Fund Go Policies and Pr oc
Transcription
Fund Go Policies and Pr oc
Cbus Manual Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual Date of this Policy: 26 August 2014 Cbus’ Trustee: United Super Pty Ltd ABN 46 006 261 623 AFSL 233792 Cbus ABN 75 493 363 262 MySuper authorisation 75 493 363 262 473 08/14 Contents Introduction 2 01Transparency 3 02Roles and Responsibilities4 03 Code of Conduct 6 04Legal and regulatory Framework7 05 Trustee director duties10 06 Prudential Standards14 07 Indemnification and Insurance 19 08 Fit and Proper Policy 20 09Board and Committee Composition27 10Board Renewal and Review Policy 28 11Meetings 30 12Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle blowing) policy 32 13Policy Governance framework35 Attachment 01: Skills Sets 36 Attachment 02: Skills matrices 42 Attachment 03: Propriety Factors 44 Attachment 04: Regulators 45 Revision History Relaunch of the Fund Governance Policy June 2011 Annual Review-Minor amendments August 2012 Incorporation of Stronger Super reforms and Prudential Standard requirements July 2013 Edit updates and changes to Meeting of the Chairs and Board review sections August 2014 Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 1 Cbus Manual Introduction Welcome to Cbus. The industry superannuation fund focused on the building, construction and allied industries. United Super Pty Ltd is the Trustee Company (“the Trustee”) of Cbus (the” Fund”). The Trustee is the legal entity responsible for the prudent management of the Fund. It is essential that a Trustee has a sound governance framework and conducts its affairs with a high degree of integrity. A culture that promotes and supports good governance, benefits all stakeholders and helps to maintain public confidence in the Fund. The Trustee must also ensure the Fund is governed well so it can meet its members’ expectations and discharge its duties to beneficiaries. The Cbus Fund Governance Policy outlines the key elements of Cbus’ governance framework. Fund Governance describes the corporate governance frameworks within Trustee companies of superannuation funds to distinguish its own internal framework and responsibilities as distinct from a Trustee’s oversight role of other companies’ corporate governance as an investor. It encompasses the mechanisms by which Funds and those in control are held to account. Governance influences how the objectives of the Fund are set and achieved, how risk is monitored and assessed, and how performance is optimised. The Trustee undertakes to review this policy annually or as soon as practicable if there is a change in legal or other regulatory requirements that may impact this policy. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 2 01 Transparency The Trustee supports an open and transparent communication program to its members, employers and other stakeholders on how the Fund is governed and performing. This program includes: ■■ Strategic and operational – reporting on our strategic objectives, complaints management, member and employer research undertaken. ■■ Investments – reporting on performance, where the Fund monies are invested, information on the Fund’s environmental and social governance polices, voting activity, full disclosure of all investment costs, plain English explanation of investments concepts like risk and return. ■■ Governance – information on who the Directors, CEO and executive management of the Fund are, disclosure of Director, CEO and executive remuneration, training, conflict management policies and registers of interests and duties, role of the board, and its committees, Fund Chair, CEO and executive management. How performance is reviewed, code of conduct, and information on gender diversity. ■■ Financial and Risk Management – the provision of the annual financial statements and audit report on-line, statements as to the accuracy of financials, information on the risk management framework and reviews and audits thereof. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 3 02 Roles and Responsibilities The primary purpose of the Fund is to maximise retirement benefits for its members. The Trustee is accountable to its members, and other stakeholders to provide those benefits. The primary source of the Trustee’s power are the Trust Deed (Governing Rules) of the Fund and the Company’s Articles of Association. Role of the Trustee The Board of the Trustee is ultimately responsible for the sound and prudent management of the Trustee’s business operations. It is the role of the Board to make informed decisions in the best interest of beneficiaries of the Fund, to set the strategic direction and objectives of the Fund to enable it to maximise the retirement benefits for its members, and to review and measure performance of adopted strategies against the defined measures. The Board reviews and approves significant policies and frameworks of the Trustee and satisfies itself that an effective system of risk management and internal control is established and maintained. A Board Charter is in place which sets out the authority, responsibilities, membership and operation of the Trustee Board. The Board, in fulfilling its functions, delegates authority to management to act on behalf of the Board with respect to certain matters . This delegation of authority is clearly set out and documented in Job descriptions and the Delegations Register. The Board recognises that it cannot abrogate its responsibility for functions delegated to management. Role of the CEO and Executive Management ■■ Ensuring stakeholders are advised of significant developments and are consulted as appropriate. Management is charged with the day to day operations of the Fund and implementation of the agreed upon strategic direction and objectives of the Fund. ■■ Establishing the Board agenda in conjunction with the CEO. ■■ Ensuring the Board has the necessary information to make effective and appropriate decisions. The CEO reports to the Board, appoints the executive management team and provides leadership to the executive management team and Fund Staff. The CEO is responsible for the performance of the approved Business Plan of the Fund. ■■ Ensuring Board minutes properly reflect Board discussions, outcomes agreed and decisions taken. ■■ Ensuring, as far as practicable, that he/she has a full understanding of all major issues facing the Fund. ■■ Liaising with the CEO and Executive to obtain necessary information and to provide counsel and advice. ■■ Dealing with urgent business that arises between Board meetings and advising the Board of any actions taken. ■■ Overseeing the annual and triennial Board performance evaluation process. The Executive Management team report directly to the CEO and prepare reports to the Board on all aspects of Fund Operations. The Executive Manager, Governance & Risk has a reporting line to the Fund Chair and the Chair of the Audit & Risk Management Committee. The Fund’s organisational chart sets out clear reporting lines and areas of responsibilities. Detailed job descriptions are in place for all positions. The Board’s key objective is to ensure that it continues to meet its role and responsibilities as outlined in the Board Charter. The Board will be assessed against this objective on an annual basis. It is a key objective of the Board’s Committees to ensure they continue to meet their roles and responsibilities as outlined in respective Committee Charters. Committees will be assessed against this objective on an annual basis. Fund Chair The Fund Chair is responsible for: ■■ Providing leadership to the Trustee Board. ■■ Managing meetings of the Trustee Board to ensure that all necessary decisions are made, and to facilitate the effective contribution of all Board members. ■■ Ensuring the integrity and effectiveness of the governance processes of the Board. Board objectives Committee Objective Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 4 Cbus Manual Roles and Responsibilities Committee Chairs A Committee Chair is responsible for: Individual Director’s Objectives Fees Alternate Directors receive the same fees as Directors where they attend a board meeting in place of a Director and for their attendance at Committee meetings where they are a member of the Committee. ■■ Providing leadership to the Committee. Key objectives for individual Directors include: ■■ Establishing the Committee agenda in conjunction with the appropriate executive manager. ■■ Meeting the required skill levels within the required time periods; ■■ ■■ Ensuring the Committee has the necessary information to make effective and appropriate decisions. ■■ Managing meetings of the Committee to ensure that all necessary decisions are made, and to facilitate the effective contribution of all Board members. Meeting ongoing performance development hours; Attending meetings of the Board and appointed Committees in accordance with the Trustee’s policy on meeting attendance; ■■ ■■ Ensuring the Committee minutes properly reflect Committee discussions, outcomes agreed and decisions taken. Ensuring, as far as practicable, that he/she has a full understanding of all the major issues in the Committees’ sphere of responsibility. ■■ Complying with the Trustee Code of Conduct (refer to section 3); and ■■ Contributing to Board and Committee deliberations and the overall direction of the Trustee. Alternate Directors appointed to Committees must meet the minimum training standard within 12 months of appointment to the Committee and meet the ongoing training requirements. Secretariat The secretariat function is performed by the Office of the CEO and the Governance & Risk department. The CEO and Executive Manager, Governance & Risk are company secretaries of the Trustee Company. Individual Directors will be assessed against these objectives on an annual basis. Alternate Directors Liaising with the CEO and relevant executive managers to obtain necessary information and to provide counsel and advice. Purpose and Role ■■ Dealing with urgent business that arises between Committee meetings and advising the Committee or Board of any actions taken. ■■ Overseeing the annual Committee performance evaluation process. Alternate Directors are allowed to be members on Board Committees. An Alternate Director is not entitled to vote at a meeting of a Committee unless they are a member of the Committee in their own right. ■■ Training Alternate Directors are allowed under the Articles of Association. The CEO office is responsible for the preparation, distribution and safe keeping of Board papers and minutes, and Director professional development training records. The Office also oversees the governance standards and practices of the secretariat. The Governance & Risk Business Unit is responsible for ensuring compliance with this policy and its ongoing review. Responsible Person appointments, maintenance of the Register of Interests and Duties, Board, Committee and Director Review processes, reporting and notifications to the regulator/s, and maintenance of company records. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 5 03 Code of Conduct Taking into consideration the functions and duties of the Trustee, the following Code of Conduct has been formulated to be adhered to by all Responsible Persons: ■■ To act honestly in all matters concerning the Fund; ■■ To exercise due care, skill and diligence; ■■ ■■ ■■ ■■ – To prepare thoroughly for all meetings by reading Board and Committee papers; To ensure that all decisions made by the Board and Management are in the best interests of all beneficiaries; – To actively participate in and contribute to Board and Committee deliberations; To comply with the Trust Deed of the Fund and to ensure that the Fund complies with all legal requirements; To understand and oversee the key elements and operation of the following frameworks established by the Trustee: – Governance Framework; – Investment Governance Framework; To comply with the Governance policies of the Fund including the Conflicts Management Policy; – To exercise independent judgment; Access to Legal Advice – To accept the authority of the Chair when appropriately applied. – Conflicts Management Framework; ■■ To maintain confidential information of the Fund; ■■ To promote and represent the Fund; ■■ To obtain all necessary information to enable informed participation in decision making at Board level, to attend Board and Committee meetings and participate in decision making at Board and Committee level; ■■ To meet the skill levels required under the Fit and Proper policy within the required time periods; ■■ To participate in ongoing professional development training in order to meet specified training hours; To attend all meetings of the Board and appointed Committees in accordance with the Trustee’s policy on meeting attendance (refer to section 11); ■■ ■■ If a Director believes that he or she requires legal advice in their capacity as a Director of Cbus or as a nominee Cbus Director, they should endeavour to obtain prior approval from the Fund Chair before obtaining such advice (unless other circumstances dictate); ■■ In making application to the Fund Chair, the Director should provide the reasons why they believe they require independent legal advice, name of the legal firm and a quote for legal costs; and ■■ If the Fund Chair does not approve the application for the Fund to meet the cost of the legal advice, the Director can make application to the Board for consideration; or proceed with obtaining the legal advice and make subsequent application to the Board for the cost of the legal advice to be met. Where appointed as a Cbus nominee on a subsidiary or external Board: – To read reports and documents in preparation for meetings; – To participate in decision making at Board level; To attend Board meetings; and – Report to Cbus on the activities of the subsidiary/external body. ■■ The Fund Chair has the right to obtain independent professional advice at the Fund’s expense. There may also be circumstances in which individual Directors are entitled to obtain independent professional advice, at the Fund’s expense, in the conduct of their duties. The following is the agreed upon process to be followed: To ensure that any queries or matters of concern raised by the Regulators are addressed appropriately; ■■ ■■ Confidential information received by a Responsible Person remains the property of the Fund and it is improper to disclose it or allow it be disclosed, unless that disclosure has been authorised by the Board or is required by law. All Directors and staff are required to complete a Confidentiality Agreement prior to their appointment. – To treat other Board/Committee members (and visitors to meetings) with due respect; – Insurance Management Framework; and Confidentiality – To allocate the scheduled time of meetings exclusively for that purpose; – To ensure there are no distractions from electronic communication devices at meetings; – Risk Management Framework; ■■ To observe the following code of conduct at all Board and Committee meetings: To comply with the Code of Conduct. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 6 04 Legal and Regulatory Framework This section outlines the major legal and regulatory requirements that Responsible Persons must be aware of when making decisions in relation to the Fund. This is not an exhaustive list of all legal and regulatory requirements that are applicable; rather it focuses on the major elements that Responsible Persons should be cognisant of when making decisions in relation to the Fund. Prudential Regulation The framework for the prudential regulation of superannuation by APRA is comprised of three tiers, namely: ■■ Any changes to legal or regulatory requirements that impact on the Fund are reported to the Board by the Executive Manager, Governance and Risk. The regulation of superannuation in Australia is primarily carried out by the Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (‘APRA’). APRA’s powers to make and enforce Prudential Standards are contained in the SIS Act which represents the principal piece of legislation governing the prudential management of superannuation. It is important to note that the Trustee is also subject to a range of other legislative requirements overseen by a number of other regulators. These requirements are described at a high-level within this section. The various government bodies responsible for regulating different components of a superannuation Fund’s operations are summarised at Attachment 4. The SIS Regulations set out a number of operating standards which set out rules covering a wide range of matters concerning the operation of superannuation funds including, but not limited to: ■■ ■■ primary legislation, being the Superannuation Industry Supervision Act (‘SIS Act’), which outlines high- level obligations, high-level definitions and APRA’s enforcement powers; subordinate legislation, in the form of relevant SIS Regulations and prudential standards, which contain more detailed requirements on prudential matters; and guidance material, in the form of Prudential Practice Guides, which supports the obligations and requirements contained in the primary and subordinate legislation, in particular, APRA’s prudential standards. ■■ Benefit payments and preservation; ■■ Transfers of benefits; ■■ Contributions; ■■ Pensions; ■■ Charging of fees; and ■■ Disclosure. Sole Purpose Test – Section 62 The Sole Purpose Test provides that a regulated superannuation fund must be maintained solely for at least one of the legislated core purposes and for one or more of the ancillary purposes. It is a contravention of the Sole Purpose Test for a superannuation fund to be maintained only for ancillary purposes. Core Purposes Superannuation Industry (Super vision) Act The object of the Act is to make provision for the prudent management of superannuation funds and for their supervision by APRA. The SIS Act covers a broad range of matters including, but not limited to: ■■ Trustee duties (refer to section 5); ■■ APRA’s supervisory and enforcement powers; Licensing of Trustees and Funds; ■■ Rules governing investment activities; ■■ Accounts, audit and reporting obligations; ■■ Rules relating to MySuper products; and ■■ Offence provisions. ■■ Provision of benefits for each member on or after the member’s retirement; ■■ Provision of benefits for each fund member on or after the member’s attaining age 65; ■■ Provision of benefits to the legal personal representative and/or the dependants of a fund member on or after the death of the member, prior to retirement or attaining age 65. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 7 Cbus Manual Legal and Regulatory Framework Ancillary Purposes ■■ Provision of benefits for each member on or after termination of employment (resignation, retrenchment etc.). ■■ Provision of benefits for each member on or after the member’s temporary or permanent cessation of work on account of physical or mental health. ■■ ■■ Provision of benefits in respect of a deceased member, to the member’s legal personal representative and/ or dependants where the member dies after retirement (reversionary benefits). ■■ ■■ ■■ Registrable Superannuation Entity Licence (RSE) RSE Licence Standard Conditions Conditions imposed on all licensees include the following: ■■ Must comply with RSE licensee law (which includes the SIS Act and Regulations, Prudential Standards, Financial Sector (Collection of Data) Act, Financial Institutions Supervisory Levies Collection Act and certain provisions of the Corporations Act); ■■ The duties of the Trustee in respect of the Fund must be property performed by the Trustee; ■■ Must ensure the Fund is registered; ■■ The Trustee of a public offer fund must be a constitutional corporation; The Trustee is subject to a range of other legislation overseen and enforced by different Regulators. A summary of these Regulators is contained in Attachment 4. Notify APRA of any change in the Responsible Persons within 14 days of the change taking place; and Australian Financial Services Licence (AFSL) Must comply with any other conditions prescribed by the regulations. RSE Licence Additional Conditions ■■ Provision of such benefits as APRA approves in writing. Under SIS Trustees are required to hold a RSE licence issued by APRA and ensure their Fund is registered with the regulator. The Trustee’s RSE Licence was granted on 21 January 2006 and the Fund was registered on 1 February 2006. Other legislation The Trustee must establish rules for identifying on at least an annual basis duplicate member accounts in the Fund and merging those accounts if it is in the best interests of the member to do so; ■■ Maintain a balance of at least $250,000 in an administrative reserve account which must be audited annually and a certificate provided to APRA within 4 months of the end of the Financial year. (Note that this RSE Licence obligation will continue up until the date the Trustee has built up sufficient resources to meet the Operational Risk Financial Requirement target amount for the first time – see ORFR section under Prudential Standards). All assets of Cbus including all bank accounts must be custodially held. (note exceptions are in place for the Art Collection and Office equipment). The Trustee holds an AFS licence to carry on a financial services business, to deal in a financial product (superannuation only) and provide general financial product advice for the following classes of financial products: ■■ Basic Deposit products; ■■ Life risk insurance products; ■■ Managed investments schemes; and ■■ Superannuation. As an AFS licensee the Trustee has the following general obligations as outlined in Section 912A of the Corporations Act: ■■ Do all things necessary to ensure that the financial services covered by the licence are provided efficiently, honestly and fairly; ■■ Have in place adequate arrangements for the management of conflicts of interest that may arise wholly, or partially, in relation to activities undertaken by the licensee or a representative of the licensee in the provision of financial services as part of the financial services business of the licensee or the representative; ■■ Comply with the conditions on the licence; Comply with financial services laws; ■■ Take reasonable steps to ensure that its representatives comply with the financial services laws; ■■ Maintain the competence to provide those financial services; Authorisation to offer a MySuper product The Federal Government has passed legislation with the aim of creating a new simple, low cost default superannuation option. MySuper aims to improve the simplicity, transparency and comparability of default superannuation products. In order to offer a MySuper option, Trustees must be granted an authorisation from APRA. The Fund was granted an authorisation to offer a MySuper option on 18 February 2013. Cbus’s MySuper investment option is called ‘Growth (Cbus MySuper)’. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 8 Cbus Manual Legal and Regulatory Framework ■■ Ensure that its representatives are adequately trained, and are competent, to provide those financial services; ■■ Have a dispute resolution system that complies with ■■ ASIC requirements; and ■■ Comply with any other obligations that are prescribed by regulations. Under the AFS licence regime the company must nominate natural persons to act as Responsible Managers in respect of that licence. These responsible managers are the people relied on to demonstrate to ASIC that the licensee had the requisite knowledge and experience to provide the financial service. The Responsible Managers are those responsible for significant day-to-day business decisions, including compliance arrangements. The Responsible Managers for the Trustee’s AFS licence are: David Atkin, Angela Thurstans, Maria Butera, Trish Donohue and Stephen Spiller. Responsible Persons will, in the course of their duties, have access to personal and sensitive information about Directors, staff, members and employers of the Fund. All Responsible Persons must ensure that such information is treated confidentially and in accordance with the APPs and the Fund’s Privacy Statement. Anti-Money Laundering and Counter Terrorism Financing (AML/CTF) The AML CTF program consists of the following two parts: The established procedures enable the trustee to identify members (and their agents), and to be reasonably satisfied that a member is who they claim to be. Oversight by the Board and Senior Management The Fund’s Audit & Risk Management Committee oversees this program. Part A – outlines the general requirements of the program. The purpose of Part A is to identify, mitigate and manage the moneylaundering and counter terrorism financing risks that the Fund may face in the provision of its designated services. This includes: ■■ The risk management framework that includes processes for identification, assessment and treatment of risks; ■■ screening employees prior to engagement and ongoing monitoring of staff; ■■ a training program for both Directors and employees in AML/CTF trends, risk-based processes and the consequences of non-compliance; and ■■ ongoing customer due diligence including monitoring of customer transactions. Privacy Law The privacy laws require the Fund to comply with the Australian Privacy Principles (APPs). The APPs are thirteen legislative benchmarks that prescribe minimum privacy standards for the handling of personal information. The legislation regulates the collection, use and disclosure of ‘personal information’. This is information or an opinion about an individual where the identity of that individual is either apparent or reasonably ascertainable from the information or opinion in question. Part B – outlines member identification procedures and it sets out the Trustee’s processes for the collection of minimum member information and verification of that information through appropriate documentation. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 9 05 Trustee Director Duties All Trustee Directors must have a good understanding of the SIS covenants and be able to apply them when making decisions. General SIS covenants: 5. To act fairly in dealing with classes of beneficiaries within the Fund; Investment covenants: 1. To act honestly in all matters concerning the Fund; 6. To act fairly in dealing with beneficiaries within a class; 2. To exercise, in relation to all matters affecting the Fund, the same degree of care, skill and diligence as a prudent superannuation trustee would exercise in relation to an entity of which it is Trustee and on behalf of the beneficiaries of which it makes investments; 7. To keep the money and other assets of the Fund separate from any other money and assets; – That are held by the Trustee personally; or – That are money or assets, as the case may be, of an employersponsor, or of an associate of the employer-sponsor, of the Fund. Trustees are required to exercise diligence and scrutiny in determining and implementing investment strategies for the Fund and for each investment option offered. The SIS Act sets out a range of factors that must be considered in order for a Trustee to discharge its duties to members with respect to investment decisions. These covenants include the following duties: 3. To ensure that the Trustee’s duties and powers are performed and exercised in the best interests of the beneficiaries; 4. Where there is a conflict between the duties of the Trustee to the beneficiaries, or the interests of the beneficiaries, and the duties of the Trustee to any other person or the interests of the Trustee or an associate of the Trustee: – to give priority to the duties to and interests of the beneficiaries over the duties to and interests of other persons; – to ensure that the duties to the beneficiaries are met despite the conflict; – to ensure that the interests of the beneficiaries are not adversely affected by the conflict; and – to comply with the prudential standards in relation to conflicts. 8. To not enter into any contract, or do anything else, that would prevent the Trustee from, or hinder the Trustee in, properly performing or exercising the Trustee’s functions, and powers; 9. To ensure where there are reserves of the Fund – a policy is formulated and to give effect to a strategy for their prudential management, consistent with the Fund’s investment strategy and its capacity to discharge its liabilities (whether actual or contingent) as and when they fall due; and 10.To allow a beneficiary access to any prescribed information or any prescribed documents. 1. To formulate, review regularly and give effect to an investment strategy for the whole of the fund, and for each investment option having regard to: – the risk involved in making, holding and realising, and the likely return from the investments having regard to the Trustee’s objectives and to the expected cash flow requirements in relation to the fund; – the composition of the investments including the extent to which the investments are diverse or involve the fund in being exposed to risks from inadequate diversification; – the liquidity of the investments having regard to the expected cash flow requirements in relation to the fund; – whether reliable valuation information is available in relation to the investments; – the ability of the fund to discharge its existing and prospective liabilities; – the expected tax consequences for the fund in relation to the investments; and – the costs that might be incurred by the fund in relation to the investments; and any other relevant matters. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 10 Cbus Manual Trustee Director Duties 2. To exercise due diligence in developing, offering and reviewing regularly, each investment option; 3. To ensure the investment options offered to each beneficiary allow adequate diversification. Insurance covenants: In respect of the provision of insured benefits to beneficiaries, superannuation Trustees have specific duties: 1. To formulate, review regularly and give effect to an insurance strategy for the benefit of beneficiaries that addresses each of the following matters: – the kinds of insurance that are to be offered; – the level, or levels, of insurance cover to be offered; – the basis for the decision to offer insurance of those kinds, with cover at that level or levels, having regard to the demographic composition of the beneficiaries of the entity; – the method by which the insurer is, or the insurers are, to be determined; 2. To consider the cost to all beneficiaries of offering insurance of a particular kind, or at a particular level; 3. To only offer or acquire insurance of a particular kind, or at a particular level, if the cost of the insurance does not inappropriately erode the retirement income of beneficiaries; 4. To do everything that is reasonable to pursue an insurance claim for the benefit of a beneficiary, if the claim has a reasonable prospect of success. Covenants relating to risk: Duty to Promote With respect to the management of risk, the SIS Act requires Trustees: 1. To formulate, review regularly and give effect to a risk management strategy that relates to: – the activities, or proposed activities, of the Trustee, to the extent that they are relevant to the exercise of the Trustees’ powers, or the performance of the Trustees’ duties and functions, as Trustee of the entity; and – the risks that arise in operating the entity. 2. To maintain and manage in accordance with the prudential standards a reserve to cover the operational risk that relates to the entity. MySuper obligations: There are also additional specific duties that apply to Trustees of funds that offer MySuper products. This is because MySuper members or ‘default members’ generally delegate all aspects of their superannuation to the Trustee. Additional obligations for MySuper Trustees include the following duties: 1. To promote the financial interests of MySuper beneficiaries, in particular returns to those beneficiaries (after the deduction of fees, costs and taxes); 2. To annually assess sufficiency of scale to offer a MySuper product; and 3. To include in the MySuper investment strategy: The duty to promote the financial interests of MySuper members is not a requirement to generate a certain level of returns. Sustained low returns may indicate a failure to discharge this duty, but low returns, on their own, will not necessarily involve a breach of this obligation. It is also important to note that this obligation does not imply that MySuper members should be given preference over any other members of the Fund in any way. Breaches of Directors’ duties: Actions A person may bring an action to recover loss or damage against an individual Director for a breach of a Director’s covenant including a MySuper obligation. Before being able to bring such an action against a Director, the person must be granted leave by the court. Leave to commence an action may be sought any time within 6 years after the day the alleged breach occurred. In making its decision, the court will consider whether the person bringing the action is acting in good faith and whether there is a serious question to be tried. Defences Defences are available to a Director in respect of civil claims for loss or damage as a result of a contravention of a Director’s covenant or a MySuper obligation if the contravention was: ■■ due to a reasonable mistake; or ■■ due to reasonable reliance on third party information; or ■■ due to: – an investment return target over a period of 10 years; and (a) the act or default of a third party; or – the level of risk appropriate to the strategy expressed in terms of the expected frequency of negative returns over a 10 year period. (b) an accident; or (c) some other cause beyond the Director’s control; and the Director took reasonable precautions and exercised due diligence to avoid the contravention. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 11 Cbus Manual Trustee Director Duties Directors also have a defence to an action for loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of the making of an investment where they can establish compliance with the relevant covenants and MySuper obligations that apply in relation to each act, or failure to act, that resulted in the loss or damage. A similar defence is available to an action for loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of the management of any reserves. Infringement notices From 1 July 2013, the SIS Act will grant APRA the power to issue infringement notices for certain breaches of the Act occurring on or after 1 July 2013. These infringement notices are designed to provide a fast and effective remedy, proportionate to the alleged breach. APRA has a 12 month time limit within which infringement notices must be given. An infringement notice may be given where an infringement officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has contravened an enforceable provision. Examples of provisions in the Act to which infringement notices will apply include: ■■ ■■ ■■ not notifying as soon as practicable each beneficiary about an acting Trustee’s appointment; not having rules in place for the appointment of member or independent representatives where required to do so; and not meeting APRA’s deadline for receipt of a report relating to an investigation. Provisions in the Act jointly administered by APRA and the ATO will also be enforceable, except where the offence relates to an SMSF. In addition, further offences may be included by way of regulations. Persons receiving infringement notices can choose to pay the amount as an alternative to having court proceedings brought against them. The amount of an infringement notice is one fifth of the maximum penalty that a court could impose for that contravention. Once an infringement notice is paid, the liability is taken to be discharged, and the person is not regarded as having been convicted of the offence specified in the notice. However, if the person chooses not to pay the amount, court proceedings can be brought against them in relation to the contravention. An infringement notice may be withdrawn after taking into account factors such as any written representations seeking the withdrawal, and the circumstances of the alleged contravention. Where a notice is withdrawn, notice of the withdrawal must be given. Corporations Act A Director or other officer of a corporation must exercise their powers and discharge their duties with the degree of care and diligence that a reasonable person would exercise if they were in a similar position. s.180(1) A Director or other officer of a corporation must exercise their powers and discharge their duties (a) in good faith in the best interest of the corporation; and (b) for a proper purpose. s.181(1) A Director, secretary, other officer or employee of a corporation must not improperly use their position or information gained by virtue of their position to gain an advantage for themselves or someone else; or cause detriment to the corporation. s.182, s.183 & s.184 It is a criminal offence if a Director dishonestly breaches these duties under the Corporations Act. s.184 Common Law Duties While the SIS covenants incorporate some common law duties, common law duties are enforced separately to the duties in SIS. ■■ To act solely in the interests of beneficiaries of the trust; ■■ To invest the trust funds to benefit the members of the fund; ■■ To exercise reasonable care and skill (of a prudent business person); ■■ Not to derive a profit or benefit directly or indirectly from the trust; ■■ Not to purchase or lease property from the trust; ■■ To act personally and not to delegate; ■■ To avoid all conflicts of interest; ■■ To keep accounts and give information to beneficiaries; ■■ To act impartially between beneficiaries; and ■■ To observe the terms of the trust (the governing rules). Liability Section 197 provides that Directors of a Trustee company are personally liable for the debts of a Trustee if: ■■ The Trustee does not or cannot meet a debt for which the Trustee is liable; and ■■ The Trustee is not entitled to be indemnified against the liability from the assets of the Trust. Please refer to Section 7 for information on Director indemnification and insurance cover. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 12 Cbus Manual Trustee Director Duties Business Judgment Rule Section 180 (2) A Director or other officer of a corporation who makes a business judgment (means any decision to take, or not take, action in respect of a matter relevant to the business operations of the corporation) is taken to meet the requirements of s.180 (1) and their equivalent duties at common law and in equity, in respect of the judgment if they: ■■ Make the judgment in good faith for a proper purpose; ■■ Do not have a material personal interest in the subject matter of the judgment; ■■ Inform themselves about the subject matter of the judgment to the extent they reasonably believe to be appropriate; and ■■ Rationally believe that the judgment is in the best interests of the corporation. Directors of wholly-owned subsidiary companies A Director of a corporation that is a wholly owned subsidiary of a body corporate is taken to act in good faith in the best interests of the subsidiary if: ■■ The constitution of the subsidiary expressly authorises the Director to act in the best interests of the holding company; ■■ The Director acts in good faith in the best interests of the holding company; ■■ The subsidiary is not insolvent at the time the Director acts and does not become insolvent because of the Director’s act. s.187 The Constitution of all wholly owned subsidiary companies should reflect this provision. The Constitution of Cbus Property P/L expressly allows Directors to act in the best interest of United Super P/L. The Director’s or officer’s belief that the judgment is in the best interests of the corporation is a rational one unless the belief is one that no reasonable person in their position would hold. Section 189 provides that a Director may rely upon information provided by competent employees or expert advice given by a person competent to give that advice if the Director’s reliance is made: ■■ In good faith; and ■■ After making an independent assessment of the information or advice in the context of the Director’s knowledge of the company and the complexity of the structure and operations of the company. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 13 06 Prudential Standards Prudential Standards are legislative instruments which are formulated and enforced by APRA. They are principles-based and are designed to provide clarity and certainty by providing additional detail on the prudential matters set out in the SIS Act. There are twelve prudential standards applying to superannuation. Six of the standards are known as behavioural standards and apply across all APRA-regulated entities (banks, life insurers and general insurers). These standards cover risks associated with the behaviour of the Board and Management. They are: ■■ SPS 510 Governance ■■ SPS 520 Fit and proper ■■ SPS 231 Outsourcing ■■ SPS 232 Business continuity management ■■ SPS 220 Risk management ■■ SPS 310 Audit and related matters. The remaining six prudential standards are known as technical standards and cover risks specific to the superannuation industry. They are: ■■ SPS 530 Investment governance ■■ SPS 521 Conflicts of interest ■■ SPS 114 Operational risk financial requirement ■■ SPS 250 Insurance in superannuation ■■ SPS 410 MySuper transition ■■ SPS 160 Defined benefit matters (not applicable to Cbus). Each of the twelve prudential standards is supported by a prudential practice guide. While not enforceable by APRA, prudential practice guides provide further guidance on how to meet the requirements of Prudential Standards and set out what APRA considers to be sound practice in particular areas. SPS 510 Governance This Prudential Standard sets out minimum foundations for good governance of the Trustee. The standard aims to ensure that the Trustee’s business operations are managed soundly and prudently by a competent Board, which can make reasonable and impartial business judgments in the best interests of beneficiaries and which duly considers the impact of its decisions on beneficiaries. The ultimate responsibility for the sound and prudent management of the Trustee’s business operations rests with the Board of Directors. The key requirements of the Governance Prudential Standard are that: ■■ ■■ ■■ The Board must ensure that Directors and senior management of the Trustee, collectively, have the full range of skills needed for the effective and prudent operation of the Trustee’s business operations. The Trustee’s processes for meeting this requirement are set out in the Trustee’s Fit and Proper Policy (refer to section 8). A majority of Trustee Directors and all senior management must be ‘ordinarily resident’ in Australia (i.e. – likely to be in Australia for a majority of days in any 12 month period). ■■ The Board must have a Board Renewal Policy which provides details of how the Board intends to renew itself to ensure it remains open to new ideas and independent thinking, while retaining adequate expertise. Refer to section 10 for further details on the Trustee’s policy with respect to Board renewal. ■■ The Board must have procedures for assessing, on at least an annual basis, the Board’s performance and the performance of individual Directors (refer to section 10 for further details of the Trustee’s performance review procedures). ■■ The Board must have a Remuneration Committee. The Prudential Standard sets out a number of requirements with respect to the composition, roles and responsibilities of this committee which are reflected in the Remuneration Committee Charter. ■■ The Board must approve a Remuneration Policy that aligns remuneration arrangements (including performancebased remuneration) with risk management. ■■ The Board must have an Audit Committee. The Prudential Standard sets out a number of requirements with respect to the composition, roles and responsibilities of this committee which are reflected in the Audit and Risk Management Committee Charter. ■■ The Trustee must have an independent and adequately resourced internal audit function. The Board must provide the auditor with the opportunity to raise matters directly with the Board. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 14 Cbus Manual Prudential Standards SPS 520 Fit and proper SPS 231 Outsourcing This Prudential Standard sets out the minimum requirements for Trustees in determining the fitness and propriety of individuals holding positions of responsibility. This Prudential Standard requires that all outsourcing arrangements involving material business activities entered into by a Trustee be subject to appropriate due diligence, approval and ongoing monitoring. The aim is to ensure that the Trustee prudently manages the risks posed to its business operations by not having persons in these positions that are not deemed fit and proper. The key requirements of this Prudential Standard are that: ■■ ■■ ■■ the Trustee must develop and implement a Fit and Proper Policy that meets the requirements of the Prudential Standard (the Trustee’s Fit and Proper Policy is detailed at section 8); the fitness and propriety of a Responsible Person must be assessed prior to initial appointment and then re- assessed annually; the Trustee must, where it is found that a Responsible Person is not fit and proper, take all prudent steps to ensure that a person is not appointed to, or does not continue to hold, a responsible person position; ■■ additional fit and proper requirements must be met for auditors and actuaries; and ■■ APRA must be provided with certain information regarding responsible persons and the Trustee’s assessment of their fitness and propriety. All risks arising from outsourcing material business activities must be appropriately managed to ensure that the Trustee is able to meet its obligations to its beneficiaries. The material outsourced arrangements of Cbus include: Fund administration services; ■■ Master Custody arrangements; and ■■ Investment Managers. The key requirements of the Outsourcing Prudential Standard are that the Trustee must: ■■ Have a Board-approved Outsourcing Policy relating to outsourcing of material business activities and specific requirements in relation to the outsourcing to associated entities. Have processes for assessing the options for outsourcing a material business activity including preparation of a business case, tender or other selection processes, due diligence review, contingency plans and a determination that the arrangement is in the best interests of beneficiaries. ■■ Have sufficient monitoring processes in place to manage the outsourcing of material business activities. ■■ Have a legally binding agreement in place for all outsourcing of material business activities containing minimum mandated provisions. ■■ ■■ This Prudential Standard requires the Trustee to implement a wholeof-business approach to business continuity management. The standard applies regardless of whether activities are outsourced or whether functions are performed outside of Australia. Business continuity management increases resilience to business disruption arising from internal and external events and may reduce the impact on the Trustee’s business operations. ■■ ■■ SPS 232 Business continuity management Consult with APRA prior to entering into agreements to outsource material business activities to service providers that conduct their activities outside Australia. The ultimate responsibility for the business continuity of the Trustee’s business operations rests with the Board of Directors. The key requirements of the Business Continuity Management Prudential Standard are that: ■■ The Trustee must identify, assess and manage potential business continuity risks to ensure that it is able to meet its obligations to beneficiaries and protect the financial position of the Trustee, the Fund or connected entities. ■■ The Board must consider business continuity risks and controls as part of its overall risk management framework and approve a Business Continuity Management Policy. ■■ The Trustee must develop and maintain a Business Continuity Plan that documents procedures and information which enable the Trustee to manage business disruptions. ■■ The Trustee must review and test the business continuity plan annually and periodically arrange for its review by the internal audit function or an appropriate external expert. ■■ The Trustee must notify APRA in the event of certain major disruptions. Notify APRA after entering into agreements to outsource material business activities or after terminating such agreements. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 15 Cbus Manual Prudential Standards SPS 220 Risk management This Prudential Standard sets out the requirements for the Trustee to have systems for identifying, assessing, managing, mitigating and monitoring material risks that may affect its ability to meet its obligations to beneficiaries. These systems, together with the structures, policies, processes and people supporting them, comprise the Trustee’s risk management framework. The Board of the Trustee is ultimately responsible for having a risk management framework that enables the Trustee to implement risk management approaches that appropriately manage different types of risk. The risk management framework must be aligned with the Trustee’s business plan and cover, at a minimum, the following risks: ■■ Governance risk; ■■ Investment governance risk; ■■ Liquidity risk; ■■ Operational risk; ■■ Insurance risk; ■■ Strategic and tactical risks; and ■■ Any other risks that could materially impact the Trustee’s business operations. The key requirements of the Risk Management Prudential Standard are that: ■■ ■■ ■■ The Trustee must have a written, 3-year rolling Business Plan that sets out the high-level strategic direction of the Fund and review the plan at least annually. The Trustee must maintain and review, at least annually, a Boardapproved Risk Appetite Statement that articulates the degree of risk that the Trustee will accept in pursuit of strategy and defines risk tolerances for each material risk. The Trustee must maintain a Board-approved Risk Management Strategy that describes the key elements of the risk management framework that gives effect to the Trustee’s strategy for managing risk. ■■ ■■ The Trustee must have a designated risk management function responsible for assisting the Board, its committees and senior management in developing and maintaining the risk management framework. The Trustee must notify APRA when the Trustee becomes aware of a significant breach of, or material deviation from, the risk management framework, or discovers that the risk management framework does not adequately address a material risk. ■■ The Trustee must, on an annual basis, provide APRA with a risk management declaration as part of the Annual APRA return. ■■ The Trustee must maintain adequate technical, human and financial resources at a level that is adequate for the Trustee’s business operations. SPS 530 Investment governance This Prudential Standard requires the Trustee to implement a sound investment governance framework and to manage investments in a manner consistent with the interests of beneficiaries. The operation of this Standard supplements and supports the investment covenants contained in the SIS Act and detailed in section 5 of this Policy. The Board is ultimately responsible for having an Investment Governance Framework for the selection, management and monitoring of investments. The Board of the Trustee must: ■■ approve specific and measurable investment objectives for each investment option, including return and risk objectives; ■■ approve an Investment Strategy for the whole of fund and for each investment option offered that reflects the Trustee’s duties to beneficiaries (see section 2); ■■ monitor and regularly assess whether the investment objectives are being met; and ■■ take appropriate and timely action regarding information contained in reports to the Board on investment matters. SPS 310 Audit and related matters This Prudential Standard outlines the roles and responsibilities of the external auditor. It also outlines the obligations the Trustee to make arrangements to enable an auditor to fulfil his or her responsibilities. The key requirements of the Audit Prudential Standard are that: ■■ The Trustee must make arrangements to enable an auditor to undertake his or her role and responsibilities. ■■ The auditor must audit the financial statements and annual information required under reporting standards made by APRA in relation to the Fund, review other aspects of the Fund, and report to the Trustee. The audit and review must cover the Trustee’s business operations in respect of the Fund. ■■ The auditor may also be required to undertake special purpose engagements. ■■ The Trustee must submit to APRA all reports required to be prepared by the auditor. Other key requirements of the Investment Governance Prudential Standard are that the Trustee must: ■■ develop and implement an effective due diligence process for the selection of investments; ■■ determine and approve appropriate measures to monitor the performance of investments on an ongoing basis; ■■ review the investment objectives and investment strategies on an ongoing basis; and ■■ maintain a Board-approved Liquidity Management Plan. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 16 Cbus Manual Prudential Standards SPS 521 Conflicts of interest This Prudential Standard sets out the requirements for the identification, avoidance and management of conflicts of duty and interest by the Trustee. These requirements are essential to ensure that the Trustee and its Responsible Persons meet legislative obligations in the SIS Act; namely the obligation to give priority to the duties to and interests of beneficiaries, over the duties to and interests of other persons. The Board is ultimately responsible for having a conflicts management framework which applies to the entirety of the Trustee’s business operations. The key requirements of the Conflicts of Interest Prudential Standard are that the Trustee must: ■■ develop, implement and regularly review a Conflicts Management Policy that is approved by the Board; ■■ identify all relevant duties and relevant interests; ■■ develop and maintain registers of relevant duties and relevant interests; ■■ ensure that all incoming Responsible Persons disclose all relevant duties and relevant interests prior to the person taking up the appointment. A ‘Relevant Duty’ means any duty owed by the Trustee or a Responsible Person to beneficiaries of the Fund or any other person. Relevant Duties requiring disclosure might include (but are not limited to): ■■ a duty owed to a current employer; ■■ a duty in respect of any directorships of other companies; or ■■ a duty arising from a consultancy arrangement, executive position or any other appointment. A ‘Relevant Interest’ means any interest, gift, emolument or benefit, whether pecuniary or non-pecuniary which is held by the Trustee or Responsible Person either directly or indirectly. Relevant Interests requiring disclosure might include (but are not limited to): ■■ gifts to a Responsible Person over $500; ■■ any major shareholdings in public or private companies (interests in shares or securities that exceed 10% of shares or securities on issue); ■■ interests in a related party of the Trustee; ■■ interests in property or other assets that may result in a conflict situation; ■■ any financial or non-financial benefits that are or may be derived by a Responsible Person from an entity that provides services to the Trustee; or ■■ interests of a spouse, child, parent or sibling of a Responsible Person that could lead to a conflict situation. In accordance with the Trustee’s commitment to openness and transparency in its management of the Fund, a summary of the Conflict Management Policy and Register of Relevant Duties and Relevant Interests are disclosed on the Fund’s website. SPS 114 Operational risk financial requirement (‘ORFR’) This Prudential Standard sets out the requirements for the Trustee to maintain adequate financial resources to address losses arising from operational risk events. The Board is ultimately responsible for ensuring that it holds, and has unfettered access to, financial resources in the form of an operational risk reserve to meet the target amount of financial resources that the Trustee determines is necessary to respond to these losses. The key requirements of this Prudential Standard are that the Trustee must: ■■ have an ORFR Strategy that sets out the Trustee’s approach to determining, implementing, managing and maintaining the ORFR target amount; ■■ have suitable policies and procedures to manage the financial resources held to meet the ORFR target amount; ■■ determine a tolerance limit below the ORFR target amount that, if financial resources held to meet the ORFR target amount were to breach this limit, would require the RSE licensee to notify APRA and implement a replenishment plan; ■■ ensure that the financial resources held to meet the ORFR target amount are only used to address an operational risk event; and ■■ Develop a Board-approved ORFR Transition Plan which details how the Trustee will build up the operational risk reserve. (Note that the Trustee has 3 years from 1 July 2013 to meet its ORFR target amount). Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 17 Cbus Manual Prudential Standards SPS 250 Insurance in superannuation This Prudential Standard sets out the requirements for the Trustee with respect to making insured benefits available to beneficiaries. The Board is ultimately responsible for having an insurance management framework that reflects the risks associated with making available insured benefits. The insurance management framework must include the Insurance Strategy for the Fund as required in the SIS Act. The key requirements of this Prudential Standard are that a Trustee must also: ■■ ensure that insurance arrangements adequately address the minimum requirements set out in Prudential Standard; and ■■ formulate and give effect to appropriate selection processes for, and due diligence of, insurers and monitor relationships with insurers on an ongoing basis. SPS 410 MySuper Transition This Prudential Standard sets out the minimum processes for Trustees in relation transferring all default balances to a MySuper product before 1 July 2017. The Prudential Standard requires the Trustee to: ■■ Identify and report to APRA the number of default balances (i.e. – those members who have not exercised choice) and the amount of those balances; and ■■ Prepare and implement a transition plan addressing the movement of default balances to a MySuper product. Breach of Prudential Standards Prudential Standards fall within the definition of RSE Licensee law under the SIS Act. It is therefore an RSE licence condition that the Trustee must comply with Prudential Standards. If a Trustee breaches a Prudential Standard it will constitute a breach of the Trustee’s RSE Licence. In such instances, the Trustee has an obligation to report the contravention to APRA if deemed significant. APRA has the power under the SIS Act to direct the Trustee to comply with a Prudential Standard by a specified time if APRA has reasonable grounds to believe that the Trustee has breached the Standard. APRA also has the power to cancel the Trustee’s RSE licence. Further, to the extent that a Prudential Standards supplements and elaborates on a provision of the SIS Act or Regulations (including Trustee duties) a contravention of a Prudential Standard may also indicate that a Trustee has breached the relevant provision of the SIS Act or Regulations which may carry specific penalties under the Act. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 18 07 Indemnification and Insurance This section outlines the various indemnities available to Directors in their capacity as Directors of the Trustee. Indemnification of Directors Section 57(1) of SIS allows for a Director of the Trustee to be indemnified out of the assets of the Fund in respect of a liability incurred while acting as a Director of the Trustee. In order to indemnify itself out of the assets of the Fund, the Trustee must first exhaust its Operational Risk Financial Requirement (ORFR) or any other resources maintained to cover the risk of litigation against the Trustee. Note that no such indemnity can be given against liability for a monetary penalty under a civil penalty order or a liability that arises because the Director: ■■ Fails to act honestly in a matter concerning the entity; or ■■ Intentionally or recklessly fails to exercise, in relation to a matter affecting the entity, the degree of care and diligence that the Director is required to exercise. A civil penalty order is where the Court makes a declaration that a civil penalty provision under the SIS legislation has been contravened. The Court declares that a person has, by a specified act or omission, contravened such provision. Examples of civil penalty provisions include breaches of: ■■ The sole purpose test; ■■ Lending to members of the superannuation fund; ■■ In-house asset rules; and ■■ Duty to notify APRA of significant adverse events. Trust Deed Indemnity Deed provides that each Director is indemnified out of the assets of Cbus against any claim made or liability incurred as Director of the Trustee. In accordance with the SIS Act exceptions, the right of indemnification under the Trustee Deed does not apply if a Director: ■■ fails to act honestly in a matter concerning the Fund; or ■■ intentionally or recklessly fails to exercise the degree of care and diligence that the Director is required to exercise; or ■■ ■■ Improper use of information obtained as a Director of the Trustee to gain advantage or cause detriment to the Trustee. The Corporations Act prohibits the Trustee from insuring Directors against these liabilities. incurs a monetary penalty for a breach of the SIS Act, Corporations Act or any other legislation which regulates the operation of the Trustee or Fund. Directors and Officers Insurance Access, Indemnity and Insurance Agreements The Fund provides Directors with Access, Indemnity and Insurance Agreements which provide Directors with provisional rights and benefits parallel to those provided by the Corporations Act, Trust Deed and Articles. The purpose of these Agreements is multi-fold, but summarily: The Trustee has in place a Directors and Officers Insurance Policy (‘D&O insurance’) that covers each Director and Officer for claims made against them during the Policy period with respect to their duties to the Trustee. ■■ it protects Directors should the company fail to take out or continue to hold requisite D&O insurance cover in the future; ■■ it provides access to books and records in excess of what the Corporations Law provides; and ■■ it confirms the indemnification of Directors, notwithstanding any changes to the Company’s constitution in later years to reduce current levels of protection. The policy indemnifies each Director against: ■■ All liability against which Directors are indemnified under the Trust Deed; ■■ Monetary penalties for which a Director is not indemnified under the Trust Deed; and ■■ Legal costs incurred by a Director in respect of legal claims or inquiries concerning Cbus or anything done by the Director as a Director of the Trustee. The D&O insurance does NOT cover any liability or expense incurred by a Director as a result of: ■■ The Director’s own dishonesty; ■■ A wilful breach of a Director’s duty; ■■ Improper use of a Director’s position to gain advantage or to cause detriment to the Trustee; and The arrangements also clarify those instances where the Trustee by law, is prohibited from indemnifying and/or insuring Directors against certain risks. All executed agreements are held in the Office of the CEO. All agreements are identical as between Directors (there is no variation of rights). No one (1) or more agreement/s can be modified or altered without the written consent of all parties who are party to the original. It is at Directors’ discretion as to whether they enter into the Agreement with the Trustee. In either case, the Directors’ protections under current instruments are not impacted. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 19 08 Fit and Proper Policy The Trustee must ensure that persons acting in responsible person positions possess the necessary fitness and propriety for these positions. Equally, the Trustee must ensure that the risk of such persons not possessing the necessary fitness and propriety is prudently managed. The ultimate responsibility for ensuring the fitness and propriety of the Responsible Persons of the Trustee rests with the Board. The aim of the fit and proper requirements is to ensure that Responsible Persons do not pose risks to the interests, or reasonable expectations, of beneficiaries, the financial position of the Fund or any other relevant prudential matter. To this end, this Fit and Proper Policy aims to ensure that each individual holding a Responsible Persons position on behalf of the Trustee meets the requirements of Prudential Standard SPS 520. Prudential Standard SPS 520 generally: The Trustee must meet the standards relating to fitness and propriety at all times, and it is an offence if the Trustee intentionally or recklessly contravenes the Standard. The requirements of the Standard do not preclude the Trustee from employing or using in-house or external service providers to assist in the performance of the Trustee’s duties and responsibilities. Where the Trustee does receive external advice, it must ensure that it has sufficient knowledge to assess the advice of technical experts and to make informed decisions in the best interest of beneficiaries based on that advice. Instead, the key focus of the Standard is on ensuring that Responsible Persons have the appropriate skills, experience and knowledge, and act with honesty and integrity in their roles as Responsible Persons. It should be noted that the Responsible Persons of the Trustee are required to comply with this Fit and Proper Policy, in all aspects of their role. Fitness: 1.Investments A Skills Set (Attachment 1) has been developed by the Trustee, which outlines the three tiers of knowledge and skill required by Responsible Persons across the six core skill or knowledge areas. A Skills Matrix (Attachment 2) indicates the numbers of Responsible Persons required across the Board and Committees at each tier, for each of the six core skills or knowledge areas. The Trustee has determined that this Skills mix is required for the Board and Committees to function appropriately. 2.Property Propriety: The fitness limb of the standard focusses on an individual’s character, competence and experience. Each individual Responsible Person is expected to make a contribution to the Trustee satisfying the requirements of fitness at a collective level. The Trustee has determined a set of minimum competencies that must be met by all Responsible Persons across a set of six core skill or knowledge areas: 3. Operational (including Member/ Employer requirements, strategic, administration, insurance and marketing) 4. Audit and Financial 5. Governance and Risk Management 6. Remuneration and People The propriety limb of the standard must be met at all times by each Responsible Person. In determining the “propriety” of an individual to act as a Responsible Person, the factors that are considered are listed in Factors to determine Propriety (Attachment 3). The above skill sets have been determined taking into account the following factors: Definition of a Responsible Person ■■ The business currently being conducted by the Trustee; Under Prudential Standard SPS 520 a responsible person of a Trustee is: ■■ The strategy and future focus of the Trustee; ■■ The size and complexity of the funds managed; and ■■ The skills required to adequately manage the external risk environment. ■■ a Director of the Trustee; ■■ a Secretary of the Trustee; ■■ a Senior Manager of the Trustee; ■■ a Fund Auditor who is appointed to conduct any audit of the Trustee or any connected entity; and ■■ a person who performs activities for a connected entity of the Trustee where those activities could materially affect the Trustee’s business operations, or its financial standing, either directly or indirectly. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 20 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy Based on this definition, Cbus has determined that its ‘Responsible Persons’ include: ■■ all Directors of the Trustee; ■■ Company Secretary/s of the Trustee; ■■ all Executive Managers of the Trustee; ■■ and the external Fund Auditor. APRA can also determine that a person is a Responsible Person if it is satisfied that the person plays a significant role in the management or control of the Trustee, or that the person’s activities may have a material impact upon the business of the Trustee. Inversely, APRA may also determine, that a person is not a Responsible Person if it is satisfied that the person does not play a significant role in the management or control of the Trustee, or that the person’s activities does not have a material impact upon the business of the Trustee. Under Prudential Standard SPS520, the Fund Auditor is now classified as a Responsible Person of the Trustee. As a result, the Fund Auditor is subject to the same checks as all Responsible Persons of the Trustee as well as additional criteria which apply specifically to Auditors. Criteria to determine if a Responsible person is fit and proper Generally: It is a requirement of Prudential Standard SPS520 that the Trustee clearly defines and documents the competencies required for each Responsible Person position. These competencies are reflected in the Trustee Responsible Person Skill Sets at Attachment 1. For the purposes of the SIS Act and for the purposes of determining whether a person is fit and proper to hold a responsible person position, the criteria are whether: a) it would be prudent for a Trustee to conclude that the person possesses the competence, character, diligence, experience, honesty, integrity and judgment to perform properly the duties of the responsible person position; b) it would be prudent for a Trustee to conclude that the person possesses the education or technical qualifications, knowledge and skills relevant to the duties and responsibilities of an RSE licensee; Disqualified Persons: Disqualifications may prevent an individual from holding a Responsible Person role. The Trustee must take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that the Responsible Person is not a disqualified person within the meaning of s120 of the SIS Act. As such, the Trustee must ensure that the Responsible Person has not been convicted of any offence of dishonesty in any jurisdiction, within Australia or overseas. A person may be disqualified as a result of any of the following situations: ■■ c) the person is not disqualified under the SIS Act from holding the position; and At any time the individual was convicted of an offence in respect of dishonest conduct in any jurisdiction; or ■■ A civil penalty order was made in relation to the person; or d) the person either: ■■ The person is insolvent under administration; or ■■ Disqualified by the Federal Court under s126H(5) of the SIS Act or by the Commissioner of Taxation under section 126A. (i) has no conflict in performing the duties of the responsible person position; or (ii) if the person has a conflict, it would be prudent for a Trustee to conclude that the conflict will not create a material risk that the person will fail to perform properly the duties of the position. Please see Responsible Persons – Skill Sets (Attachment 1) and Responsible Persons – Skills Matrices (Attachment 2) for further guidance on what is considered with regard to this element of the Standard. Please see Factors to determine Propriety (Attachment 3) for further guidance on what is considered with regard to this element of the Standard. Prior to being appointed, an individual is required to successfully pass an Australian Federal Police Check (Partial Exclusion). This must be ‘current’ – that is to say, not more than 28 days old. ‘Partial Exclusion’ means that an applicant is not protected by the Spent Convictions legislation for offences relating to dishonest conduct. Any convictions of the individual in question will result in them being deemed a Disqualified person. Where a Director has resided overseas for more than 12 months after the age of 18, consideration will also be given as to whether to obtain criminal record checks from the country or countries of residence, similar to that required by the Department of Immigration for a visa application. Persons banned from acting as a company Director under the Corporations Act 2001 or similar overseas legislation are ineligible for appointment as a Director of a Trustee that is a body corporate. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 21 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy Additional criteria applying to Fund auditors: There are additional criteria which the Fund Auditor must now satisfy under Prudential Standard SPS520, in order to be classed as fit and proper. These are that the Fund Auditor: ■■ ■■ ■■ ■■ ■■ be registered as an auditor under the Corporations Act or is the Auditor- General (or a delegate of the Auditor- General) of the Commonwealth, a State or Territory; is not the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or a Director of the Trustee, or of a related body corporate or a connected entity; has a minimum of five years’ relevant experience in the audit of the business operations of the superannuation trustees generally; has experience relating to the business operations of the Trustee that is sufficiently relevant and recent to provide reasonable assurance that the person is familiar with current issues in the audit of the business operations of the Trustee; Process for assessment of fitness and propriety The Trustee must complete a Fit and Proper assessment for each Responsible Person prior to the person becoming a holder of the position. The following paragraphs detail the process under which the assessments of fitness and propriety will be performed. 1. Responsibility for processes: Responsibility for ensuring these processes are performed to assess the fitness and propriety of a proposed Responsible Person rests with the Executive Manager, Governance & Risk. 2. Information and Declaration/s to be collected (ii) an employee or Director of a body corporate, statutory body, partnership, trust, or commercial or professional enterprise of any kind of which the actuary is an employee or Director; or (iii) a partner of the actuary; ■■ is a member of a recognised professional body; and ■■ is ordinarily resident in Australia. In addition, the Fund Auditor must not be an employee of the Trustee. There are exceptions to the above criteria where, for example, the Trustee considers that there are exceptional circumstances. APRA must be notified if this is the case. ■■ Declaration that no disqualifications exist that would prevent the Responsible Person from holding the position; and ■■ Eligibility Declarations; Skills evaluation A self-evaluation of their skills, against the criteria set out under the Skills Sets (Attachment 1) and Skills Matrices (Attachment 2). 3. Checks and searches to be performed: The following checks will be conducted in order to assess the fitness and propriety of Responsible Persons: ■■ Police check (including consideration of additional checks in foreign jurisdictions if the person has lived overseas for more than 12 months after the age of 18); ■■ Bankruptcy check; and ■■ Search of the ASIC ‘Banned and Disqualified Person’s Register’ and the APRA ‘Disqualification Register’. Complete an Application for Appointment, which includes: ■■ ■■ is not: (i) an actuary of the Trustee; Declarations ■■ ■■ Details (and certificates, where appropriate) of relevant qualifications, education and skills; Disclosure of all relevant duties and relevant interests in accordance with the Trustee’s Conflicts Management Policy; Consent form enabling the Trustee to disclose any relevant information to APRA; Written reference from a referee, over the age of 30, who has known the individual for a minimum of three consecutive years. This must include: – A statement attesting to the person’s good name and character; – A statement about a person’s business and professional practices; and 4. Matters that will be considered before determining if a person is fit and proper: In order to determine if a person is fit and proper, consideration will be given as to whether the individual has: ■■ Provided all required information; ■■ Satisfied all of the required checks; ■■ Satisfactorily completed all the declaration requirements; and ■■ Is competent to perform the duties of the responsible person, as demonstrated in the Skills evaluation. – A statement attesting to the person’s reputation and integrity in the conduct of business activities. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 22 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy 5. Review of documentation and finalising appointments The Executive Manager, Governance & Risk will review all appointment documentation and checks undertaken and will make a recommendation to the Fund Chair in the case of a Director/ Alternate Director whether the individual should be recommended for appointment to the Board. In the case of an executive manager a recommendation on appointment will be made to the CEO. In the event where the Responsible Person has satisfied all of these matters WITH THE EXCEPTION of achieving the required skills tier for the role, the individual has 12 months from the date of appointment to satisfy this requirement. The Skills evaluation will determine the individual’s training programme for the following 12 months. Not fit and proper The fit and proper criteria in SPS 520 require the Trustee to assess whether responsible persons meet certain requirements. If insufficient information is available to enable the RSE licensee to prudently conclude that those requirements are met, particularly as a result of lack of cooperation by the person, the criteria would normally be regarded as not met. Where a person is found to be not fit and proper due to a lack of character, diligence, honesty, integrity or judgment, that person will normally not be suitable for any responsible person position. In particular, if a responsible person’s conduct is found to be misleading or deceptive in their interactions with APRA and its supervision processes, APRA would not consider the person to be fit and proper. In the event that a sponsoring organisation nominates an individual as a Director or alternate Director and there is evidence that the individual may not meet the Fit and Proper Standard the Fund Chair and CEO will meet with the sponsoring organisation to discuss the issue and determine whether: ■■ Further evidence and investigation is required; or ■■ The sponsoring organisation will nominate another individual. Where a Fit and Proper assessment is conducted and an individual is found not to be Fit and Proper, they will not be appointed to the Responsible Person role in question. Circulation of Fit and Proper Policy: Any proposed Responsible Person is given a copy of the Fund Governance Policy. In addition, following amendments to the Fit and Proper Policy, all Responsible Persons are to be given a copy of the revised Policy. Responsible Persons are expected to familiarise themselves with the contents of the Fit and Proper policy, and ensure that they comply with the revised obligations imposed by the revised Fit and Proper Policy. The Trustee must take all reasonable steps to ensure that each Responsible Person is aware of, and understands, the provisions of this Fit and Proper policy. Taking into account the Trustee’s skills matrix, and to ensure consistent standards across the operations of the Fund, the Trustee has set its Minimum Training Standard for all Responsible Persons, in accordance with ASIC Regulatory Guide 146 (‘RG 146’). New Responsible Persons must undergo appropriate training to reach the minimum training standards set, if they do not already meet them, within 12 months of appointment. Minimum Training Requirements: All Responsible Persons are required to meet a 30 hour minimum training requirement each year which can be achieved as follows: Activity Time allocation Reading 5 hours annually Attendance at Board/ Committee meetings 30 minutes per meeting Other training Actual time spent It is each Responsible Persons’ responsibility to ensure they meet their ongoing professional development requirements. Individual Registers for Directors are maintained. The CEO and Executive Management are required to maintain a record of any completed training, and upload this onto the HR system (Self Service). Induction and Training A six-monthly review is conducted to ensure that all Responsible Persons are maintaining their training hours. An Induction program is designed for each new Responsible Person taking into account their particular role, Board and Committee membership, and the outcome of their skills assessment. Should a Responsible Person not meet the 30 hours ongoing minimum training requirement action may be taken in line with the section ‘Process to Deal with Persons who are not Fit & Proper.’ A Responsible Person must be able to quickly acquire sufficient knowledge regarding the duties and responsibilities of a Trustee in order that they are capable of making informed decisions having regard to the advice of technical experts. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 23 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy Maintaining Status as Fit and Proper Information gathering and disclosure Ongoing Review of Responsible Persons: Trustee’s duty to obtain information: At each Board and Committee meeting Responsible Persons are asked to advise if they know of any matter which may bring into question their compliance with the ‘proper’ element of the APRA fit and proper standard. When a Fit and Proper assessment is conducted, either at the initial appointment of a Responsible Person or at the annual review, the Trustee has an obligation to take all reasonable steps to obtain information – including sensitive information - which it believes may be relevant to the assessment. Annual review: It is a requirement of the Prudential Standard SPS520 that the Trustee perform annual fit and proper assessments for each Responsible Person. The annual fit and proper assessment includes for each Responsible Person a: ■■ ■■ Disqualification check on the ASIC Banned and Disqualified Person’s Register and the APRA Disqualification Register; and Completion of an eligibility declaration that no issues exist that would prevent the Responsible Person from holding the position. Triennial review: Every three years from the date of appointment the following additional checks for each Responsible Person will be conducted: ■■ Police check; and ■■ Bankruptcy check. Similarly, where a Responsible Person has been assessed as fit and proper previously and the Trustee obtains information that may result in the person not being assessed as fit and proper, the Trustee has an obligation to take all reasonable steps to obtain information – including sensitive information - which it believes may be relevant to the assessment. Where there is concern as to whether an assessment of Fitness and Propriety is correct, a full assessment must be conducted. Responsible Person’s duty to disclose information: In light of the preceding paragraphs on the Trustee’s duty to obtain information, the Responsible Person them self has a duty to disclose any information that may be relevant to the fit and proper assessment. This can either be disclosed to the Trustee or to APRA directly. The Responsible Persons must note that the Trustee is obligated, under the Prudential Standard, to disclose any such information to APRA, as required. As part of the application process, Responsible Persons will be asked to complete a Consent form enabling the Trustee to disclose any relevant information to APRA. Information retention: The Trustee will retain and maintain sufficient documentation for each Responsible Person, both current and former, for a period of at least ten years. Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle blowing) with regard to the Fit and Proper requirements: The Trustee has in place a Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle blowing) Policy, which is outlined at Section 12. In accordance with this policy, the Trustee provides for the reporting of sensitive information (whistleblowing) if a person has information that: ■■ a Responsible Person does not meet the Trustee’s Fit and Proper criteria; or ■■ the Trustee has not complied with the requirements of the Fit and Proper Prudential Standard. In such circumstances, the Trustee consents to the person providing that information to: ■■ The External Whistleblower Officer (via the Faircall hotline); ■■ Fund Chair; CEO; ■■ Executive Manager, Governance and Risk; or ■■ APRA. The Trustee also consents to any person who held a Responsible Person position disclosing information or providing documents to APRA relating to their reasons for resignation, retirement or removal. The Trustee will not constrain, impede, restrict or discourage, whether by confidentiality clauses, policies or other means, any person from disclosing information or providing documents to APRA about the above listed matters. The Trustee will take all reasonable steps to ensure that any person making disclosures in good faith will not be subject to, or threatened with a detriment because of any notification in purported compliance with the requirements of the Trustee’s Fit and Proper Policy. The Trustee will ensure that all provisions of the Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle blowing) Policy are adequately explained to Directors and employees of the Trustee who are likely to have information relevant to fit and proper assessments. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 24 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy Where a Responsible Person is not fit and proper This section applies where Responsible Persons have previously been assessed under the Fit and Proper, but are subsequently found not to be Fit and Proper in a later assessment. Generally, a person will not continue to hold a Responsible Person role if they do not meet the Trustee’s Fit & Proper standard. Where a responsible person has been assessed as fit and proper, but the Trustee subsequently becomes aware of information that may result in the person being assessed as not fit and proper, the Trustee must take all reasonable steps, including collecting sensitive information as defined in the Privacy Act 1988 if relevant, to ensure that it can prudently conclude that no material fitness and propriety concern exists. Where a concern exists, a full fit and proper assessment must be conducted. Should the Trustee have reason to believe that a Responsible Person may no longer meet the Trustee’s Fit and Proper standard, the Trustee will: ■■ Ensure adequate collection and verification of evidence; ■■ ■■ ■■ ■■ Ensure adequate notice to the person of the allegations; Provide an opportunity for the person involved to explain their actions or respond to allegations; Institute a fair decision making process; and Ensure proper documentation of the matter. The Executive Manager, Governance & Risk must establish how a person is not complying with the Fit and Proper standard or the disqualified person rules and prepare a written report to the Fund Chair and CEO detailing the potential non-compliance. The report should also include how that information came to the Trustee’s attention unless there are specific circumstances where confidentiality must be maintained. Actions: Action to be taken by the Trustee Board: The Fund Chair and the CEO will review the report and determine if there is a potential breach of the standard. In the event of a Responsible Person being declared a disqualified person, the Responsible Person will be removed from office immediately. APRA will be notified of the action and the reason for it. If it is determined that there is a potential breach they will notify the Responsible Person concerned and request them to provide a formal response within five days. Upon receipt of the formal response, it will be determined if further investigation is required. If the Responsible Person agrees they have breached the standard the Chair and the CEO will: ■■ Report the breach to the sponsoring organisation in the case of a Director, and ■■ Report the breach to the Board for its consideration. If the Responsible Person denies breaching the standard but the Chair and CEO believe reasonable grounds none- the-less exist, further investigation will be undertaken to establish the facts. In the event that the Chair and the CEO believe that a breach of the standard has taken place the Board and Sponsoring Organisation will be notified in writing, as follows: ■■ The exact nature and timing of the alleged breach; ■■ The evidence collected which establishes that a breach has occurred; and ■■ The action/s which may be deemed appropriate should the Board / sponsoring organisation decides a breach has occurred. Legal advice: The Trustee Board will seek legal advice, if considered necessary, before taking any remedial action. In the event of a Responsible Person otherwise being in breach of the propriety standard the seriousness of the breach will be assessed but in normal circumstances it is expected that the Responsible Person will be removed from office. Whatever action is taken by the Board and/ or the sponsoring organisation APRA will be notified of the decision and the reasons for it. In the event of a Responsible Person being in breach of the fitness standard, the seriousness of the breach will be assessed and appropriate remedial action implemented. In the event that an appropriate remedial plan is not possible or rejected by the Responsible Person, the Responsible Person will be removed from office. APRA will be notified of the decision and the reasons for it. In the event of a Responsible Person being required to undertake a remedial plan, the remedial plan will: ■■ Be provided in writing. ■■ Clearly identify the breach of the standard, the action needed to remedy the breach, the time frame within which the breach needs to be remedied and the measure/s which will clearly establish that the plan has been achieved. ■■ Copied to the sponsoring organisation in the case of a Director. ■■ Be monitored by the Chair and CEO to ensure satisfactory completion. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 25 Cbus Manual Fit and Proper Policy Where the remedial plan is successfully completed the Chair and the CEO will advise the Board and, in the case of a Director, the sponsoring organisation. In the event of a remedial plan not being successfully completed the failure will be reported to the Board and, in the case of a Director, to the sponsoring organisation, with a recommendation that the Responsible Person be removed from office. APRA will be notified of the decision and the reasons for it. Informing APRA The Trustee must inform APRA of the following information for each Responsible Person: ■■ The title of the Responsible Person position; ■■ The name of the individual holding the Responsible Person position; ■■ The date of birth of the individual holding the Responsible Person position; ■■ The position and main responsibilities of the individual holding the Responsible Person position; and ■■ A statement of whether the Responsible Person has been assessed under the Fit and Proper policy. The Trustee must also ensure that all information gathered for the purposes of the fit and proper assessments remain correct, and that any changes to the above information are notified to APRA within 14 days of the changes or new appointment. Similarly, the Trustee must notify APRA within 14 days if it assesses that a Responsible Person is not fit and proper. If the Responsible Person will continue to hold the position, the notification must contain the reason for this, and the action that is being taken to ensure that the Responsible Person subsequently meets the fit and proper requirement. The Trustee must take all reasonable steps to obtain any information required of it by APRA, and provide that information to APRA, to assist APRA in assessing the fitness and propriety of an individual. Interaction with other Laws As a law of the Commonwealth, Prudential Standard SPS 520 may override inconsistent State and Territory laws, if those laws are incapable of operating concurrently with the Standard. For example, it may be necessary to read down a State law relating to employment where there is apparent inconsistency with SPS 520, but where the position is unclear legal advice will be obtained. Accordingly, the Fit and Proper Policy of the Trustee needs to meet the requirements of, and be implemented in a way that complies with, SPS 520 in all respects, even if it would breach a contract or apparently conflict with another law (other than a law of the Commonwealth). Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 26 09 Board and Committee Composition The Trustee has an equal representative board where Directors are nominated by member and employer associations. Construction Forrest Mining Energy Union (CFMEU) Communication Electronics Plumbing Union (CEPU) Australian Manufacturing Workers Union (AMWU) No of Positions= 3 No of Positions = 1 No of Positions = 1 ® Australian Workers Union (AWU) Australian Council of Trade Unions (ACTU) Master Builders Association No of Positions= 1 No of Positions = 1 or 2 No of Positions = 7 The Directors are nominated by its sponsoring organisations: The Chair is nominated by the ACTU. There is one independent Director who is appointed by the Board. Management: Management are appointed by the CEO. The CEO is appointed by the Board. Gender Diversity: The Trustee is conscious of increasing its proportion of female Directors; and the sponsoring organisations (as outlined above) are asked to take this into consideration when considering replacements to the Board. The Fund as part of its transparency program reports on the proportion of women on the Board, in senior management positions and employed throughout the Fund. Appointment Procedures for Responsible Persons: When a vacancy occurs on the Board, the Trustee will write to the sponsoring organisation to outline its requirements in relation to fitness and propriety. A copy of the Fund Governance Policy is also sent out to the nominee Director. The job description for the CEO or management position outlines the Trustee’s requirements in relation to fitness and propriety. Independent Director: A person appointed to the Board as an independent Director must also meet the following criteria at the time of appointment and at all times whilst on the Board: ■■ Not be an employee of a Sponsoring Organisation nor an employee of an associate of a Sponsoring Organisation; and ■■ Not, in any capacity, be a representative of a Sponsoring Organisation representing the interests of one or more members or employer-sponsors of the Fund. Committee Composition The Board determines the composition of its Committees and must ensure that collectively the Committees have the skills and experience necessary to carry out its delegated functions. There are four committees of the Board as follows: ■■ Investment; ■■ Audit & Risk Management; ■■ Member Services and Marketing; and ■■ Remuneration. Each Committee has a charter approved by the Board outlining its role and responsibilities. Committee Review: A review of the composition of the Board Committees will occur: ■■ At least annually at the bi-annual Meeting of the Chairs, or ■■ If prompted by the announcement of a Director’s retirement from either the Board or a Committee (or both). The review would include an assessment of: ■■ The residual Committee’s current experience, skills and diversity mix (sans the departing member); ■■ The overall performance of the Committee, including the commitment of its current members; ■■ The skills, experience and competencies required by the Committee to fulfil its role and responsibilities into the future; ■■ The mix of member, employer and independent Directors on the Committee; and ■■ The interests of stakeholders (internal and external) including though not limited to, the sponsor organisations. Recommendations on any changes to Committee compositions are then subsequently made in the Chair’s report to Board. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 27 10 Board Renewal and Review Policy These principles are designed to ensure the Board renews itself and remains open to independent thinking whilst retaining adequate experience and expertise. Tenure The Trustee places importance on the continuity of Trustee and Fund knowledge and the improved Board dynamics that result from a having an average Board tenure in excess of 5 years. ■■ ■■ The Trustee targets a measure of collective Board experience expressed as a range of average tenure for the Board. This range of average tenure is a minimum of 5 years and a maximum of 9 years. Independent Directors are generally limited to a period of service of nine (9) years. Service periods for Directors are calculated on a cumulative basis i.e. there being no break of service of greater than three (3) consecutive months during this time. The Trustee applies an average tenure on a collective basis to mitigate the risk of departure of Directors who are making significant contributions and whose departure would be a significant loss to the Trustee. Provided Directors continue to be valued contributors to the deliberations of the Board and its Committees, maintain compliance with the Trustee’s governance policies and are acting in the best interests of beneficiaries, their length of service should not be the sole determinant of their suitability to serve on the Board. Circumstances where the Board may step outside the terms of its average tenure range: ■■ Where a particular long-serving Director is the current CEO of, or holds a senior leadership position within, one of the Fund’s sponsoring organisations; ■■ Where a particular skill or experience of a Director would be required for e.g. during a Fund merger or significant new business activity; ■■ Where an appropriate replacement has not yet been found; and ■■ To ensure there is an appropriate stagger of tenure periods. In all instances a Director’s ability to continue acting in the best interest of beneficiaries will be paramount. The Executive Manager, Governance and Risk will monitor the average tenure of the Board and advise the Fund Chair when the average tenure of the Board is approaching the maximum limit. In the event of the Board stepping outside the terms of its collective average tenure, the circumstances will be appropriately documented. Performance Reviews Annual Review Processes The Board, it’s Committees and Directors annually undertake an internal review of their performance against their objectives as outlined in Section 2. The review processes include: ■■ A review of the Board and Committee Charters; ■■ An internal survey completed by all Directors on the Board and Committees’ performance and effectiveness ■■ Review of the skills mix and composition of the Board and its Committees; ■■ Programs for inducting Directors and developing their skills and involvement; and ■■ Whether Board and Committee meetings are efficient, including the scheduling and timing of meetings, division of time between its various responsibilities, minutes, quality of papers and agendas etc Meeting of the Chairs The Fund Chair and Committee Chairs meet at least twice during the year to review and discuss how the Committees are performing, their composition and any other topical issues. The Chairs also use these meetings to consider the future skills and experience requirements of the Committees, and whether gaps in these elements either currently exist, or might exist in the future without action being taken. Succession planning of key Committee roles e.g. Chairs and the independent Director, are also discussed. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 28 Cbus Manual Board Renewal and Review Policy Timing Reappointment of Directors: The annual review of the Board’s and Committees’ performances is completed by the end of each calendar year and the results of each Committee’s review and the Board is reported at the December Board meeting. The continuation of Directors (including any Alternate Directors who are permanent members of Committees), is considered during a Director’s individual three (3) yearly review. Recommendations for action arising from the Board’s and Committee’s Performance Reviews, are documented in the Board’s and Committees minutes and action item registers. Directors – annual reviews Annual Director reviews are included as part of the annual Board and Committee review process (as outlined above). Triennial Reviews The Board undertakes an external, independent Board and Committee performance assessment every three (3) years. Issues reviewed include: ■■ Board and Committee processes; ■■ Board and Committee cohesion and decision making; Division of responsibility – governance and management; ■■ Setting of strategic direction and reporting; ■■ Governance policies; ■■ Committee practices, delegations, processes, decisions and performance management; ■■ Chair practices; and ■■ Stakeholder engagement. ■■ Commitment to the industry generally and as a Trustee; ■■ Whether their sponsoring organisation continues to support their tenure; ■■ Whether their other commitments allow sufficient capacity and opportunity to apply the appropriate degree of care, skill and diligence to the role as required; and ■■ Whether their appointment remains appropriate and tenable, given all other operational, environmental and governance elements of the Board and its sponsoring organisations. The Fund Chair or sponsoring organisation may also initiate an individual Director review at any time. The Review process includes discussion between the Fund Chair, Committee Chair/s CEO and the respective Director as well as with the Sponsoring Organisation. The exception is the Independent Director where there is no Sponsoring Organisation. The reviews consider: ■■ Whether the Director demonstrates the required degree and depth of expertise to continue supporting their appointment to the Board and respective Committees, taking into account their length of tenure; ■■ Whether their continued tenure is deemed to be in the best interest of members and beneficiaries; ■■ How well Directors have met the individual Director objectives over the period; ■■ Contribution to Board and Committee deliberations and the overall direction of the Fund; ■■ Review of training undertaken and wider participation in activities of the Fund for e.g. working parties, nominee Directorships etc; ■■ The future commitment of the Director to the Fund; ■■ Commitment to ongoing training and development; The independent review also includes a review of the Fund Chair. The Executive Manager, Governance and Risk is responsible for ensuring that the Fund Chair undertakes the reviews as and when they fall due, according to the Director’s appointment anniversary. The staggering of appointments and retirements would be carefully planned so as to ensure a smooth continuation of skills and capabilities on the Board and Committees at all times. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 29 11 Meetings This section sets out the Trustee’s established processes and protocols with respect to the conduct of meetings of the Board and its Committees. Annual General Meetings Attendance at meetings The Annual General Meeting of the Company is held in October each year. It is the shareholders of the Fund who attend the AGM or appoint proxies to attend in their place. Given the significance of the fiduciary duty concerned, and the responsibility of overseeing the retirement outcomes of its members, Directors need to give consideration to their external workloads and commitments to ensure they have the requisite time to commit to being a director of the Fund. Board Meetings Board papers are distributed to Directors one week before the meeting. Documents tabled on the day are to be kept to a minimum. If there is an issue that a Director wishes to have listed on the agenda they should contact the Chair or CEO. Directors joining a meeting by telephone or other electronic means, who have not been previously received a tabled paper which contains an approval request, will not vote on that paper at the meeting. Committee Meetings The roles and function of the Board Committees are set out in the Committee Charters. The Trustee expects all directors to participate on Committees. A rotation of members and Chairs on Committees is desirable to allow the Board as a whole to broaden its knowledge and understanding. Directors (including Alternate Directors who are members of Committees), are expected to attend all meetings of the Board and their appointed Committees in order to properly assist and contribute to the governance of the Fund. Attendance in person is preferred, with attendance by telephone to take place by exception, and always with the prior permission of the Chair. Directors are expected to remain in attendance for the entire meeting, with early departures to be pre-approved with the Chair concerned. Given the importance of attendance, the Fund Chair in respect of Board meetings and the Committee Chairs for Committee meetings will review the absences of Board or Committee members in the following instances: ■■ Where the Director is absent for two (2) consecutive meetings without the prior permission of the Fund Chair for Board meetings or the Committee Chair for Committee meetings; ■■ Note that under the Articles of Association, the office of Director becomes vacant if a Director is absent without the consent of the Directors from meetings of the Directors (i.e. Board meetings) held during a period of three consecutive months. Directors can request the consent of Directors via the Proxy Voting/Leave consent form. The review will include direct dialogue with the Board or Committee member concerned in the first instance, with the outcome of that conversation in the case of a Committee member to be reported to the Fund Chair. Should a Director’s ongoing absences reflect an inadequate commitment to the Fund, the Director concerned may be requested to either rotate off the Board or Committee, or give cause as to why their appointment should continue. The Fund Chair will deliberate an outcome with the Committee Chair and potentially the sponsoring organisation (if applicable), having regard to what is in the best interests of beneficiaries. Outside of behavioural instances, Directors’ attendance records are reviewed annually, as part of the Individual Director reviews. Individual Director attendance is also publicly disclosed on the Fund’s website. Attendance is taken at all Board and Committee meetings (including where Directors join by telephone) and Director fees are based on attendance. Where a Director is absent for three (3) Board or Committee meetings in total across the financial year with or without prior permission of the respective Chair. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 30 Cbus Manual Meetings Conduct of Meetings The Chair controls the running of the meeting and it is his or her job to ensure that the Board deals with all agenda items. Open discussion and questions are encouraged, however as a matter of formality and to ensure that all items of the agenda can be discussed, permission should be sought from the Chair to speak. It is also for the Chair to decide if non-Directors should remain in the room for discussion on sensitive issues. ■■ Any Director wishing to appoint another Director must first contact that Director and establish that the Director will both be present at the meeting involved and able to exercise the proxy vote; ■■ In the event that the Director contacted is not attending or is unable/unwilling to accept the proxy it is the responsibility of the contacting Director to seek the help of another Director; Proxies Directors who are unable to attend a Board or Committee meeting or attend the whole of a Board or Committee meeting may appoint another Director as their proxy to exercise their vote. Note: Proxy votes are not allowed at meetings of the Audit & Risk Management Committee or Remuneration Committee. Directors may instruct the proxy on how to vote on agenda items. All proxy votes are to be delivered to the Chair of the meeting by the start of the meeting and any proxy votes received during the course of the meeting are invalid. Directors can hold only one proxy vote. Circular Resolutions The procedure to be followed in the appointment of a proxy is: ■■ The proxy voting form contains a declaration that the appointing Director has followed the procedure in and obtained the agreement of the appointee to act on his/ her behalf; and ■■ In the event that two proxies are lodged in the name of a Director, the Chair will ask that Director to nominate which of the appointing Directors followed the policy, and that appointment only will stand. Under Section 248A of the Corporations Act, for a resolution contained in a circular resolution to be passed, all those entitled to vote must vote in favour of the resolution. Section 248A is a replaceable rule which basically means if a company’s constitution provides a different rule, it is the provisions of the Constitution that prevail. Clause 47.1 and 50.8 of the Trustee Articles of Association provide that only two-thirds of the Directors need to vote in favour of the circular resolution for it to be passed. The resolution is then deemed to have been passed at a meeting of the Directors held on the day on which a Director last signed the circular resolution. In order to ensure that all Directors have received and considered the circular resolution, Cbus requires that all Directors return the resolution and indicate as required on the document whether they are for, against, or abstaining from voting, on the resolution. The Director is also required to sign and date their decision. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 31 12 Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle Blowing) Policy The purpose of this Policy is to: ■■ encourage the reporting of suspected instances of serious misconduct or actions that endanger the Trustee’s employees or assets; ■■ outline the procedures in place for the reporting and investigation of matters raised by a whistleblower; and ■■ outline the measures in place to protect whistleblowers against reprisal or recriminatory action from within the Trustee or from external parties, resulting from whistleblowing disclosures made through either the internal processes or via the mechanisms provided by APRA. All Directors, officers, employees and contractors of the Trustee must comply with this policy. Who is a whistleblower? The Trustee has defined ‘whistleblower’ as someone who alerts the Trustee and/ or APRA to improper behaviour within the organisation. It is possible that any person may become aware of instances of serious misconduct. Serious misconduct is behaviour being committed or likely to be committed that includes (but is not limited to) the following: ■■ a criminal offence; ■■ any act of theft or fraud; ■■ any criminal or wilful damage to Trustee property; ■■ intentional or negligent disregard for legal or regulatory requirements; ■■ non-compliance with the Trustee’s Fit and Proper Policy or the requirements of the Fit and Proper Prudential Standard; ■■ intentional or negligent disregard for the Trustee’s policies and procedures; ■■ any act of violence or threat of violence within the workplace; ■■ misuse of a person’s position for personal gain; and ■■ attempts to cover up or conceal any of the above behaviours. In such situations persons are encouraged to bring the matter to the attention of a relevant officer of the Fund for remedial action in accordance with the whistleblowing process detailed this Policy. The types of protections Cbus make available will depend on the situation but may include: ■■ Whistleblower Protection Officer ensuring confidentiality in the investigation and protecting the employee’s identity; ■■ Cbus is committed to absolute confidentiality and fairness in all matters raised under this Policy. monitoring and managing the behaviour of other employees related to the reported incident; ■■ offering a paid leave of absence while a matter is investigated; and ■■ rectification of any detriment an employee may have suffered as a result of the report/investigation. Whistleblowers will not be personally disadvantaged in their employment at Cbus by having made a report in accordance with this Policy. Subject to law, personnel receiving reports will not disclose particulars of reported matters that would suggest the identity of the whistleblower (for example, to Executive Management and Directors, or external legal advisers for the purposes of investigation and advice) without obtaining the whistleblower’s prior consent. Any such disclosure to which the whistleblower consents will be on a strictly confidential basis. All files and records created from an investigation will be retained under strict security. The Whistleblower Protection Officer is the Executive Manager, People and Culture who has the responsibility of providing the whistleblower who acts in good faith with protection against being personally disadvantaged, and will contact him/her to discuss his/her concerns. She/he will act impartially without any pre-conceived opinion on the whistleblower or the subject matter, or any conflicts of interest. The appointed Whistleblower Protection Officer is the Executive Manager, People and Culture, or in his/ her absence, his/her delegate. Whistleblower Investigation Officer The Executive Manager, Governance and Risk, as the appointed Cbus Whistleblower Investigation Officer will be the authorised officer to investigate all whistleblowing reports and will, at all times, have direct and unrestricted access to financial, legal and operational assistance when this is required for any investigation. External whistleblower hotline The Trustee has engaged it internal auditor (External Whistleblower Officer) to provide an independently monitored, external, anonymous and toll free phone number for all Directors and Fund staff to report their concerns of inappropriate behaviour or unethical conduct. The hotline is monitored by trained and experienced forensic professionals who interview the caller to ensure all available and relevant facts are obtained. A report is then produced and provided to the Whistleblower Investigation Officer (Executive Manager, Governance and Risk) within 24 hours of receipt. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 32 Cbus Manual Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle Blowing) Policy The Whistleblower Process All Cbus staff, contractors and consultants are encouraged to raise serious concerns through the usual reporting and escalation lines. This would normally be through the individual’s manager in the first instance. It is only when the normal reporting lines have been exhausted, and the whistleblower is not satisfied that the matter has been adequately dealt with, that a formal whistleblower report should be considered. If the whistleblower believes that his or her manager is involved in the improper conduct then it may not be appropriate for the whistleblower to bring his or her concerns to his or her manager’s attention. In these instances, the whistleblower may go directly to the Executive Manager, Governance and Risk or the CEO. If the whistleblower believes that they are unable to report their concerns to their manager or to the Executive Manager Governance and Risk or the CEO, or that the matter has not been dealt with adequately, then they may call the external whistleblower hotline. In extraordinary circumstances, after the above protocols have been exhausted, whistleblowers may report the matter to the Fund Chair, the external auditor of the Fund or to APRA. The Trustee is obliged not to constrain, impede, restrict, or discourage the disclosure or provision of information on any such matters. Assessing a whistleblower report The External Whistleblower Officer is responsible for conducting a preliminary investigation into any report received from a whistleblower via the whistleblower hotline. The objective of the preliminary investigation is for the External Whistleblower Officer to determine whether or not the reported matter is legitimate. All Cbus employees are required to co-operate with all parties involved in the investigations, and to treat the investigations in absolute confidence. Any employee revealing the presence of an investigation or details contrary to this Policy may be subjected to disciplinary action. The Whistleblower Investigation Officer must ensure that all members of the investigation team are independent of both the Whistleblower and any person(s) who may be the subject of the allegations. A formal report will be produced and given to the CEO for determining the appropriate course of action to be taken. If the External Whistleblower Officer makes an assessment that a reported matter is not legitimate, the matter will be referred to the Whistleblower Investigations Officer (Executive Manager, Governance and Risk) to resolve the matter directly. A report detailing the matter, reasons for the assessment and rectification actions implemented will be prepared by the Whistleblower Investigations Officer. Any documents pertaining to a Whistleblower Report, including subsequent investigations, findings, recommendations and meeting minutes will be kept in secure storage by the Whistleblower Investigation Officer. Exceptions to this process All matters determined by the Whistleblower Investigation Officer to be legitimate will be referred directly to the CEO with a report prepared by the Whistleblower Investigation Officer detailing the matter and preliminary investigation conclusions. Any individual who is the subject of an allegation and is under investigation will be given a fair opportunity to respond to the allegation. Where the matter has been reported to an External Whistleblower Officer and is clearly a Human Resources issue, it will be referred to the Executive Manager, People and Culture for consultation and appropriate action if warranted. Investigation of the matter The CEO and Executive Manager, Governance and Risk will review all referred whistleblower disclosures to confirm the legitimacy of the report and to determine whether a further investigation into the reported matter is required. A whistleblower investigation team primarily consists of the Executive Manager, Governance and Risk and the Executive Manager, People and Culture. The Executive Manager, Governance and Risk may appoint additional members to join this Investigation Team as he/ she thinks fit. External assistance may be obtained as and when required. Where a whistleblower report relates to the CEO or a member of the Governance and Risk team, the External Whistleblower Officer will provide its report to the Chair of the Board or the Chair of the Audit and Risk Management Committee. The Chair will determine in conjunction with the External Whistleblower Officer and the Whistleblower Protection Officer, the appropriate steps to be taken including the composition of any investigation team to be formed. The Audit and Risk Management Committee will review the investigation report produced by the External Whistleblower Officer and determine the appropriate course of action to be taken. Finalising the whistleblower process The CEO (or Fund Chair where the CEO is the subject of the report)) will review the investigation team’s findings and recommendations before determining the appropriate course of action to be taken. Any determination made finalises the internal Whistleblower process. The Whistleblower may still have recourse to external processes depending on the circumstances. Any documents pertaining to a Whistleblower Report, including subsequent investigations, findings, recommendations and meeting minutes will be kept in secure storage by the Whistleblower Investigation Officer. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 33 Cbus Manual Reporting Sensitive Information (Whistle Blowing) Policy Confidentiality No Retaliation Maintaining confidentiality is critical in ensuring that no reprisal or recriminatory actions are taken against the whistleblower. The Trustee will ensure that no person who in good faith reports serious misconduct by a Director, manager, staff member or persons associated with Cbus, shall suffer harassment, retaliation or adverse consequences. Accordingly, all whistleblower disclosures will be treated in the strictest of confidence and all reasonable steps will be taken to protect the identity of the whistleblower where the report is made in good faith. It is important to note, however, that in order to effectively carry out investigations, it will be necessary to reveal, on a confidential basis, the nature of the disclosure made by the whistleblower to those with a ‘need to know’ - including those involved in the investigation process. It will also be necessary in most cases to disclose the facts of the matter to any and all person(s) who may be the subject of the allegation, thereby ensuring that they are afforded an opportunity to defend themselves against the allegations. This does not include the identity of the whistleblower. If the whistleblower has been involved in improper conduct, he/she may be subject to disciplinary or remedial action as a result of any investigation. Although the act of making a reportable disclosure will not in itself protect the whistleblower from the consequences of improper conduct in which they may have been involved, it may be taken into account and may potentially mitigate any action that may be taken against the whistleblower. It is important to note that disclosures made on an anonymous basis do not qualify for protection under the SIS Act. Reporting The Whistleblower investigation Officer will provide regular reporting on any whistleblowers to the Audit and Risk Management Committee. Where criminal acts have been identified by whistleblowers, they will be reported to the police. If the matter relates to a regulatory breach, it will be dealt with in accordance with the Trustee’s Breach Reporting Policy. Reports may be provided to internal and external audit as appropriate. Training and awareness The Governance and Risk Business Unit will provide relevant training to all Directors and employees to ensure that they understand the requirements of this Policy. This includes how details of the external whistleblower hotline and how to recognise and report suspicions of serious misconduct. This Policy must be given to all Directors and employees on commencement of employment to highlight the requirements and their obligations under the Policy and procedures. SIS Act Protection of Whistleblowers To be protected as a whistleblower under the SIS Act an individual must be: ■■ A Director, officer, employee or contractor of the Trustee; or ■■ An officer, employee or contractor of the Fund’s Custodian or Investment Manager; or ■■ An employee of a contractor to the Trustee, Custodian or Investment Manager. Acting in Good Faith Any person who has information may make a complaint concerning suspected or actual serious misconduct must be acting in good faith and have reasonable grounds for believing the information disclosed indicates serious misconduct under this Policy. Disclosures qualifying for whistleblower protection under the SIS Act The disclosure of information qualifies for protection under the SIS Act if all of the following conditions are met: 1. The disclosure is made to: ■■ A person authorised by the Trustee to receive disclosures of that kind (Executive Manager, Governance and Risk and the CEO); ■■ A Director of the Trustee; ■■ APRA; or ■■ The Fund’s auditor. 2. The discloser informs the person to whom the disclosure is made of the discloser’s name before making the disclosure (i.e. – does not disclose on an anonymous basis); and 3. The information concerns misconduct, or an improper state of affairs or circumstances in relation to the Trustee or Fund; and 4. The discloser considers the that the information may assist a person referred to in paragraph 1 (above) to perform their functions in relation to the Trustee or Fund; and 5. The disclosure is made in good faith. Whistleblower protections under the SIS Act If a person makes a disclosure that qualifies for protection under the SIS Act: ■■ the person is not subject to any civil or criminal liability for making the disclosure; ■■ no contractual remedy may be enforced against the person on the basis of the disclosure; ■■ the person has qualified privilege in respect of the disclosure; ■■ the person’s contract must not be terminated on the ■■ basis that the disclosure constitutes a breach of contract; and ■■ the information disclosed is not admissible in evidence against the person in criminal proceedings other than proceedings in respect of the falsity of the information. Prohibition of victimisation under the SIS Act A person who actually causes or threatens detriment to a whistleblower commits an offence under the SIS Act which is subject to a penalty of imprisonment for 6 months. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 34 13 Policy Governance Framework Cbus has established a simple and pragmatic framework for the governance of all Fund Policies. The framework consists of three (3) main components: ■■ Rules for new and current Policies; ■■ the Policy Administration Schedule (for internal use only); and ■■ the Cbus Policy Register. The framework provides the Fund with a unified methodology and approach towards Policy creation, management and governance. The framework rules apply across all Policies created, owned and managed by the Trustee. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 35 01 Attachment Skills Sets This attachment sets out the skill sets that the Trustee has determined are required for the successful operation of the Fund taking into account the following factors: 1. Cbus is a public offer fund that focuses nationally on the building/ construction and allied industries; 2. Size, business mix and complexity of the Fund; 3. Equal representation model with one independent Director position; 4. Accumulation fund with an income stream component; 5. The Trustee is authorised to offer a MySuper product; 6. The requirements of Prudential Standards applying to superannuation; 7. Investment choice is offered; 8. The investment strategies of the Fund; 9. Direct property focus; 10.Australian Financial Service licensee-authorised to provide general advice; Taking into account the above factors the required skill sets and knowledge areas of the Fund are: 1Investments; 2.Property; 3. Operational (including Member/ Employer requirements, strategic, administration, insurance and marketing); 4. Audit and Financial; 5. Governance and Risk Management (including RSE licensee law); and 6 Remuneration and People. Skills Sets Each skill set is comprised of three tiers: Tier One – All Responsible Persons to meet this within 12 months of appointment. T ier Two – more in-depth knowledge and applications of skills-Responsible Persons sitting on Committees are expected to meet this tier within 12-18 months of joining a committee. Tier Three – Expert Assessment Prior to appointment Directors are asked to complete a self-assessment against the Skills Sets, which is reviewed by the Fund Chair. Executive Managers also complete a selfassessment against the skills set prior to appointment, which is reviewed by the CEO. Detail is provided around each tier and the minimum number of Responsible Persons who should meet each tier. Training or knowledge base information is also provided as a guide. Individual Director skills are reviewed as part of the annual assessment of Board and individual Director performance. 11.Outsourced services of the Fund: administration and IT, custodianship of assets, investment management, group life insurance and financial planning; 12.Business planning and strategies of the Fund; and 13.External risk environment. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 36 Attachment 01: Skills Sets Cbus Manual Investment: Investments Tier One Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Should demonstrate an understanding of the following: 1. Completion of RG 146 or similar course. ■■ investment principles (including risk and return, diversification, liquidity etc.); 2. Induction session with Investment Team. ■■ the characteristics of the major asset classes; ■■ the process for formulating investment beliefs and setting investment objectives and strategy including the range of factors a Trustee must take into account; and ■■ Investments Tier Two the Trustee’s Investment Governance Framework and its constituent policies and procedures. Should demonstrate an understanding and ability to apply: 3.Obtain a good understanding of the Investment Governance Framework and its constituent policies and procedures including: ■■ the Investment Strategy for Fund and each investment option; and ■■ Investment Policy Statement. 4. Board and Investment Committee training. 1. Investment Committee induction. ■■ investment principles (including risk and return, diversification, liquidity etc.); 2.Investment Committee attendance, participation and training. ■■ the characteristics of the major asset classes; ■■ the process for formulating investment beliefs and setting investment objectives and strategy including the range of factors a Trustee must take into account; 3.Obtain a more in-depth understanding of the Investment Governance Framework and its constituent policies and procedures including: ■■ the Trustee’s Investment Governance Framework and its constituent policies and procedures; and the Investment Strategy for Fund and each investment option; ■■ Investment Policy Statement ■■ investment processes, ■■ Liquidity Management Plan; ■■ implementation and risk management including legal, tax, fees, governance and investment structures. ■■ Due Diligence Policy and processes; ■■ Asset valuation policy; and ■■ Policies for the management of derivatives and currency. ■■ External courses/conference: 4. CIE Basic Investment Courses. 5. Other specific investment courses. 6. Australian Super Investment Conference. Investments Expert Should be able to demonstrate: ■■ In-depth knowledge of the above items; ■■ Understand economic factors and the impact on investment markets. 1.Relevant work experience in investment related or economic field. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 37 Attachment 01: Skills Sets Cbus Manual Property: Property Tier One Property Tier Two Property Expert Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Should demonstrate an understanding of where property sits in the investment strategies and the Business strategy of the Fund. 1. Cbus Property Business Plan. Should demonstrate an understanding of the following: 1.Investment Committee attendance, participation and training. ■■ The process for developing a property investment strategy; ■■ The characteristics of different underlying property sectors e.g. commercial, retail, industrial etc.; ■■ The main drivers of property returns e.g. capital growth, rental income, development profits; and ■■ The main drivers of risks including externally driven impacts such as the economy and the impact on underlying property sectors. Should demonstrate a more in-depth knowledge of the above and detailed understanding of property development returns and risks. 2. Induction with Investment Team and/or Cbus Property. Attendance at Board and Cbus Property Presentations. External courses/conference: Specific Property investment courses. 1. Experience within the Property Development industry. Attendance and training at Cbus Property Pty Ltd. Finance and Audit: Finance and Audit Tier One Finance and Audit Tier Two Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Should demonstrate an understanding of the accounting and auditing processes of the Trustee and Fund. 1. Induction session with Cbus Finance. Should demonstrate an understanding of the following: ■■ ■■ ■■ Financial Statements applicable to Superannuation Funds and the risks applicable to Financial Statement preparation. Demonstrate an ability to apply this understanding to the Trustee and Fund; ■■ Risk Management Framework and the constituent policies and procedures relating to finance and accounting; and ■■ Cbus Financial Statements and External Audit reports. 1.Audit & Risk Committee attendance, participation and training. 2. Audit & Risk Committee Induction. More in-depth understanding of: Cbus budgeting process, the relevant cost outcomes of this process including the dynamics between direct and other management costs and investment management costs; and ■■ Risk Management Framework and the constituent policies and procedures relating to finance and accounting; and ■■ Cbus Financial Statements and External Audit reports. Internal and External audit scopes, sampling and testing methodology and audit reporting; External courses/conference: Key taxation issues in superannuation and how they apply to the Trustee and Fund. Finance and Audit Expert 2. Obtain a good understanding of the: Demonstrate a detailed knowledge of the financial, accounting and taxation implications for superannuation funds and the risks associated with these, including risk mitigation processes. Demonstrate application of this to Cbus and its Financial Statements. Training and courses on understanding financial statements. 1. CPA/CA Qualified; or 2.Experience in the provision of financial services such as accounting, tax, audit/assurance and financial advice; or 3.Specialised training – in the accounting/tax/audit of Superannuation funds. Demonstrate awareness of the latest accounting standards and taxation regulation amendments as applicable to Cbus. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 38 Attachment 01: Skills Sets Cbus Manual Governance and Risk Management: Governance and Risk Management Tier One Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Should demonstrate: 1. Completion of RG 146 or similar course. ■■ Understanding of, and ability to effectively implement, the covenants and obligations set out in the SIS Act; ■■ Understanding of the key elements and application of the SIS Act and SIS Regulations and Prudential Standards; and ■■ Governance and Risk Management Tier Two 2. Obtain a good understanding of the: Understanding of the elements and application of other RSE licensee law and trust law. ■■ Fund Governance Policy and Conflicts Management Framework; ■■ Risk Management Framework (including the Risk Management Strategy and Risk Appetite Statement); and ■■ Business Continuity Management Policy. Understanding of the Fund’s Risk Management Framework including the Trustee’s Risk Appetite Statement and Risk Management Strategy. 3.Induction session with Executive Manager, Governance & Risk. Should demonstrate more in-depth knowledge and application of RSE licensee law and the key elements and operation of the Trustee’s Risk Management Framework and Conflicts Management Framework. 1. Audit & Risk Management Committee induction. 2.Board & Audit & Risk Management Committee attendance, participation and training. More in-depth understanding of: ■■ Risk Management Framework (including the Risk Management Strategy and Risk Appetite Statement); and ■■ Business Continuity Management Policy. External courses/conference: ■■ ASFA or AIST courses, and Other governance courses, for e.g. Australian Institute of Company Directors. Governance and Risk Management Expert Demonstrate a detailed knowledge of the legal and governance requirements for superannuation funds – demonstrate application of this to Cbus. 1. Legal qualifications; or Detailed knowledge of risk management principles and the key elements and operation of the Trustee’s Risk 3.Specialised training – in superannuation law or risk management. 2.Experience in the provision of legal services and advice; or Management Framework. Demonstrate awareness of the latest legal and governance requirements or proposed changes and potential impacts as applicable to Cbus. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 39 Cbus Manual Attachment 01: Skills Sets Operational: (This includes Member/ Employer requirements, strategic, administration, insurance and marketing) Operational Tier One Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Strategic – demonstrate an understanding of the framework for developing the strategic direction of the Fund and understanding of the business planning and budgeting process. ■■ Induction session with CEO; ■■ Read and understand the Cbus Business Plan; ■■ Attendance at Board strategy days; and ■■ Attendance at Board meetings Administration and Insurance – demonstrate an understanding of the Trustee’s Outsourcing Framework, the Fund’s products and services and the key elements of the Trustee’s Insurance Management Framework including the Insurance Strategy. Marketing – demonstrate an understanding of the Fund’s brand position, attributes and marketing strategies. Member and Employer Requirements – demonstrate an understanding of member and/or employer requirements in the construction, building and allied industries. Strategic Administration and Insurance ■■ Induction session with Cbus Administration and introduction to key administration personnel; and ■■ Understanding of the Trustee’s Insurance Management Framework and Outsourcing Framework. Marketing ■■ Induction session on latest member and employer research. Member and Employer Requirements ■■ Experience in the building and construction industry. Understanding member and employer research. Operational Tier Two Administration – understanding of structure of the outsourced Administrator and service arrangements. Highlevel understanding of IT systems, understanding of the Complaints Management Framework. Marketing – more in-depth knowledge of the brand and its attributes and how it drives service and product development. Insurance – a detailed knowledge of the key elements of the Trustee’s Insurance Management Framework including an understanding of group life risk principles and types of cover and claims, the Fund risk profile. Understand the operational environment including the respective roles of the administrator, broker and insurer. Operational Expert Detailed knowledge or experience within one or more of the above areas. 1.Marketing and Member Service Committee attendance, participation and training. 2.Induction session for new members to the Committee including information on administration, insurance and outsourcing. 3.Induction on the history and development of the brand. External courses/conference: ■■ ASFA/ CMSF Conference; and ■■ AIST Administration or Insurance Conference. ■■ Other marketing conferences. 1.Experience and/or qualifications in either super administration/group life/IT systems; or Relevant Marketing experience and/or qualifications. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 40 Attachment 01: Skills Sets Cbus Manual Remuneration and People: Remuneration and People Tier One Remuneration and People Tier Two Skill sets Training/Knowledge Base Should demonstrate: 1.Induction with the CEO and Executive Manager People & Culture. ■■ Understanding of remuneration frameworks and trends within Financial Services for Executive and CEO remuneration; ■■ Understanding of the remuneration drivers within organisations and how ‘pay’ is set and reviewed; ■■ Understanding of trends and methodologies behind Directors fees; and ■■ Knowledge and experience of organisational development themes and trends. Should demonstrate: ■■ More in-depth knowledge of Directors remunerations, various guidance notes on Directors remuneration and disclosure. 2.Reasonable workplace experience at the Manager level and above. Obtain a good understanding of: ■■ Cbus Remuneration Policy. 1. Remuneration Committee induction. 2.Remuneration Committee attendance, participation and training. More detailed understanding of trends within the Financial Services sector for staff and Executive salaries including the link between performance drivers and pay and the risks associated with performance based remuneration. Remuneration and People Expert Should demonstrate: ■■ Detailed knowledge of current and emerging trends within remuneration of those in the Financial Services sector; and ■■ Understanding of the employment market and economic drivers for remuneration changes; 1.Relevant experience at organisational leadership level. 2.Relevant experience at the leadership level involved in determining conditions of employment and remuneration issues. Understanding of position of the Fund against other Funds in relation to Directors remuneration and additional benefits. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 41 02 Attachment Skills Matrices This attachment sets out the skills sets that the Trustee has determined are required for the Board and Committee to function appropriately. Across the Board and each Committee, the Trustee has agreed that the skills mix must include Responsible Persons with experience in the following areas: 1.Investments; 2.Property; 3. Operational (including Member/ Employer requirements, strategic, administration, insurance and marketing); 4. Audit and Financial; 5. Governance and Risk Management (including RSE licensee law); and 6. Remuneration and People. The Skills Matrices are reviewed upon the appointment or resignation of a Responsible Person, and are also reviewed annually by the Board and its Committee as part of their review process. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 42 Cbus Manual Attachment 02: Skills Matrices Directors: Tier One Tier Two Expert Min No of Directors Min No of Directors Min No of Directors Investments 17 8 2 Property 17 8 4 Audit and Financial 17 6 2 Governance and Risk Management 17 6 2 Operational 17 6 2 Remuneration and People 17 5 2 Investments 8 8 2 Property 8 8 2 Audit and Financial 8 2 0 Governance and Risk Management 8 4 0 Board Skills set Investment Committee Skills set Audit & Risk Committee Skills set Investments 6 2 0 Property 6 2 0 Audit and Financial 6 6 2 Governance and Risk Management 6 6 1 Operational 6 2 0 Governance and Risk Management 6 3 0 Operational 6 6 2 Property 5 1 0 Governance and Risk Management 5 1 0 Remuneration and People 5 5 2 Marketing & Services Committee Skills set Remuneration Committee Skills set CEO Executive Managers The Trustee has determined that the CEO must meet tier 2 knowledge requirements across all six skill areas. In addition, the CEO of the Trustee must meet the expert knowledge requirements across at least 3 skill areas. The Trustee has determined that, in addition to the minimum number stated above with regard to Directors, the Executive Management team must also meet a minimum skill set. This has been determined as every Executive Manager having at least Tier 1 experience in the areas of Investments, Property, Finance & Audit, Governance & Risk, Operational and Remuneration. In addition, each Executive Manager must have Expert level experience within their respective area of work. For example, within the area of Governance & Risk, the Executive Manager must possess Tier 1 experience across the areas of Investments, Property, Finance & Audit, Operational and Remuneration; and Expert experience of Governance & Risk. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 43 03 Attachment Propriety Factors The propriety limb of the Fit and Proper standard must be met at all times by each Responsible Person. In determining the ‘propriety’ of an individual to act as a Responsible Person the factors that APRA expects to be considered are listed in column 1 of the table below and the steps that the Trustee will take in reaching a judgment are set down in column 2. The below list is not exhaustive and demonstration of one or more criteria need not necessarily preclude an individual from being a Responsible Person. The criteria are, however, examples of factors that would lead the Trustee to further consideration of the individual’s status or suitability for the role. Column 1: Whether the individual has: Column 2: The Trustee will make these enquiries: Demonstrated a lack of willingness to comply with legal obligations, regulatory requirements or professional standards, or been obstructive, misleading or untruthful in dealing with regulatory bodies or a Court; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that none of these things have occurred. Breached a fiduciary obligation; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that none of these things have occurred. A conflict of interest that may influence the Trustee’s, or the individual’s, ability to carry out their role and functions with the degree of probity and independence required or with regard to the duty of care to superannuation fund members, or failed to deal appropriately with such conflicts; The Trustee will request the person to disclose all positions that he or she holds as a Director or executive in an organisation. Also, at the beginning of each Trustee meeting, Directors and officers are asked to disclose whether he or she believes there may be a conflict in relation to any of the items on the agenda. Perpetuated or participated in negligent, deceitful or other discreditable business or professional practices; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that none of these things have occurred. A bankruptcy search is conducted. Been reprimanded, or disqualified by a professional or regulatory body in relation to matters relating to the person’s honesty, integrity or business conduct; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that none of these things have occurred. Seriously or persistently failed to manage personal debts or financial affairs satisfactorily in circumstances where such failure caused loss to others; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that this has not occurred. A bankruptcy search may be conducted. Been substantially involved in the management of a business or company which has failed, where that failure has been occasioned in part by deficiencies in that management; The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that this has not occurred. Is of bad repute in any business or financial community or any market; Obtain a written reference. Been the subject of civil or criminal proceedings or enforcement action, in relation to the management of an entity, or commercial or professional activities, which were determined adversely to the individual (including by the individual consenting to an order or direction, or giving an undertaking, not to engage in unlawful or improper conduct) and which reflected adversely on the individual’s competence, diligence, judgment, honesty and integrity. The Trustee will undertake appropriate searches and also obtain a declaration from the person that this has not occurred. Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 44 04 Attachment Regulators The Regulators Australian Prudential Regulation Authority (APRA) Australian Securities & Investment Commission (ASIC) Australian Taxation Office (ATO) Australian Transaction and Reports Analysis Centre (AUSTRAC) Prudential Regulator establishes and enforces prudential standards and practices designed to ensure that under all reasonable circumstances, financial promises made by institutions are met with a stable, efficient and competitive financial system. In particular APRA licence and register superannuation Trustees and funds and monitors that Funds are operating in accordance with the SIS Act, Prudential Standards and operating standards. Corporate regulator, responsible for ensuring that company Directors and officers carry out their duties honestly, diligently and in the best interest of their company. Also the Financial Services regulator, who license and monitor financial services businesses to ensure they operate efficiently, honestly and fairly. They promote confident and informed participation by investors and consumers in the financial system. The ATO administers tax legislation and is the regulator for self-managed superannuation funds. They also manage lost super, temporary residents and compliance with the payment of Superannuation Guarantee. The Australian Transaction Reports and Analysis Centre (AUSTRAC) is Australia’s anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing regulator and specialist financial intelligence unit. Key legislation: Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993 and Regulations 1994. Corporations Act 2001 Superannuation (Resolution of Complaints) Act 1993 Income Tax Assessment Act 1997 Superannuation Guarantee (Administration) Act 1992 Financial Transaction Reports Act 1998 Anti-Money Laundering and Counter Terrorism Financing Act 2006 Fund Governance Policies and Procedures Manual | 45