advantages have decreased.
1. C
21.
2. B
In 1985 there were 20 deaths from automobile accident per 1,000 miles traveled. A total of 20,000 miles
were traveled via automobiles in 1985. In the same year, 800 people died in airplane crashes and 400 people
were killed in train disasters. A statistician concluded that it was more dangerous to travel by plane, train, and
automobile, in that order. Which of the following refuses the statistician's conclusions?
A. There is no common denominator by which to compare the number of deaths resulting from each mode of
travel.
B. One year is insufficient to reach such a conclusion.
C. More people travel by car than any other mode of transport, therefore, the probability of a car accident is
greater.
D. The probability of being killed in a train disaster and as a result of a car crash is the same.
1. A
20.
Equality of opportunity has long been prominent as a goal in many countries. In Europe and America there
has also been advocacy of more equality of income - the results after taxes of what a person gets for his
efforts and the yield of his property. Many western politicians believe this concept of equality should be
implemented in developing countries in order to speed economic development. Which of the following, if
true, could weaken the argument above?
A. In a poor society, total income is so low that if it were distributed equally, no one could save enough
to provide resources for investment.
B. The marginal dollars in the hands of people with large incomes provide less utility than those with lower
income.
C. High achievement in many societies is due to equality of incomes.
D. Equality of opportunity is not necessarily synonymous with equality of income.
2. A
3. D
4. B
Each year's increase or decrease in the trade deficit (merchandise imports greater than exports) is calculated
in relation to the previous year's. In 1976, imports of private vehicles were 10 percent higher than in 1975,
while imports of vehicles including commercial vans was 15 percent higher than in 1975. That 15 percent
increase was one and half times the increase recorded in 1975.
If the formation above is accurate, which of the following must be true?
A. In 1976, the increase, if any, of commercial vehicle imports was smaller than the increase in imports of
private vehicles.
B. In 1976, the increase, if any, of commercial vehicle imports was greater than the increase in imports of
private vehicles.
C. In 1975, more commercial vehicles were imported than private vehicles.
D. The average number of private vehicles imported in 1975 declined.
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: Choose the correct alternative.
22.
Somebody told you, __________________ ?
1. Isn't it
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2. Wasn't it
3. Didn’t he
4. Didn't they
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23.
1. News travels
24.
2. News travel
3. A news travels
4. The news travel
She _______________ in the morning because she gets up late
1. always has to hurry
25.
_________________ fast.
2. has always to hurry
3. has to always hurry
4. has to hurry always
3. a hair in soup
4. a hair in the soup
There is ______________.
1. hair in the soup
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2. hair in soup
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SECTION II
QUANTITATIVE
26.
There are 6 balls of different colours and 3 boxes of different sizes. Each box can hold all the 6 balls. The
balls are put in the boxes so that no box remains empty. The number of ways in which this can be done is
1. 534
27.
2. 543
xz
x+z
2.
If
4. n(A) = 1, n(B) = 10
4. 10 / 8
2
3. 41000
4. None of these
a
4
= , then
b
3
3. 265
4. None of these
3. 5
4. 6
3a + 2b
would be equal to:
3a − 2b
2. 3
The number of ways in which the digits of the number 125453752 can be arranged such that no two 5's come
together is
2
2. 7 / 3
2
3. 7C3 · 6 / 2
4. None of these
3. 6
4. 7
If 2x-1 + 2x+1 = 320, then the value of x is
2. 5
 2 n + 2 n −1 
is
n +1
n
 2 − 2 
The value of 
1.
36.
2 xz
( x + z)
3. n(A) = 10, n(B) = 1
3. 10 / 8
2. 44
1. 4
35.
4.
If Ur denotes the number of one-one functions from (X1, X2,………Xr) to (Y1, Y2,………Yr) such that f(X1)
≠ Y1 for I = 1, 2, 3,……..r, then U4 =
1. 9 / 3
34.
2. n(A) = 5, n(B) = 1
2. 14400
1. – 1
33.
xz
2( z − x )
The number of ways in which the letters of the word "ARGUEMENT" can be arranged so that only
consonants occurs at both the ends is
1. 9
32.
3.
2. 10 2
1. 3!* 5!
31.
xz
2( x − z )
On a railway network there are ten (10) stations. The number of types of tickets required in order that it may
be possible to book a passenger from every station to every other is
1. 10 / 2
30.
4. 528
If the total number of relations from Set A to Set B is 1024, and n (A) > 1, n (B) > 1, then
1. n(A) = 2, n(B) = 5
29.
3. 540
If ax = by = cz and b2 = ac, then y equals:
1.
28.
1
2
2.
3
2
n −1
3. 2 n +1
4. None of these
On a 26 questions test, five points were deducted for each wrong answer and eight points were credited for
each correct answer. If all the questions were answered , how many were correct if the score was zero?
1. 13
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2. 6
3. 9
4. 10
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37.
1. n + 1
38.
2. –3
2. 1/3
2. 728,490,301,375
3.Rs. 1262.50
4.Rs.2525
2. 15/2 and 30/2
3. 11 and 16
4. 7 and 12
2. 1942
3. 1911
4. 1917
2. 17days
3. 13days
4. 11days
The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 sec, 72 sec and 108 sec. respectively.
If they all change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hours, then they will again change simultaneously at:
3. 8:27:36 hrs
4. 8:27:48 hrs.
If 1/4 of 20 is 6, then 1/5 of 10 is
2. 4
3. 22/5
4. 21/2
Which pair from below will not satisfy the equation 187x-104y = 41?
1. x = 3, y = 5
49.
4. 798,290,102,975
In a given period of days, it was observed that when it rained in afternoon, it had been clear in the morning,
and when it rained in the morning, it was clear in the afternoon. It rained on 9 days and was clear on 6
afternoons and 7 mornings. How long was the period?
1. 3
48.
3. 718,290,102,375
2. Rs.1222.50
1. 8:27:1 2. 8:27:24 hrs
47.
4. 6
A series of books was published at seven year interval. When the seventh book was issued, the sum of the
publication years was 13,524. When was the first book published?
1. 21days
46.
3. 3
Which are two numbers whose difference and whose quotient are each equal to 5?
1. 1932
45.
4. 5/6
A company offered its 350 employees a bonus of Rs.10 to each male and Rs.8.15 to each female. All the
females but certain percentage of males refused to accept. The total bonus paid was not dependent upon the
number of new employed. What was the total amount paid to the women?
1. 5/4 and 25/4
44.
4. – 5
3. 2/3
2. 2
1. Rs.2445
43.
3. – 4
Multiply 5746320819 by 125.
1. 748,290,103,375
42.
4. n + 2
When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 2n is divided by 4?
1. 1
41.
3. n – 2
Each edge of a cube is a 1_ohm resistor. What is the resistance between two diagonally opposite vertices of
the cube?
1. 11/9
40.
2. n – 1
If -1≤x≤2 and 1≤y≤3, then least possible value of (2y-3x) is
1. 0
39.
There are n players in an elimination type singles tournament. How many matches must be played (or
defaulted) to determine the winner?
2. x = 107, y = 192
3. x = 211, y = 379
4. x = 314, y = 565
3. 3/11
4. None of these
The simplest reduction to the lowest terms of
116,690,151 / 427,863,887 is
1. 11/3
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2. 7/11
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50.
1. – 4
51.
2. 89 paise
3. 68 paise
4. 40 paise
2. Rs.300
3. Rs.500
4. Rs.400
2. 32
3. 34
4. Data inadequate
If 70% of adult males of a community have brown eyes, 75% have dark hair, 85% are over 5'8" tall and 90%
weigh more than 140 pounds, what % at least have all four characteristics?
1. 60%
55.
4. – 1
The expression Q = 72/6z is a natural number. What is the greatest possible value that integer z can take
in the expression?
1. 24
54.
3. – 2
10 people start a club. If there had been five more in the group, the initial expenses to each would have been
Rs.100 less. What was initial cost per person?
1. Rs.250
53.
2. – 3
3 truck drivers went to roadside cafe. 1st purchased 4 sandwiches, 1 coffee, 10 biscuits and paid Rs 1.69
paise. 2nd purchased 3 sandwiches, 1 coffee, 7 biscuits and paid Rs. 1.26 paise. What did 3rd truck driver
pay for a sandwich, a cup of coffee, and one biscuit?
1. 35 paise
52.
If 1.125 X 10k = .001125, then the value of k is
2. 45%
3. 20%
4. 48%
Henry started a trip into the country between 8 A.M. and 9 A.M. when the hands of clock were together. He
arrived at his destination between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. when the hands of the clock were exactly 180° apart.
For how long did he travel?
1. 6 hours
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2. 7 hours
3. 9 hours
4. 11 hours
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SECTION III
DATA INTERPRETATION & DATA SUFFICIENCY
DIRECTIONS for questions 56-57: in the questions given below which one number when placed at the sign of
interrogation shall complete the number matrix.
56.
6
5
4
120
6
7
3
126
8
5
?
320
1. 12
2. 16
3. 8
4. 4
3. 25 and 5
4. 49 and 7
57.
1
1
2
4
2
4
9
3
6
1. 16 and 8
?
4
?
2. 36 and 4
DIRECTIONS for questions 58-59: In each question given below which letters when placed at the sign of
interrogation shall complete the matrix?
58.
A
R
E
M
C
U
B
S
F
1. T
N
D
?
2. F
3. V
4. R
2. N
3. K
4. O
59.
A
F
?
D
I
N
H
M
R
1. P
DIRECTIONS for questions 60 to 67: Follow the given Instructions.
Each item has a question followed by two statements
Mark 1, if the question can be answered with the help of statement A alone.
Mark 2, if the question can be answered with the help of statement B alone.
Mark 3, if the question can be answered with the help of both the statements but not with the help of either statement
alone.
Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
60.
The average of three quotations for a particular item is Rs. 120. Is the highest quotation less than or equal to
Rs. 139?
A. The lowest quotation is Rs. 90.
B. One of the quotation is Rs.125.
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61.
How many people read both Economic Times and Financial Express?
A. Out of 300 readers, 200 read Financial Express, 220 read Economic times and 50 read Indian Express.
B. Out of total 300 readers, 200 read Financial Express, 220 read Economic times and 50 read neither.
62.
A bus started from bus stop P, developed engine trouble and reached bus stop Q, 40 minutes late. What is the
distance between bus stops P and Q?
A. The engine trouble developed after traveling 40 kms from Bus stop P and the speed reduced to 1/4th of the
original speed.
B. The engine trouble developed after traveling 40 kms from Bus stop P in two hours and the speed reduced
1 th
/4 of the original speed.
63.
What is the value of prime number X?
A. X + Y is a two digit number > 50.
B. Y is a two digit number.
64.
What is the time difference Nairobi and Mumbai?
A. The departure time at Nairobi is exactly 6 p.m. local time and the arrival time at Mumbai is next day 3 am
local time.
B. The flight time is 6 hours.
65.
Sujata is the eldest daughter. What is the current age of her father?
A. Current age of Sujata is 25 years and current age of her sister Sangeeta is 20 years.
B. Sangeeta's current age is one third of father's age five years before.
66.
Alka has 2 sisters and 1 brother. How many sisters Sandhya have?
A. Alka and Sandhya are sisters.
B. Sandhya has one brother.
67.
Madhav likes car X because its cost is Rs. 5 lac cheapest in C segment and Makarand likes car Y because it
costs Rs.7 Lac highest in C segment. Which vehicle will be selected by Keshav ?
A. Keshav is looking for a car which is average representation of C segment.
B. Keshav 's budget is around Rs. 5.5 lac.
DIRECTIONS for questions 68 to 73: Questions are based on the following graph of buyers.
Buyers by age
80
% of total buyers
70
60
50
10-20 Years
40
20-40 Years
30
40 Years above
20
10
0
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
Year
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68.
By how much percentage has the % number of buyers in the age 20-40 years age group has declined from
year 1995 to 1999?
1. 26.6%
69.
2. 73.4%
71.
2. 600
4. 1400
1. 10-20 Years
2. 20-40 Years
3. 40 Years & above
4. No particular trend in any group
By how much percentage has the % number of buyers in the age 10-20 years age group has increased from
year 1997 to 1999?
2. 15%
3. 16.7%
4. 10%
3. 40 Years & above
4. No particular age group
Which of the age group show a particular trend?
1. 10-20 Years
73.
3. 1200
Which of the following age groups shows a declining trend in the purchase in the given five years?
1. 13.6%
72.
4. 20%
If the total number of people surveyed is 2000 in each of the five years given, the number of people who buy
in the age group 10-20 years has changed from year 1995 to 1999 is
1. 800
70.
3. 44%
2. 20-40 Years
The regain strategy should focus on which age group?
1. 10-20 Years
2. 20-40 Years
3. 40 Years & above
4. No particular age group
DIRECTIONS for questions 74 to 81: Questions are based on the data given in the following table.
There are Eight major locations in a zoo at Mysore. A survey was conducted to find out the movement of the people
within the zoo. Following results were obtained.
To
A
From
74.
A
D
E
F
G
H
48
46
66
24
4
68
64
64
152
64
90
108
86
88
86
46
130
130
42
82
20
4
26
46
22
120
60
20
C
28
108
D
54
92
66
E
70
48
50
110
F
24
74
92
68
112
G
28
32
134
152
6
86
H
50
70
90
108
68
110
26
86
The least number of people go to which location?
2. D
3. B
4. A
3. 4000
4. Cannot be determined
3. 40%
4. 30%
What is the total number of people visiting the zoo?
1. 3868
76.
C
B
1. G
75.
B
2. 5000
What percentage of total visiting E comes from D?
1. 10%
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2. 20%
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77.
What is the difference between the number of people going from B to F and G and D to F and G?
1. 48
78.
2. 96
2. G
2. less than
4. E
3. equal to
4. Cannot say with certainty
The number of people going to A from B and C is equal to the number of people going to --------from
_______ and ___________.
1. E, A&C
81.
3. A
The number of people leaving F for C is ____________ the number of people leaving C for F.
1. greater than
80.
4. 84
The least number of people leave from which place?
1. H
79.
3. 72
2. E, D&C
3. F, A&C
4. H, E&G
The highest number of people leave from which place?
1. C
2. D
3. H
4. F
DIRECTIONS for questions 82 to 87: Questions are based on the following graph.
Spending by advertisers and viewers
25
22
20
% Expenses
22
19
20
17
15
10
5
0
1
2
3
4
5
Year
Total for all five years = Rs.100 crores.
82.
If in year 3, out of money spent by the advertisers and viewers, 12% had been spent on contingent expenses,
what was the amount spent on contingent expenses ( Rs. Crore )?
1. 2.4
83.
3. 2.5
4. 2.6
The expenses of which year added to one fourth the expenses of another year equal the expenses of each of
two other years?
1. 4
84.
2. 2.1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
In how many years from Year 2 has the expenditure risen by the around 15%?
1. 1
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2. 3
3. 2
4. Insufficient data
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85.
The difference in the expenditure between which two years equals the difference between the expenditure in
year 2 and year 1?
1. year 5 and year 3
86.
2. year 4 and year 3
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a and b
If in Year 6 the expenses increase at the same rate as they did from Year 3 to Year 5, what will be the
expenditure in Year 6 (Rs. Crore )?
1. 28.2
87.
2. 24.2
3. 25.2
4. 23.2
If in year 4 out of the money spent by the advertisers and viewers, 10% spent on disaster recovery expenses,
what was the amount spent on disaster recovery expenses (Rs. crore)?
1. 2.2
2. 2.6
3. 2.3
4. 2.4
DIRECTION for questions 88 to 95: Questions are based on the following table.
The XYZ manufacturing company produces a product which has a 6 month demand cycle as below:
Month
January
February
March
April
May
June
Demand in Units
300
500
400
100
200
300
Working days/month
22
19
21
21
22
20
If company's policy is to retain safety stock of 20 % of monthly demand and each month’s safety stock becomes the
opening stock for the next month. Opening stock for January is 50 units. Each unit requires 10 labour-hours and
company works 8 hours/day.
88.
What is the opening stock for June?
1. 20
89.
3. 380
4. 320
2. March
3. January
4. June
2. March
3. January
4. May
If there are 20 workers employed currently, then how many workers need to be laid off in January to
accommodate demand?
1. 6
93.
2. 310
In which month Opening stock is lowest?
1. February
92.
4. 100
In which month production requirement is highest?
1. February
91.
3. 60
What is production requirement for March?
1. 220
90.
2. 40
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
If there are 20 workers employed currently, and number of workers need to be laid off in January (in
previous question) to accommodate demand. How many workers need to be hired in the month of February ?
1. 18
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2. 16
3. 14
4. 22
P 12
Bulls Eye
94.
If constant workforce of 20 is retained, how many hours workers sit idle in the month of January?
1. 300 hrs.
95.
2. 420 hrs.
3. 240 hrs.
4. 200 hrs.
If constant workforce of 20 is retained, how many hours workers do overtime in the month of February?
1. 2000 hrs.
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2. 3000 hrs.
3. 2360 hrs.
4. 3360 hrs.
P 13
Bulls Eye
SECTION IV
BUSINESS AWARENESS
96.
The first animal tamed by man was
1. Dog
97.
2. 1949
2. 100 million years
2. 356
3. 360
4. 370
2. Finance Bill
3. FEMA
4. No replacement
The measurement of poverty line is based on the criterion of
2. Caloric consumption
4. The level of education
The largest flower in the world is
1. Cuscula
104.
2. 2 years 18 days
4. 2 years 11 months 18 days
1. Dwelling houses
3. The nature of employment
103.
4. 1951
FERA has been replaced by
1. Competitive Bill
102.
3. 1950
In the event of breakdown of constitutional machinery of any state, under which one of the following articles
can the president’s rule be imposed?
1. 352
101.
4. Camel
Indian constitution was prepared in
1. 4 years 11 months
3. 2 years 18 months
100.
3. Horse
The age of earth is believed to be
1. 10 million years
99.
2. Bullock
The planning commission started functioning in
1. 1948
98.
2. Nelumbo
3. Rafflesia
4. Deosera
In case of myopia the correct statement is/are
Light rays are
105.
1. behind the retina
3. can be collected by concave lens
2. in front of the retina
4. can be collected by convex lens
1. 1 &4
3. 2&3
4. 1,2 & 4
3. Aluminium
4. Calcium
The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
1. Silicon
106.
2. 2&4
2. Iron
Which was the first state in India to ban polythene bags in totality?
1. Delhi
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2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. None of these
P 14
Bulls Eye
107.
1. K
108.
4. Zn
2. 4 Kwh
3. 1.5 Kwh
4. 2 Kwh
2. Palo Alto
3. 23rd Avenue
4. New Avenue
2. Silver Bromide
3. Sodium Thiosulphate 4. Silver Nitrate
2. Carbon Dioxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur Dioxide
3. kerosene
4. LNG
The fuel used by spacecraft is
1. petrol
114.
3. Pb
The gas primarily responsible for the yellowing of the Taj is
1. Nitric Oxide
113.
2. Cu
Hypo used in photography is actually called
1. Sodium Bromide
112.
4. Mg
The Silicon Valley is actually known by the name
1. Palo Annie
111.
3. Ca
A current of 4 amp from 250V source flows through an electric iron for 2 hours. The energy consumed will
be
1. 1 Kwh
110.
2. Li
Pitche Blende is an ore of
1. Uranium
109.
The lightest metal is
2. blended diesel
A camel is able to survive water shortage by
1. using the water stored in its body
2. eating too many plants
3. breaking down the fats stored in its hump
4. devising ways to lessen water evaporation and perspiration
115.
Which of the following treatments in done for skin lifting?
1. Laser
116.
2. Female
4. Dead chromosome
2. Relation between plant & animal community.
4. None of these
2. very high temperatures
4. real time control
Who is known as the Oracle of Omaha?
1. Bill Gates
120.
3. Inter sex
Cybernetics is the science of
1. very low temperatures
3. communication and control
119.
4. Botox Injection
Ethology is the study of
1. Individual behaviour
3. animal behaviour in natural settings
118.
3. Electrolysis
In man, the absence of a Y chromosome in a fertilized egg causes it to develop into
1. Male
117.
2. Maser
2. Warren Buffet
3. Peter Lynch
4. Jeff Bezos
The Bombay dabbawalas have achieved international reputation because of
1. timely dabba delivery
3. six sigma based operation
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2. organized team work
4. excellent service for last 50 years and beyond.
P 15
Bulls Eye
SECTION V
LOGICAL REASONING
121.
In a beauty contest the order of contestant was to be reported.
1. The editor was asked "Is the order A-B-C-D-E".
The Editor said "none are in their true position" and "not a single one follow her immediate predecessor".
2. The editor was then asked "Is it D-A-E-C-B?"
The editor replied "You have two in position and you have two following correctly their immediate
predecessors".
3. The editor was asked for the third time "Is this the order" The editor said "you are right".
Which is this order?
1. BECDA
122.
2. EDACB
124.
2. 1
3. ZVFW
4. ZWFV
2. LAScD
3. ALScd
4. alSCD
2. 120
3. 25
4. 125
2. FIGJH
3. KNLOM
4. PRTSQ
2. BBLAM
3. KKUAV
4. LLSMM
2. ZVWF
Fill in the gaps:
SL__Bs__bc__L__dSL__e
Fill in the blank.
1, 4, 27, 16, ___, 36, 343
Which is the odd one?
Which is the odd one?
1. ZZXAY
128.
Fill in the Circle:
25
16 361
4
1
64 289 16
81
1. 269
129.
4. 2
1. ZWVF
1. ADBEC
127.
3. 3
WU
1. 87
126.
4. ADBEC
Select the sequence to be inserted into boxes,
CABAY
ECDY
XGE
1. AIScD
125.
3. CAEDB
On the blackboard, the Mathematics professor wrote a polynomial f(x) with integer coefficients and said
“Today is my son's birthday. When his age A is substituted for x, then f(A) = A. You will note also that f(O)
= P and that P is prime number greater than A”. How old is professor's son?
1. 4
123.
Fill the missing numbers:
52
43
42
33
45
?
?
45
1. 64, 25, 61
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2. 18, 26, 37
1
9
2. 260
34
?
27
36
9
81
25
3. 324
4. 429
3. 24, 36, 54
4. 21, 46, 24
25
15
18
27
P 16
Bulls Eye
130.
Fill the missing block:
4C
28A
7C
2B
?
5A
1. 10A
131.
2. 10C
2. 3
4. 7C
3. 1
4. 4
If you start your journey on 22nd June 2003, what will be the day of the week after 7 days of your departure?
1. Saturday
133.
3. 13C
If number 4 is placed on the bottom, which number will be on top?
1. 2
132.
3A
45B
15B
2. Monday
3. Friday
4. Sunday
Fill in the Gap
A
1. B
B
2. C
C
3. A
D
4. D
DIRECTIONS for questions 134 to 138: Solve the questions if the symbols are as given below.
*=+
+=/
-=*
/=→ = square
← = cube
134.
65*89754 – 9856 + 785/8647
1. 1118316.629
135.
3. 1119376.629
4. 1128376.629
2. 45483532.6
3. 455439719.7
4. 455440719.7
2. 92874321872529
3. 98284321772529
4. 92874581932529
89765/897 – 6789 + 89→
1. 455839620.7
136.
2. 1129316.629
1234/90*8978 – 234 ←
1. 92887128772529
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P 17
Bulls Eye
137.
1. 28944400
138.
980 – 320 + 56/220→
2. 28934500
3. 28876700
4. 27868458
3. 360056463.6
4. 360090996
8765*789654 - 456*4356 + 660/34532
1. 340056463.6
2.360056552.6
DIRECTION for questions 139 to 140: Rectangle, square, circle and triangle represents the regions of wheat, gram,
maize, rice cultivation. Based on the diagram, answer the questions that follow.
3
4
5
8
2
7
9
6
10
1
11
139.
Which is the area for wheat and maize only?
1. 8
140.
2. 6
3. 5
4. 4
3. 3
4. 4
Which is the area for maize only?
1. 10
2. 2
DIRECTION for questions 141 to 146: The following six sub questions have two section problem figures and answer
figures. Problem figures have four designs in series. Answer figures have the fifth one. Which should it be?
141.
A
1. C
B
2. A
C
D
3. D
4. B
142.
A
1. C
2. A
1. A
2. B
B
C
3. B
D
C
3. C
D
C
3. A
D
4. D
143.
A
B
4. D
144.
A
1. C
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2. B
B
4. D
P 18
Bulls Eye
145.
A
1. A
2. B
1. C
2. D
B
C
3. C
D
C
3. A
D
4. D
146.
A
147.
Statement :
Condition :
2. Y is valid
2. CBFHDS
3. CBFFDS
4. EBFHDS
2. North West
3. South East
4. South
2. 38 km
3. 28 km
4. 118 km
2. 20 days
3. 24 days
4. 28 days
If each letter meaningful word beginning with B can be formed from ‘HACEB’, then the fourth letter of that
word is your answer.
1. A
155.
4. 13-7-20-9-11-25
X, Y & Z together can do a piece of work in 8 days while X & Z together can do it in 12 days. Y alone will
do the same work in how many days?
1. 16 days
154.
3. 10-7-20-13-11-24
A & B are standing at the same point. They decide to move exactly in the opposite direction in each other. A
goes 5 km East. Then goes 7 km North, then goes 5 km West, & finally goes 7 km North. What is the
shortest distance between A & B?
1. 48 km
153.
2. 11-7-20-16-11-24
If South East becomes North, North East becomes West & so on, what will West become?
1. North East
152.
2. P is the maternal uncle of A
4. C and P are sisters
In a certain code, ‘FAVOUR’ is written as ‘EBUPTS’. How is ‘DAGGER’ written in that code?
1. EBHHFS
151.
4. X & Y are invalid
If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, how will you code DANGER?
1. 13-7-20-10-11-25
150.
3. X & Y are valid
A is a son of C. C and Z are sisters, Z is the mother of Q. P is the son of Z. Which one of the following is
correct?
1. P and A are cousins
3. Q is the grandfather of A
149.
4. B
Some wise men lies. Whoever lies should be imitated.
X) Some wise men deserve to be imitated.
Y) Some fools should not be imitated.
1. X is valid
148.
B
2. C
3. E
4. H
How many meaningful English words can be formed by using any two letters of the word ‘NOT’?
1. One
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2. Two
3. Three
4. More than three
P 19
Bulls Eye
Key, Explanations & Analysis
Bulls Eye, SCO – 58-61, Sec – 8C, Madhya Marg, Chandigarh Ph: 6611111, 5089389
Ph: Patiala – 0175-5062699, Bathinda – 0164-5003374, Shimla – 0177-2622329, Ludhiana 0161-3096685
Pune – 020 - 25678999, Jammu - 0191-2582047, Goa - 0832-5641991, Raipur - 0771-5035326-7-8-9
Asansol-0341-2531340, Bilaspur-0775-2504113, Durgapur-0343-2547948, Nasik-0253-5612633,
Delhi-011-51691856, 30917568, 30963192-93, 30917558, 25418967,
www.hitbullseye.com
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P 20
Bulls Eye
Solutions to Sample Paper SNAP 2005
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
www.hitbullseye.com
1
4
3
1
3
2
2
4
2
1
1
3
1
4
2
1
3
1
4
3
3
2
1
1
4
3
4
1
3
2
4
2
4
4
2
4
2
3
2
2
3
2
1
3
4
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
1
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
3
1
3
1
3
3
3
2
2
4
3
3
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
2
4
4
1
2
3
1
4
1
1
3
3
3
2
1
2
3
1
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
4
3
1
2
3
3
4
4
4
2
3
2
3
1
3
3
3
1
4
2
3
4
3
3
4
2
3
3
2
3
2
4
1
4
4
4
4
3
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
2
1
3
4
3
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
1
3
2
3
3
3
2
3
P 21
Bulls Eye
Explanations to Sample Paper SNAP – 2005
Q.
No
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Answer
Key
1
4
3
1
3
2
2
4
2
1
1
3
1
4
2
1
3
18.
1
19.
20.
4
3
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
3
2
1
1
4
3
27.
4
Explanation
Preamble is introductory to Constitution, prologue is introductory to play.
Horses neigh, donkeys bray.
Meter is measure of distance, kilogram is measure of weight.
Always is opposite of never, all is opposite of none.
Umbrella protects from rain, dam from flood.
Conscience is defining quality of pacifist, religion of a sacred person.
Shedding of feathers by a bird is moulting.
Pound is currency of England, lira of Italy.
Toronto is capital of Canada, Rangoon of Burma.
Each refers to single quantity, as part to whole.
Comic and tragedy are opposite of each other.
Deliberate and voluntary are opposites.
Fastidious and meticulous are same.
Querulous and compatible are opposites.
Extravagance and prodigality are same.
Can be directly inferred from the first line.
The argument states that “these markets should be treated in a very similar fashion to those in
one's own country.” This means that they are adaptable to domestic marketing methods.
The argument states that “concept of equality should be implemented in developing countries in
order to speed economic development.” To weaken it, the opposite must be said, which is in D.
Probability 20/1000 and 400/20000 is the same.
The demand for electrical goods is increasing. This would not be possible if tax advantages
decreased and consumers had less income to spend.
The increase was 15%, so we can say that the number was higher.
This is the most appropriate.
News is considered singular.
The possibilities are (1, 3, 2), (1, 1, 4) OR (2 2 2)
The number of ways to distribute in groups of 1, 3, 2 = 6C1 × 5C3 × 2C2
Boxes can interchange their contents
∴Total number of ways to distribute 1, 3, 2 balls = 6C1 × 5C3 × 2C2 × 3! = 360
3!
Similarly number of ways to distribute the 1, 1, 4 balls = 6C1 × 5C1 × 4C4 × = 6 × 5 × 3 = 90
2!
3
!
The number of ways to distribute the 2, 2, 2 balls = 6C2 × 4C2 × 2C2 × = 15 × 6 × 1 × 1 = 90
3!
Total = 360 + 90 + 90 = 540.
a can be written as by/x and c can be written as by/z .Now putting these values of a and c in the
2
28.
1
29.
3
y y
+
x z
equation given you get b2 = by/x × by/z .It can be written as b = b . Now because the bases are
same, powers can be equated. 2/y = (z + x)/zx or y = 2zx/(z + x).
The number of relations from Set A to Set B (Set A having m elements & Set B having n
elements) is equal to = 2mn.
Here m > 1 and n > 1
⇒ n(A) = m = 2 and n(B) = n = 5.
n(A) = 2, n(B) = 5.
10!
The number of ways in which 2 stations can be chosen out of 10 stations = 10C2 =
2!8!
The ticket required is from destination to destination & back
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P 22
Bulls Eye
2
31.
4
32.
2
b
3 + 2  3 +
a
=
b 3−
3 − 2 
a
33.
4
10!
× 2! =
2! 8!
8!
The consonants are R G M N T
Vowels are A U E
The end positions can be filled in 5P2 ways
The middle positions can be filled in 6! Way
Total number of ways = 5P2 × 6! = 14400.
The number of functions = rr
U4 = 44 = 256.
Divide by a to get:
⇒ Total number of ways =
30.
10!
3
2 =3
3
2
The total number of ways of arranging 1 2 5 4 5 3 7 5 2 without any restrictions =
The number of arranging of 1 2 5 4 5 3 7 5 2 in which all 5’s are together =
9!
3! 2!
7!
2!
9! 7!
−
3! 2! 2!
Simply substitute the answer choices. If x=7, we get 26 + 28 = 64 + 256 = 320
Reqd. no. of ways =
34.
35.
4
2
2 n +1
36.
37.
38.
39.
4
2
3
2
40.
41.
42.
2
3
2
43.
44.
45.
1
3
4
1
2 n (1 + )
2 =3
= n
2 ( 2 − 1) 2
− 2n
2 n + 2 n −1
Let the correct answer be x. So 8x - 5(26 - x) = 0 ⇒ x = 10.
The number of matches played must be n – 1.
Substitute the extreme values in the expression to get: 2(1) – 3(2) = -4
Considering the thickness of the wire negligible.
One turn of the wire requires 4” of the wire.
Length of tube = 9”
Total Length = 4” × 9” = 36”
The number is y the form: 4k+3. Then dividing (8k+6) by 4, we get the remainder as 2.
5746320819 × 125 can be written as 5746320819 × 1000/8 ⇒ 718290102375.
Go by the options 1262.5 and 2525 are not divisible by Rs. 8.15.
Options (3) & (4) ruled out.
If Rs. 2445/- is Bonus Paid to Female
⇒ 300 Females Accepted
& 50 Males Accepted
⇒ Total Bonus = 2445 + 500 = 2945/If Rs. 1222.5/- is Bonus paid to Females
⇒ 150 Females Accepted
⇒ 200 Male Accepted
⇒ Total Bonus = 1222.5 + 2000 = 3222.5/Thus option (2) is best choice.
Going by options, we can see that both conditions are satisfied by the 1st option.
N = 7, a = ?,d = 7. Sn = 13524, therefore 13524 = 7/2 [2a + 6(7) ] ⇒ a + 21 = 1932 ⇒ a = 1911.
(i) Clear Morning + Rain Afternoon = 7 Days
(ii) Rain Morning + Clear Afternoon = 6 Days
(iii) Rain Morning OR Rain Afternoon = 9 Days
N + RA = 7 days
N + RM = 6 Day
⇒ RA – RM = 1 day
RM + RA = 9 Days
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P 23
Bulls Eye
46.
1
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
1
4
3
2
4
52.
3
53.
3
54.
55.
3
1
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
3
1
3
3
3
61.
62.
2
2
63.
4
64.
3
65.
3
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
4
74.
75.
4
4
76.
1
77.
2
78.
79.
80.
3
1
4
⇒ RM = 5 day & RA = 4 Days
⇒ N = 2 Day
Total = 5 + 4 + 2 = 11 Day
LCM of 48, 72 and 108 = 432 sec. The lights will change after 432 seconds or 7 min 12 sec after
8:20. Hence (1).
¼ of 20 = 6 ⇒ 5 + 1 = 6. So 1/5 of 10 = 2 + 1 = 3.
Going by options, we see that 4th option is correct.
We can write this expression as 116600/429000 ⇒ 3/11 (approx.)
The decimal value should shift 3 places, hence K = -3
4x + y + 10 z = 169 ----(1) 3x + y + 7z = 126 ----(2) x + y + z = ? (1) – (2) gives x + 3z = 43 ---(3). Now equation (2) can be written as x + y + z + 2x + 6z = 126 ⇒ x + y + z + 86 = 126
⇒ x + y + z = 40 p.
Going by options, we see that 2nd option Rs. 300 is correct. Total exp = 10 × 300 = 3000. If there
had been 15 people, then initial expenses = 3000/15 = Rs. 200 which is 100 less than 300.
The denominator factor 6 is made up of two prime factors 3 and 2. The number of threes in 72 is
24 + 8 + 2 = 34. Hence the maximum value that z can take here is 34.
Required percentage = 100 – (30+ 25+ 15 + 10) = 20%
He goes between 8 AM and 9 AM and comes back between 2PM and 3 PM. Therefore he must be
out for 6 Hrs.
Multiply all the rows to get the last number.
First line are squares. Last line are consecutive even numbers.
Each alternate cell has successive alphabets.
A(BC)D(EFG)H…..
Sum of three quotations = 120× 3 = 360. From A & B both, we get the third quotation as Rs. 145
which is higher than 139.
Using B statement alone, we can make Venn diagram and get the answer as 120.
From the second statement we can calculate the original speed to be 40/2 = 20 kmph. Now the
new speed is 1/4th of that i.e. 5 kmph. Now an equation can be made to calculate the distance that
is D/5 – D/20 = 40/60 hrs. Solving this the distance after the engine trouble can be calculated and
40 can be added in that in order to calculate the total distance. First statement alone does not give
anything sufficient. Thus 2 is the answer.
We cannot find the answer from A alone or B alone or their combination as infinite values of x
can be obtained.
As the flight time is 6 hours, so flight arrived at 12 AM as per Nairobi time. But in Mumbai it was
3 AM, so we can find the answer as 3 hrs by using both the statements.
Using both the statements we can find the answer. From A, age of Sangeeta is 20 yrs. From B, we
can say that 20 = 1/3 (F - 5) ⇒ F= 65 yrs.
From statement A, we can say that Sandhya has 2 sisters.
We cannot find the answer even by combining both the statements.
Required percentage = (60 – 16) /60 × 100 = 73.4%.
Total people = 2000. Change has been 40% (70 – 30). So required answer = 2000 × 0.4 = 800
Visual Question.
Required percentage = (70 – 60) /60 × 100 = 16.7%.
Visual question.
Regain strategy should focus on age group 20 – 40 years as it has shown continuous decline for
the 1st 3 years and then showed an increase in the 4th year.
Visual question.
The information given is for 8 major locations in the Zoo. There can be many more minor
locations in the Zoo for which information about movement of people is not given.
Total people visiting E = 24 + 64 + 86 + 42 + 112 + 6 + 68 = 402.
Hence required percentage = 42/402 × 100 = 10 %.
Number of people going from B to F and G = 90 + 108 = 198. Number of people going from D to
F and G = 82 + 20 = 102. So difference = 96.
Visual question.
Visual question.
Number of people going to A from B and C = 20 + 28 = 48. Going by options, we see that 4th
option is correct.
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P 24
Bulls Eye
81
82.
83.
1
1
3
84.
3
85.
3
86.
2
87.
8895
1
Visual question.
Required amount = 0.12 × 20 = 2.4 crore.
1
Ist year + 3rd year = 4th year = 5th year
4
1
17 + × 20 = 22. Hence Ans. is 2 & Option 3.
4
Expenditure 2nd Year = 19%
Expenditure 4th year = 22%
Net Rise = 3%
3
% Rise =
× 100 = 15%
19
Thus in 2 years.
The difference between the expenditure in year 2 and year 1 is 2, which is equal to difference in
the expenditure between year 5 and year 3 and between year 4 and year 3.
The rate of increase in expenses from year 3 to year 5 is 10 %. So expenditure in year 6 = 22 ×
1.1 = 24.2 crore.
Required amount = 22 × 0.1 = 2.2 crore.
Month
Opening
Demand in Reserve
Production
Working
Stock
Units
20%
Requirement Days
Jan
50
300
60
310
22
Feb
60
500
100
540
19
Mar
100
400
80
380
21
Apr
80
100
20
40
21
May
20
200
40
220
22
June
40
300
60
320
20
2
20% of May Demand (200) = 20% of 200 = 40
88.
3
Production requirement for Mar = Demand + Reserve – Opening Stock = 400 + 80 – 100 = 380
89.
1
February. Refer table.
90.
4
May. Refer table.
91.
3
One worker in January (22 working day)
92.
Gives = 22 × 8 = 176 Man hours
Total Man hours required = 310 × 10 = 3100
3100
= 17
Number of worker required =
176
No. of workers required to be laid off = 20 – 17 = 3.
1
In February, No. of Man hour required = 540 × 10 = 5400
93.
5400 5400
=
= 35 .
No. of workers required =
19 × 8 152
No. of workers required to be hired = 35 – (20 – 3) = 18.
2
94.
Reqd. ⇒ No. of Man hours Available – No. of Manhours utilized
= 20 × 22 × 8 – 310 × 10
= 3520 – 3100 = 420.
3
95.
Reqd. ⇒ No. of Man hours Reqd. – No. of Manhours Available
= 540 × 10 – 20 × 19 × 8
= 5400 – 3040
= 2360 hrs.
Questions 96 – 120 of G.K.
2
Note the line “you have two in position”. Only in (2) do we get 2 that are in position, in others
121.
choices this is not so.
4
The polynomial in f(x) = 2x – 2 where P = 2 and f(2) = 2.
122.
1
The series is of squares of natural numbers.
123.
4
Going by options, we see that 4th option gives us a proper sequence SLaBslbcSLcdSLDe.
124.
4
On careful observation, we see that there are 2 series involved, one of squares of even numbers
125.
and the other of cubes of odd numbers. Hence the answer is 53 = 125.
4
On careful observation, we see that in the 4th option, pattern is different from the other 3.
126.
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P 25
Bulls Eye
127.
128.
4
3
The 4th option is the answer as in this option only, 2 pairs of the letters are repeating.
In this question, central number is the square of the numbers obtained by adding the square roots
of numbers written outside the circle i.e, ( 1 +
81 + 16 + 25 ) 2 = 361. Hence the answer
would be ( 1 + 25 + 9 + 81) = 324.
From left to right, numbers are reducing by 9 in every row. Hence answer is 3rd option.
Numerical value in the middle row is obtained by multiplying numericals in top and bottom row.
Also every row has A, B,C in it. Hence answer is 10C i.e. 2nd option.
2 and 1 cannot be opposite to 4. Also 4 cannot be opposite to 4, so it has to be 3.
On applying the logic of calendars, we see that 22.6.03 was a Sunday.
Hence 7th day from Sunday would again be a Sunday.
The patterns in the boxes diagonally opposite are inversed.
The answer is 1st option.
The answer is 3rd option.
The answer is 2nd option.
The answer is 1st option.
The answer is 4th option.
Each time the end bars move inwards.
The box should have 6 items, different from the previous ones.
The box should have 5 items, and one line is added to the last lines.
There are 5 elements and no. of circles is increasing by 1 every time.
Alternate figures are same, and colouring is also different.
One arm goes down every time.
We can infer that wise men should be imitated.
2
129.
130.
3
2
131.
132.
2
4
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
4
1
3
2
1
3
4
3
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
1
149.
150.
151.
152.
3
2
3
3
C
Z
A
Q
C
We see that AQP are cousins.
Each letter moves + 6. Therefore code for DANGER becomes 10 – 7 – 20 – 13 – 11 – 24.
Each alternate letter moves – 1 or + 1. Therefore DANGER would be written as CBFHDS.
West will become South East.
A
5
7
7
5
5
7
7
C
153.
154.
155.
3
2
3
From the above diagram the distance between A and B is a straight line and the distance is 4 × 7 =
28 km.
Y alone will take 1/8 – 1/12 ⇒ 1/24 i.e, 24 days to complete the work.
The meaningful word is ‘BEACH’. Fourth letter of this word is ‘C’.
The meaningful words that cannot be formed are NO, ON, TO. So three words can be formed.
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P 26

Sample Paper SNAP 2005

Transcription

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