Class XI Entrance Test Paper for Biology (Set A) 2015

MACRO VISION ACADEMY, BURHANPUR
Entrance Test - 2015 -16
Class: XI
ET2015/B1
Time: 1:30.hr.
M.M.: 60
 Each question carries 1 marks.
 No Negative marking.
 After submission of your OMR sheet, be at your own place for your result.
PHYSICS
1.
A motor car travels with a speed v1 from A to B and returns back from B to A with a speed v2.
The average speed of the car during its journey is
vv
2v1v2
v v
(a) 1 2
(b) 1 2
(c)
(d) v1v2
2
v1  v2
v1  v2
2.
Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar?
(a) At poles
(b) At equator
(c) At 45° latitude
(d) At 40° latitude
If the relative density of a body is 0.5, then the body in water will
(a) float
(b) sink
(c) submerge completely
(d) none of these
An electric motor creates a tension of 4500 N in hoisting a cable and reels it at a rate of 2 m s–1.
The power of the motor is
(a) 25 kW
(b) 9 kW
(c) 225 kW
(d) 90 kW
An echo is returned in 3s. If the speed of sound is 342 m/s, then the distance between the
source of sound and the reflecting body is
(a) 351m
(b) 513m
(c) 153 m
(d) none of the above
A convex lens of focal length 24 cm is placed 12 cm in front of a convex mirror. It is found that
when a pin is placed 36 cm in front of the lens, it coincides with its own inverted image formed
by the lens and the mirror. Then the focal length of the mirror is
(a) 45cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 15cm
(d) 30 cm
The equivalent resistance between the terminals X and Y of the circuit is
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(a)1 
(b) 3 
(c) 5 
(d) 8 
A wire is broken in four equal parts. The resistance of each part in comparison to the resistance
of the wire will be
th
th
th
1
1
1
(a) equal
(b)  
(c)  
(d)  
4
8
 16 
9. What will be the current drawn by an electric bulb of 40 W, when connected to a source of 220V?
(a) 0.14 A
(b) 0.18 A
(c) 0.12 A
(d) 0.13 A
10. Common moderator used in nuclear reactor is
(a) boron
(b) uranium
(c) graphite
(d) cadmium
CHEMISTRY
11. The heaviest particle among all the four given particle is :
1
(a) Neutron
(b) Meson
(c) Proton
(d) Electron
12. The number of moles of 52gm of He is :
(a) 6.022 1023
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 11
13. When the goes SO2 and H2S mix in the presence of water the reaction :
SO2  2 H 2 S 
 2 H 2 O + 3S occur here H2S is acting as:
(a) an oxidising agent (b) a reducing agent (c) dehydrating agent (d) a catalyst
14. A weak acid in solution is __________.
(a) mostly molecules
(b) mostly ions
(c) both molecules and ions
(d) less water
15. Which of the following is an odd compound?
(a) Ethene
(b) Ethane
(c) Propene
(d) Acetylene
16. Major constituent of LPG is –
(a) Ethane
(b) Butane
(c) Propane
(d) Pentane
17. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from
left to right across the periods of periodic table.
(a) The elements become loss metallic in nature
(b) The number of valence electrons increases
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(d) The oxides become more acidic
18. Which of the following element is semi-metal?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Chlorine
(c) Sodium
(d) Silicon
19. Which is not a sulphide ore of metal?
(a) Zinc blend
(b) Dolomite
(c) Argentite
(d) Galena
20. Which of the following alloys does not contain any copper?
(a) Solder
(b) Bronze
(c) Brass
(d) Bell metal
BIOLOGY
21. Which of the following has the longest small intestine?
(a) carnivore
(b) omnivore
(c) herbivore
(d) autotroph
22. Which of the following are the correct functions of two components of pancreatic juice trypsin
and lipase.
(a) trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) trypsin digests starch and lipase fats
(d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
23. Which of the following increases in muscle cells when they are lacking in oxygen?
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) lactose
(c) lactic acid
(d) uric acid
24. Which of the following is not caused by a growth movement?
(a) bending of the shoot of a plant in response to light
(b) closing up of leaves of a sensitive plant on touching with an object
(c) climbing up of a plant on an object by using tendrils
(d) movement of the root of a plant towards a source of water
25. The climbing organs of plants like tendrils grow towards any support which they happen to
touch and wind around the support. This is an example of
(a) chemotropism
(b) nastic movement (c) thigmotropism
(d) geotropism
26. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which of the following hormone?
(a) adrenaline
(b) auxin
(c) thyroxine
(d) insulin
27. Dwarfism results due to:
(a) excessive secretion of thyroxine hormone
(b) excessive secretion of growth hormone (c) less secretion of adrenaline hormone
2
(d) less secretion of growth hormone
28. The offsprings formed by asexual reproduction method have greater similarity among themselves
because:
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) asexual reproduction involves two parents
(iii) asexual reproduction involves gametes
(iv) asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
29. Multiple fission occurs in one of the following. This is:
(a) bread mould
(b) kala-azar parasite (c) flatworm
(d) malaria parasite
30. The advantage that internal fertilisation has over external fertilisation is that in internal
fertilisation:
(a) new off-springs are exactly like the parent
(b) production of large numbers of gametes is unnecessary
(c) copulation and fusion of gametes is passive
(d) fewer individuals are produced
31. During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change from the
following associated with sexual maturation in boys:
(a) loss of milk teeth (b) increase in height (c) cracking of voice (d) weight gain
32. The visible characteristic in an organism is known as:
(a) prototype
(b) stereotype
(c) phenotype (d) genotype
33. Which of the following gas was not present in early earth atmosphere?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Methane
34. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds by using radiant energy
are called:
(a) decomposers
(b) producers
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores
35. Which pollutant released into the air during refrigeration and airconditioning is the greatest
contributor to the depletion of ozone layer?
(a) BHC
(b) DDT
(c) CFC
(d) UNEP
36. The major programme started to replenish the damaged forests is called:
(a) horticulture
(b) tissue culture
(c) agriculture
(d) silviculture
37. Increase in oil production is
(a) golden revolution
(b) yellow revolution
(c) white revolution
(d) blue revolution
38. The principal cereal crop of India is
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) sorghum
39. Plasma membrane is
(a) permeable
(b) selective permeable
(b) semipermeable
(d) impermeable
40. Cell theory was given by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Haeckel
ENGLISH
Read the following passages carefully and choose the option that you consider the most
appropriate to complete the statements given below.
Animal rights, also known as animal liberation, is the idea that the most basic interests of
non-human animals should be afforded the same consideration as the similar interests of
human beings. Advocates approach the issue from different philosophical positions, ranging
from the protectionist side of the movement, presented by philosopher Peter Singer—with a
utilitarian focus on suffering and consequences, rather than on the concept of rights—to the
abolitionist side, represented by law professor Gary Francione, who argues that animals
need only one right: the right not to be property. Despite the different approaches, advocates
3
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
broadly agree that animals should be viewed as non-human persons and members of the
moral community, and should not be used as food, clothing, research subjects, or
entertainment. Critics of the idea argue that animals are unable to enter into a social
contract or make moral choices, and for that reason cannot be regarded as possessors of
rights, a position summed up by the philosopher, who wrote in 2000 that only humans have
duties and therefore only humans have rights. A parallel argument is that there is nothing
inherently wrong with using animals as resources so long as there is no unnecessary
suffering, a view known as the animal welfare.
The utilitarian approach to animal rights uphold
(a) The right to be viewed as a nonhuman person
(b) The right to be able to enter a social contract
(c) The right to make moral choices
(d) The right to be safeguarded against suffering
A synonym of inherently, as used in the passage is
(a) Hereditarily
(b) Genetically
(c) Innately
(d) Historically
Complete the following passages by selecting the most suitable option from each list given below
them to fill the corresponding gap.
Diwali comes and the people start buying many things of use in a religious (43) ________. They
buy various things, especially sweets without much care, (44) _______ and awareness. Some
unscrup sweetmeat shops and other shops of different merchandise has _______ this tendency to
their profits. They start selling adulterated (45) _________ articles like sweets.
(a) method
(b) love
(c) fervour
(d) favour
(a) caution
(b) Joy
(c) hope
(d) taste
(a) consumption
(b) consume
(c) consuming
(d) consumable
Choose the pronoun from the options given that correctly replaces the underlined words in each
of the sentences.
Later on, early man invented the knife.
(a) these
(b) him
(c) it
(d) them
You and I built the tree house together.
(a) They
(b) We
(c) Us
(d) You
Banyan trees have a dense growth.
(a) They
(b) It
(c) Those
(d) Them
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct alternative for each from those given below.
_________ had he slept ________ he had to get up.
(a) Neither, nor
(b) Scarcely, than
(c) Scarcely, when (d) No sooner, than
________ Mala is hard working _________ she is not able to get a good job.
(a) Either, or
(b) Not only, but also (c) Although, yet
(d) Such, that
V-MAT
51. Ram and Shyam start walking in opposite direction. Ram covers 3 kms and Shyam covers 4
kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 4 kms and Shyam turns left and walks 3 kms. How far is
each from the starting point?
(a) 4kms
(b) 5kms
(c) 8 kms
(d) 10 kms
4
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
If > denotes +, <denotes , + denotes ÷, ^ denotes  ,  denotes =,  denotes>, denotes <.
Which one of the statement is correct?
(a) 13>7<6+2=3^4
(b) 9>5>4 18 + 9 >16
(c) 9 < 3 < 2> 1  8 ^ 2
(d) 28+ 4 ^ 2 = 6 ^ 4 + 2
If QMBO is the code word for PLAN, then NJOJTUFS is
(a) SINISTER
(b) SEMESTER
(c) MINISTER
(d) DESASTER
23, 35, 57, 711, 1113,
(a) 1520
(b) 1316
(c) 1317
(d) 1422
Complete the letter series:
CZFXIVLTO__
(a) RR
(b) SR
(c) OP
(d) PQ
57. A, C, F, J ?, U
(a)M
(b) N
(c) O
(d) P
(e)Q
58. If ARUN could be given the code number 54, what code number can be given to BINA?
(a) 26
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 42
(e) none of these
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with 111-tier sleeper berth. Each of
them has a different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist
and Pathologist. They occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B,
the Engineer, is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the
same type of berth as that of B. M nd Hare not on the middle bert &n their professions are atho
ogist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K
occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor.
59. Who is the Architect?
(a) D
(b) H
(c) R
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
60. Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct?
(a) K - Upper – Lawyer
(b) D - Upper - Doctor
(c) M - Lower – Journalist
(d) R – Lower – Architect
(e) All correct
5
Answer key
1.
c
7.
c
13. b
19. b
25. c
31. c
37. b
43. c
49. c
55. c
2.
b
8.
b
14. c
20. a
26. c
32. c
38. b
44. a
50. c
56. a
3.
9.
15.
21.
27.
33.
39.
45.
51.
57.
a
b
c
4.
10.
16.
22.
28.
34.
40.
46.
52.
58.
c
d
b
b
d
b
c
6
b
c
b
d
d
b
a
c
c
a
5.
b
11. a
17. c
23. c
29. d
35. c
41. d
47. b
53. b
59. c
6.
d
12. b
18. d
24. b
30. d
36. d
42. c
48. a
54. c
60. d