5.Practice Set IBPS CWE PO-IV

PRACTICE SET
IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
There are eight friends S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sitting
around a circular table facing the centre and playing cards
but not necessarily in the same order. All of them have a
favourite card among these eight cards. Out of these eight
cards, four are Kings and four are Queens of spade, club,
diamond and heart.
S likes the Queen of spade and is not an immediate
neighbour of the one who likes the King of club. The one
who likes the Queen of diamond sits on the immediate left
of T, who likes the Queen of club. U likes the King of club
and sits third to the left of W. The one who likes the King
of spade and the one who likes the Queen of diamond are
immediate neighbours of each other but both of them are
the neighbours neither of W nor of U. The one who likes
the King of diamond and the one who likes the Queen of
spade are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither W
nor V likes the King of diamond. Only X sits between the
one who likes the Queen of diamond and the one who likes
the Queen of heart. Y sits third to the left of the person
who likes the King of diamond.
1. Who likes the King of spade?
1) X
2) Y
3) Z
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
2. W likes which of the following cards?
1) Queen of spade
2) King of heart
3) Queen of heart
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
3. The liker of which of the following sits exactly between
T and Z?
1) Queen of club
2) King of diamond
3) King of club
4) King of spade
5) None of these
4. How many persons sit between V and the person who
likes the King of club?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
5. Which of the following pairs are the immediate
neighbour of that person who likes the King of
diamond?
1) T, U
2) S, T
3) W, S
4) V, Y
5) None of these
6. Which of the following statements is/are true with
respect to Y?
1) Y is the immediate neighbour of that person who
likes the Queen of spade.
2) Y sits between T and X.
3) Y is opposite the person who likes the King of
diamond.
4) All are true
5) None is true
Directions (Q. 7-11): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(7-8):
Statements: Some papers are pencils.
No paper is a bottle.
No pencil is a pen.
7. Conclusions: I. No pen is a bottle.
II. No pen is a pencil.
8. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not papers.
II. Some pens are not papers.
(9-10):
Statements: All stickers are cups.
No cup is a wire.
All wires are bulbs.
9. Conclusions: I. All bulbs being cups is a
possibility.
II. No sticker is a wire.
10. Conclusions: I. All stickers being bulbs is a
possibility.
II. No bulb is a sticker.
11. Statements: Some glasses are bowls.
All bowls are spoons.
No spoon is a plate.
Conclusions: I. Some bowls are plates.
II. Some glasses are not spoons.
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12. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
given expression to make T < Q and L T definitely
true?
Q?L=M?R=T
1) , < 2) , > 3) <,
4) <,
5) None of these
13. Which of the following expressions will be false, if the
expression R < E = A M > N is definitely true?
1) A > N
2) E N
3) R < A
4) N < E
5) None of these
14. Which of the following symbols should be placed in
blank spaces respectively to make the expressions
B J, L > C and J < A definitely true?
H<A_ B _ C = J _L
1) >, , <
2) <, , >
3) =, <,
4) <, , <
5) None of these
15. Which of the following expressions will be true if the
expression Z Y > L = W N > F is definitely true?
1) Z W
2) L = N
3) F < Z
4) W = Y
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A @ B means A is father of B
A % B means A is husband of B
A $ B means A is sister of B
A £ B means A is mother of B
A ¥ B means A is brother of B
16. What should come in place of question mark to make
the expression “E is grandfather of T” true?
E@ V?N%R£T
1) @
2) £
3) ¥
4) %
5) None of these
17. Which of the following statements is true if the given
expression is definitely true?
A%L$K£B¥C
1) K is sister-in-law of A 2) C is daughter of K
3) A is father of B
4) C is son of L
5) None of these
18. Which of the following expressions, if true, makes “N
is sister of R” true?
1) F £ U @ N $ K ¥ R
2) N $ F £ K ¥ R $ U
3) R $ U ¥ K $ N
4) N £ F $ K ¥ R $ U
5) None of these
19. Which of the following statements is false if the given
expression is true?
J£K£L@M¥N$O
1) M is son of L
2) K is grandmother of O
3) M is grandson of J
4) N is sister of M
5) None of these
20. What is the relation between W and P if the given
expression is definitely true?
G% H£W¥ V%R£P
1) P is son of W
2) W is uncle of P
3) P is sister-in-law of W 4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-26): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight candidates A, G, L, N, P, Q, R and S have applied
for IBPS exam for different banks, viz BOB, BOI, Dena Bank,
UBI, OBC, Indian Bank, Corporation Bank and UCO Bank
but not necessarily in the same order. There are five male
and three female candidates in this group. Each male and
each female has applied from his/her city, viz Jaipur, Delhi,
Noida, Kanpur, Patna, Ranchi, Gurgaon and Ghaziabad.
No male has applied from Ranchi and Kanpur.
P has applied for Indian Bank from Ghaziabad. The
one who has applied for Corporation Bank is neither from
Noida nor from Kanpur. G has applied for OBC. His sister L
has applied for Dena Bank from Jaipur. The one who belongs
to Delhi has applied for BOB. The one who has applied
from Noida is not a female. N has applied for UBI and her
friend has applied for BOB. Q is from Gurgaon and has not
applied either for Corporation Bank or for UCO Bank. The
one who has applied for UCO Bank has applied neither
from Patna nor from Noida. S has applied from Kanpur. A
does not apply from Patna.
21. Which of the following groups is a group of female
applicants?
1) G, N, L
2) N, Q, S
3) L, N, S
4) P, Q, R
5) None of these
22. Who among the following has applied from Ranchi?
1) P
2) N
3) S
4) L
5) None of these
23. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) A – UBI – Ranchi
2) R – Corporation Bank – Noida
3) L – UCO Bank – Jaipur
4) G – OBC – Noida
5) None of these
24. Who among the following has applied for BOB?
1) A
2) S
3) N
4) Q
5) None of these
25. G belongs to which of the following cities?
1) Delhi
2) Ranchi
3) Noida
4) Gurgaon
5) None of these
26. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1) P
2) R
3) A
4) L
5) Q
Directions (Q. 27-31): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input: 51 rest 11 loan 21 club 10 art 41
Step I: art rest 11 loan 21 club 10 41 51
Step II: art club rest 11 loan 10 21 41 51
Step III: art club loan rest 10 11 21 41 51
Step IV: art club loan rest 1 4 9 25 36
Step IV is the last step of the above input. As per the
rules followed in the above steps find the appropriate
step for the given input.
Input: water 13 ferry 15 place 16 boat 22 market 18
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verb 12
27. What is the position of ‘place’ in Step III?
1) Sixth from the left
2) Fifth from the right
3) Fourth from the left
4) Sixth from the right
5) None of these
28. Which of the following would be at the 7th position
from the right in Step V?
1) water 2) verb 3) 13
4) 15
5) None of these
29. How many steps will be required to complete the
arrangement of the above input?
1) Four
2) Five
3) Six
4) Seven
5) None of these
30. Which step number would be the following output?
‘boat ferry market place verb water 12 13 15 16 18 22’
1) III
2) IV
3) VI
4) V
5) None of these
31. If Step III of an input is as given below, what will be
the input?
‘art cute junk 15 18 punch gun 23 28 35’
1) art cute 15 18 cute punch gun 35 28 23
2) 35 art cute 15 18 punch gun 23 28 junk
3) cute junk art 15 18 punch gun 23 28 35
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
SEASON each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
33. The position of the first and fifth letters of the word
SUBSTANCE are interchanged. Similarly, the position
of second and sixth letters, third and seventh letters,
and fourth and eighth letters are interchanged. The
ninth letter remains as it is. In the new arrangement,
how many letters are there in the English alphabetical
series between the letters which is second from the
right end and the third from the left end?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Four
5) More than four
34. In a certain code language COURSE is written as
DRQDPV. How is PUZZLE written in that code
language?
1) DKYQVA
2) QVADKY
3) DKYAVQ
4) QVAAMF
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 35-36): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions:
A man goes to the market. He walks 2 km towards
north from his home and then he turns to his left and walks
2 km. Again he turns to his left and walks 1 km. Finally he
turns to his left and walks 4 km and reaches the market.
35. In which direction is man’s home from the market?
1) West
2) South
3) Northeast
4) Southwest
5) Can’t be determined
36. What is the distance between his home and the market?
1) 3 km
2)
3) 2.5km
5km
4) 4 km
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 37-40): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
37. How is D related to A?
I. D is married to E, who is brother of B.
II. A’s son B is married to C, who is sister of D.
38. Which direction was Manish facing?
I. Manish and Mohit were talking to each other face
to face.
II. At 4 o’clock Manish’s shadow was exactly on the
left of Mohit.
39. What is the rank of R from the bottom in a class of 30
students?
I. N is fourth from the top and there are five students
between N and R.
II. The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there
are 17 students between K and R.
40. There are five students Aarti, Babita, Chandan, Dhiraj
and Suman sitting arround a circular table. Who is on
the immediate right of Aarti?
I. Aarti is second to the left of Dhiraj, who is not the
neighbour of Babita.
II. Babita is second to the right of Dhiraj and is an
immediate neighbour of Chandan and Suman.
41. International diplomatic practice and US immigration
law enable the abuse of domestic workers.
Which of the following is not in line with the above
statement?
1) The wages of domestic workers required by US
law are impossibly high.
2) The livelihood and visa status of the workers
depend on the good will of an employer protected
from prosecution by diplomatic immunity.
3) The William Wilberforce Act bolsters federal efforts
to combat both international and domestic traffic
in human beings.
4) Some of the clauses of the law are simple while
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42.
others are complex.
5) None of these
High-end pawn stores are getting increasingly popular.
Which of the following may be a probable reason for
the above phenomenon?
1) For those who borrow a couple of thousand dollars
against, say, a Rolex watch, the rates range from
12% to more than 60% on an annualised basis.
2) That pawnshops exist to lend money to those who
fall on hard times is either a necessary or
unfortunate facet of life, depending on one’s point
of view.
3) Conventional lenders over the past five to six years
have become increasingly reluctant to advance
credit on all fronts.
4) When a business needs liquidity to fund operations
or growth, they’re able to go to the capital markets
and use business assets to obtain loans.
5) None of these
There are investors who are keen to invest in equities
but are afraid of losing money in the stock markets.
Which of the following is a course of action such
investors should take?
1) They should offer 20% of their money in stocks.
2) They should invest in products with a tenure of
five years.
3) They should invest in debt-oriented hybrid funds.
4) They should invest in schemes that are listed on
stock exchanges.
5) None of these
Professor X raised serious charges of mismanagement,
incompetence and illegal behaviour against the
University of Mumbai’s current administration.
Which of the following courses of action should be
taken?
(A) The professor should be suspended.
(B) As an insider and a well-respected academic, his
criticism of the administration deserves to be
taken seriously.
(C) The truth should be verified by an independent
committee or a court of law.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A and B 5) Only B and C
Google is buying out Nest and there are concerns
among customers about Google having so much data
about people. But it has agreed that Nest’s privacy
policies are going to be well-respected. Which of the
following statements would most weaken Nest’s
beliefs?
1) History has shown that privacy policies change.
2) Google products can easily be integrated into Nest.
3) The deal between the two companies has not yet
closed.
4) Unlike many of Silicon Valley’s most popular
companies that make software that costs very little
to build, Nest is capital-intensive because it builds
hardware.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46–50): These questions are based on
the information given below and the sentences labelled
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) given after them:
The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) claims that it consults
many stakeholders before it takes important decisions, like
forming its first government in Delhi. Who did it consult
before deciding that Delhi would not allow foreign direct
investment (FDI) in supermarkets? The government of India
took the decision to open up supermarkets to overseas
investments after protracted debate in media, academia,
civil society and Parliament, because in balance, the
benefits of FDI in supermarkets outweighed the costs.
Supermarkets create jobs. There are many other benefits
as well.
(A) If food retailers were allowed to buy direct from
farmers, instead of going through a complex chain
of politically-connected middlemen in states, it
would reduce waste, speed up time from farm to
plate, boost prices of farm produce for farmers
and cut food inflation by eliminating middlemen’s
margins.
(B) AAP should withdraw the ban on FDI in
supermarkets.
(C) There should be consistency in the style of
decision-making.
(D) Debate in media is more meaningful than mere
referendum.
(E) Foreign powers had manoeuvred the government
of India in saying yes to FDI.
(F) By banning FDI, the AAP looks like an Aam
Shopkeeper Party.
46. Which of the following has/have been assumed in the
information in the paragraph given above?
1) Only C
2) Only E
3) Only B
4) Both B and C 5) Both B and E
47. Which of the following statements strengthen(s) the
argument given in the paragraph above?
1) Only D
2) Only E
3) Only A
4) Both A and D 5) Both D and E
48. Which of the following is a benefit(s) of FDI in
supermarkets?
1) Only A
2) Only D
3) Only F
4) Both A and D 5) Both A and F
49. Which of the following statements weaken(s) the
argument given in the paragraph above?
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D
5) Only E
50. Which of the following can be a conclusion on the
basis of the paragraph given above?
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43.
44.
45.
1) Only F
4) Only B
2) Only D
3) Only C
5) Both B and C
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-70): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The global financial crisis has heightened fears about
integration with global financial markets. For a country like
India, which should inexorably open up further to global
markets, an important task of policymaking is to identify
the path of this integration. It lies neither in shutting out
foreign capital, nor in recklessly opening up to dollardenominated debt, which has landed many a country in
trouble.
A recent Sebi study on foreign investment in
government bonds has recommended the removal of
quantitative restrictions on foreign holdings of rupeedenominated debt and moving towards a framework similar
to the one for foreign portfolio investment in equity. In this
study may co-authors and I find that India’s capital controls
continue to be guided by concerns about debt and its
maturity, rather than its currency denomination. For
example, India has placed many restrictions on foreign
investment in rupee-denominated bonds, even though this
is one of the safest areas to open up. This is because the
currency risk is borne by the foreigner and there is a foreign
appetite for rupee-denominated debt. Currently, the
restrictions include caps on the total amount of rupeedenominated bonds that a foreigner is permitted to hold as
well as limits that vary by investor class, maturity and issuer.
These have been implemented through a complicated
mechanism for allocation and reinvestment. The restrictions
fail to meet the objectives of economic policy today and
must be removed.
In 1991, India embarked on its integration with the
world economy through trade and capital account
liberalisation. A key idea behind the early decontrol
measures was that debt inflows were dangerous and,
therefore, strong restrictions need to be placed on them.
Restrictions were imposed to shift the composition of capital
entering India towards non-debt-creating inflows and to
regulate external commercial borrowings (ECBs), especially
short-term debt. As a consequence, while the framework
for FDI and portfolio flows is relatively liberal, India has a
number of restrictions on debt flows.
Over the past decade, the global thinking on debt flows
has changed. The macroeconomic and financial instability
in emerging markets following the crises of the late 1990s
has led to increased efforts in these countries to develop
local currency denominated bond markets as an alternative
source of debt financing for the public and corporate
sectors.
In the 2000s, emerging economies’ domestic bond
markets have grown substantially. The outstanding stock
of domestic bonds now exceeds $6 trillion, compared to
only $1 trillion in the mid-1990s. Along with this, foreign
participation has also increased substantially over the last
decade. In contrast, the Indian policy framework on debt
flows, characterised by quantitative restrictions on foreign
participation, has resulted in limited foreign investment.
There is a strong case for opening up the local-currency
government and corporate debt market to foreign investors.
The present arrangement governing foreign borrowing
comprises two parts. First, dollar-denominated debt: India
raises capital through foreign currency denominated debt
via government borrowing (both bilateral and multilateral),
ECBs by firms (including foreign currency convertible
bonds and foreign currency exchangeable bonds) and fully
repatriable NRI deposits. Second, rupee-denominated debt:
Foreign investment in rupee-denominated debt takes the
form of foreign investors buying bonds in the Indian debt
market, which is denominated in rupees. This is subject to
an array of quantitative restrictions. There are different
limits for foreign investment in government and corporate
bonds. This arrangement is further complicated by sublimits across assets and investor classes.
The share of outstanding government bonds that are
owned by foreign investors has risen through the years.
As of March 2013, it stands at 1.6 per cent. In absolute
numbers, foreign investors own `700 billion or
approximately $11 billion of Indian government bonds. At
present, the quantitative restriction on foreign investment
in government bonds stands at $30 billion. The small scale
of foreign ownership implies a substantial upside potential.
The internal debt of the government stands at `48.7 trillion.
Government securities account for 90 per cent of this
amount. Even if the ownership of foreign investors went
up by ten times overnight, to $110 billion, it would only
amount to 16 per cent of the existing stock of bonds.
A comparison with other emerging economies shows
that India greatly lags behind in the proportion of
government bonds owned by foreigners. This raises
questions on the structure of capital controls in the rupeedenominated bond market.
The Working Group on Foreign Investment pointed
out that the existing regulations create incentives for Indian
firms to favour foreign-currency borrowings over issuing
debt denominated in rupees. It recommended easing the
restrictions on rupee-denominated debt as a safer way to
manage globalisation. The Committee on Financial Sector
Reforms, chaired by Raghuram Rajan, also recommended
the steady opening up of rupee-denominated government
and corporate bond markets to foreign investors.
The Sebi study recommends that the existing
framework of quantitative restrictions be dismantled. This
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will encourage greater engagement of foreigners in the
government debt market.
51. Why should India open up the local-currency
government and corporate debt market for foreign
investors?
1) Because India is in dire need of money for
developing infrastructure of some of its sick
industries
2) Because India has lagged behind due to restrictions
on foreign debt flows
3) Because India is passing through a financial crisis
4) Because India is a developing economy
5) None of these
52. What are the different types of restrictions imposed
by India on foreign investment in rupee denominated
bonds?
1) Caps on the total amount to be invested in rupeedenominated bonds
2) Class of the investors
3) Maturity period
4) Issuer of bonds
5) All the above
53. What has/have been recommended by Sebi about
foreign investment in government bonds?
(A) A new framework for foreign portfolio investment
in equity should be made.
(B) Foreign investment in government bonds should
be discouraged because not only India but also
many other countries have experienced a bad
effect on their economy.
(C) Quantitative restrictions on foreign holdings of
rupee-denominated debt should go away.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Both (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
54. Why does the author think that foreign investment in
rupee-denominated bonds is one of the safest areas
to be opened up? Give your answer in the context of
the given passage.
1) Because foreign investors are forced to invest on
our terms
2) Because the currency risk is borne by the foreigner
3) Because in such as a situation, India becomes the
custodian of their money
4) Because India is not bound to pay the invested
money before the date of maturity
5) None of these
55. What was the effect of the late 1990s crises on the
emerging markets of different countries?
1) The affected countries had to open their emerging
markets for dollar-denominated bond markets.
2) Such countries had to open their emerging markets
for euro-denominated bond markets.
3) Such countries were compelled to develop local
56.
57.
currency denominated bond markets for the public
and corporate sectors.
4) Such countries were forced to disallow foreign
investment in their emerging markets.
5) None of these
Which of the following comprise(s) foreign
borrowings? Give your answer in the context of the
passage.
1) External commercial borrowings by firms and fully
repatriable NRI deposits
2) Foreign investment in rupee-denominated debt
3) Foreign currency denominated bilateral and
multilateral government borrowing
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
Which of the following statements is not true
according to the facts mentioned in the given
passage?
1) The share of outstanding govt bonds owned by
foreign investors has gone down significantly
through the years.
2) Foreign investors are the owners of approximately
11 USD billion of Indian government bonds.
3) The quantitative restrictions on foreign investment
in govt bonds stands at USD 30 billion as of now.
4) Govt securities account for 90% of the internal debt
of the govt.
5) None of these
What was/were the thoughts behinds imposing
restrictions on foreign investment in India while
opening up its economy in 1991?
1) Allowing foreign investment in India means
dependence on foreign investors.
2) It was thought foreigners would take away major
chunk of profits from India and India’s economy
would be in trouble.
3) It was thought that debt inflows were dangerous.
4) India wanted to be on the safer side because it had
never before opened its economy for foreign
investors and hence had no experience of allowing
foreign investment.
5) All the above
Which of the following is true about India’s capital
control?
1) India’s capital control is guided by India’s central
bank.
2) As far as India’s capital control is concerned, India
is more concerned about currency denomination
than the amount of debt and its maturity.
3) No control is exercised by India’s central bank on
the debt and its denomination.
4) India’s capital control is guided by debt and its
maturity.
5) None of these
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58.
59.
60. What should India do to integrate with financial global
market?
(A) It should identify the path of integration.
(B) It should not shut out foreign capital.
(C) It should not carelessly allow dollar-denominated
debt.
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (A) and (C)
3) All (A), (B) and (C)
4) Only (B) and (C)
5) Only (B)
61. Find the incorrect statements on the basis of the given
passage.
1) Compared to the mid-1990s, the outstanding stock
of domestic bond markets has increased
approximately six times in the 2000s.
2) Foreign participation has not shown any remarkable
increase over the last decade.
3) In the 2000s, emerging economies’ domestic bond
markets have grown substantially.
4) Strong restrictions on foreign participation have
resulted in limited foreign investment in India.
5) None of these
62. Who among the following do/does not favour the
easing of restriction on rupee-denominated debt?
(A) The Working Group on Foreign Investment
(B) The Committee on Financial Sector Reforms
(C) Securities and Exchange Board of India
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (C)
5) None of these
63. What is the central idea of the given passage?
1) Domestic bond markets play a crucial role in the
country’s economy.
2) Dollar-denominated debt should not be allowed in
India without any restriction.
3) Foreign investors play a vital role in India’s
economy.
4) India must lift restrictions on foreign investment in
rupee-denominated debt.
5) Importance of financial stability in emerging markets
Directions (Q. 64-67): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
64. Inexorably
1) inevitably
2) inextricably
3) magnificently
4) openly
5) vigorously
65. Array
1) apprehension 2) continuity
3) order
4) area
5) multitude
66. Dismantled
1) imposed
2) exempted
3) legalised
4) removed
5) broken
67. Lags
1) falls out
2) falls behind
3) advances
4) grows
5) lacks
Directions (Q. 68-70): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
68. Recklessly
1) carefully
2) hopefully
3) inadvertently
4) unruly
5) readily
69. Steady
1) uniform
2) stable
3) turbulent
4) regular
5) stationary
70. Embarked
1) launched
2) began
3) stopped
4) proposed
5) regularised
Directions (Q. 71-75): The following questions
consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are
given six words denominated by A, B, C, D, E and F as
answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick
two correct answers, either of which will make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
71. It has come to the notice of Sebi that some companies/
entities are illegally mobilising funds from the public
by making false promise of ________ rates of return/
interest under various schemes/arrangement.
(A) extreme
(B) unreasonable (C) illegal
(D) high
(E) exorbitant
(F) little
1) (A) and (B)
2) (B) and (C)
3) (C) and (D)
4) (C) and (E)
5) (B) and (E)
72. President Pranab Mukherjee will meet two groups of
people who will give him the ________ on the
deteriorating law-and-order situation in West Bengal.
(A) lowdown
(B) letter
(C) dossier
(D) details
(E) brochure
(F) information
1) (A) and (C)
2) (B) and (E)
3) (A) and (F)
4) (C) and (D)
5) (C) and (F)
73. The space between Damascus and Baghdad is
becoming an area for Jihadists to ________ into a
global terrorist army.
(A) convert
(B) unite
(C) coalesce
(D) develop
(E) collapse
(F) collect
1) (A) and (F)
2) (B) and (E)
3) (C) and (F)
4) (D) and (F)
5) (B) and (F)
74. Public sector banks are ________ to pick up a stake
in Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
(A) eager
(B) motivated
(C) adamant
(D) keen
(E) coming
(F) reluctant
1) (A) and (B)
2) (B) and (E)
3) (C) and (E)
4) (D) and (F)
5) (A) and (E)
75. Reliance Industries Limited yet again ________ at
the upper boundary and then moved back into
previous consolidation band.
(A) touched
(B) picked
(C) continued
(D) stopped
(E) stayed
(F) faltered
1) (B) and (D)
2) (E) and (F)
3) (A) and (B)
4) (B) and (F)
5) (A) and (F)
K
KUNDAN
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) The RBI’s internal management is based on
functional specialisation and coordination
amongst about 20 departments with headquarters
at Mumbai, which is the financial capital of the
country.
(B) RBI is a state-owned institution under the Reserve
Bank of India Act, 1948.
(C) The RBI is the oldest among the central banks
operating in developing countries, though it is
much younger than the Bank of England and the
Federal Reserve Board operating as the central
banks in the UK and the USA respectively.
(D) The control of the RBI vests in the Central Board
of Directors that comprises the above mentioned
Governor, four Deputy Governors and 15
Directors nominated by the Union Government.
(E) This Act empowers the Union Government, in
consultation with the Governor of the RBI, to issue
such directions to RBI as considered necessary
in public interest.
(F) The Governor and four Deputy Governors of RBI
are appointed by the Union Government.
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) E
2) F
3) D
4) C
5) B
77. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) B
3) E
4) F
5) A
78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A
2) D
3) C
4) B
5) E
79. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) B
3) A
4) D
5) C
80. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) F
2) C
3) B
4) A
5) D
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
I have three I’s for you. They are Inspiration, Integrity
and Insight. Leaders essentially (81) with something
larger than what others are willing to grapple with, which
is what makes them leaders. They need inspiration to be
able to do that, (82) they will get frustrated. The second
component is integrity, which is a key element in (83)
trust, without which you are never (84) going to be a
leader. Integrity is about (85) between what you say, do
and think. It is in your actions, in the way you are, the
way you carry yourself. It’s not (86) you do only when
others are watching. I ask people a simple question: if
there is no policeman at a traffic signal, will you stop?
Only 10% say they will stop, 90% will not. Life offers leader
a perch higher than other people have. If leaders cannot
see any (87) than others, they become objects of ridicule.
They must have (88) into situations, into problems and
possible solutions.
There is a drought of leadership at all levels of life in
our country. But leaders don’t fall from the (89). Some
people become leaders themselves or sometimes situations
(90) them to become leaders.
81. 1) gratified
2) shielded
3) defended
4) grapple
5) contend
82. 1) moreover
2) else
3) then
4) when
5) nonetheless
83. 1) raising
2) creating
3) forming
4) making
5) building
84. 1) always
2) been
3) ever
4) often
5) there
85. 1) coherence
2) adherence
3) sticking
4) deciding
5) relation
86. 1) everything
2) when
3) important
4) something
5) anything
87. 1) one
2) better
3) more
4) thing
5) clearly
88. 1) insight
2) depth
3) control
4) belief
5) knowledge
89. 1) above
2) god
3) sky
4) universe
5) haven
90. 1) make
2) instigate
3) prepare
4) develop
5) compel
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KUNDAN
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 91-95): What value should come in
place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
91.
0.2304 0.012 ?
1) 3.84
2) 9.6
3) 19.2
4) 38.4
5) None of these
92. 18 × 1.8 × 7.5 = (?)3 – 100
1) 5
2) 7
3) 9
4) 11
5) 13
93. 20% of 40% of ? = 439.6
1) 5275 2) 5345 3) 5495 4) 5525 5) 5655
94. 578 × ? × 12 = 325992
1) 41
2) 43
3) 45
4) 47
5) 49
95.
? = (42 × 56) ÷ 16
1) 22201 2) 21609 3) 21025 4) 20449 5) 19881
Directions (Q. 96-100): What should come in place
of question mark (?) in the following number series?
96. 1717 1744 1869 2212 2941 ?
1) 3726 2) 3912 3) 4083 4) 4272 5) 4326
97. 1268 2051 2726 3301 3784 ?
1) 4183 2) 4296 3) 4312 4) 4443 5) 4508
98. 18 50 142 414 1226 ?
1) 3248 2) 3306 3) 3424 4) 3572 5) 3658
99. 28 33 109 560 3940 ?
1) 35125 2) 35235 3) 35485 4) 35705 5) 35915
100. 16 65.5 264.5 1061.5 4250.5 ?
1) 14008.5 2) 15009.5 3) 16006.5 4) 17007.5 5) 18008.5
101. What is the compound interest on `48750 for 2.5 years
at 12% pa?
1) `15228.42
2) `15864.24
3) `16071.12
4) `16474.62
5) `16846.84
102. A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above the cost
price and allows 15% discount on it. If he sells his
goods for `1038.70, what is the cost price?
1) `920
2) `940
3) `960
4) `980
5) `1020
103. The simple interest in 16 months on a certain sum at
the rate at 12% pa is `266 more than the interest on the
same sum at the rate of 18% pa in 8 months. What is
the sum?
1) `6450
2) `6650
3) `6750
4) `6850
5) `7050
104. A and B can finish a job in 30 days, while A, B and C
can finish it in 12 days. C alone can finish the job in
1) 15 days
2) 18 days
3) 20 days
4) 21 days
5) 24 days
105. If 8 men and 5 women can earn `3390 in 6 days, and 5
men and 7 women can earn `3600 in 8 days, then in
how many days will 7 men and 8 women earn `6435?
1) 9 days
2) 11 days
3) 12 days
4) 13 days
5) 15 days
106. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
“COLLECTION” be arranged?
1) 453600 2) 113400 3) 56700 4) 5040 5) 1260
107. A box contains 3 black, 3 blue and 3 white balls. Two
balls are drawn from the box at random. What is the
probability that both the balls are of the same colour?
1) 24 kmph
2) 60 kmph
3) 72 kmph
4) 90 kmph
5) 120 kmph
110. The ratio of the age of son to that of father is 2 : 7.
After 12 years, the ratio will become 4 : 9. What is the
present age of son?
1) 18 years
2) 16 years
3) 14 years
4) 12 years
5) 8 years
Directions (Q. 111-115): In each of these questions,
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
the equations and give answer
1) if x < y
2) if x > y
3) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x = y, or relationship between x and y can’t be
established.
111. I. 6x2 – 49x + 99 = 0
II. 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
2
112. I. 5x = 19x – 12
II. 5y2 + 11y = 12
113. I. x2 = 3 1331
II. 2y2 – 21y + 55 = 0
114. I. 5x = 7y + 21
II. 11x + 4y + 109 = 0
115. I. 2x2 – 11x + 12 = 0
II. 2y2 – 17y + 36 = 0
116. A park is 60m long and 48m broad. It has a 3m-wide
path all around it each on its inside and outside both.
How much will it take to carpet the path if the rate of
carpeting is `7 per sq metre?
1) `8084
2) `9072
3) `10112
4) `10742
5) `10956
117. A room is 9m long and 7m wide. The floor of the room
is to be tiled fully with 9 cm × 8 cm rectangular tiles
without breaking tiles to smaller sizes. How many tiles
will be required?
1) 8750 2) 9600 3) 10400 4) 12600 5) 14000
118. The dimensions of a room are 12m × 8m × 5m. There
are two doors (2.5m × 1m) and two windows (1.5m ×
1m) in the room. What is the cost of painting the walls
of the room if the rate of painting is `13.5 per square
metre?
1) `2416 2) `2592 3) `2684 4) `2748 5) `2804
119. A cylindrical piece of metal of radius 4.5 cm and height
11 cm is shaped into a cone of the same radius. What
will be the height of the cone?
1) 16.5 cm 2) 22 cm 3) 27.5 cm 4) 33 cm 5) 38.5 cm
120. How much will it cost to make a wall, which is 28m
long, 8m high and 0.5m thick, from bricks whose
dimensions are 20 cm × 10 cm × 7 cm? One brick costs
`3.
1) `1.8 lakh
2) `2.4 lakh
3) `2.8 lakh
4) `3.2 lakh
5) `3.6 lakh
Directions (Q. 121-125): The following line graph
shows the percentage increase in the population of two
cities A and B over the period 2009 to 2013.
K
KUNDAN
1
1
3
20
1
2)
3)
4)
5)
66
4
4
21
21
108. A man can row 28 km upstream and 70 km downstream
in 12 hours. Also, he can row 40 km upstream and 56
km downstream in 14 hours. What is the speed of the
man in still water?
1) 7 kmph
2) 8 kmph
3) 9 kmph
4) 12 kmph
5) 14 kmph
109. A person travelled 120 km by bus, 480 km by train and
432 km by bike. It took 15 hours. If the speed of the
1)
5
times that of the
3
bike, what is the speed of the bike?
train is 5 times that of the bus and
Percentage increase
30
City A
25
City B
25
20
15
10
20
20
15
10
10
10
10
5
5
5
0
2009
2010
2011
Year
2012
2013
The table shows the population of these cities at the
beginning of 2009.
City
Population (in lakh)
A
12
B
10
121. What is the population of City A at the beginning of
the year 2011?
1) 14.96 lakh
2) 15.18 lakh
3) 15.72 lakh
4) 16.04 lakh
5) 16.24 lakh
122. What is the difference between the population of City
A and City B at the end of the year 2011?
1) 53400 2) 54600 3) 55300 4) 56100 5) 57500
123. What is the ratio of the population of City A to that of
City B at the end of 2009?
1) 1 : 2
2) 6 : 5
3) 8 : 5
4) 11 : 10
5) None of these
124. What will be the population of City B at the end of the
year 2013?
1) 17.325 lakh
2) 18.464 lakh
3) 19.0575 lakh
4) 20.040 lakh
5) None of these
125. The population of City B at the end of the year 2011 is
approximately what per cent of the population of City
A at the beginning of the year 2009?
1) 72.7% 2) 87.5% 3) 112.5% 4) 125% 5) 137.5%
Directions (Q. 126-130): The following pie-chart
shows the percentage distribution of the total items
produced by six different companies in the year 2013, and
the table shows the percentage sale of these companies.
(Total items produced by all six companies together is 5.5
lakh)
Company
% sale
A
72%
B
80%
C
84%
D
65%
E
70%
F
75%
126. What is the total number of items sold by Company
A?
1) 27720 2) 48400 3) 56980 4) 71280 5) 99000
127. What is the difference between the total items sold by
Company B and the total items sold by Company C?
1) 21420 2) 22720 3) 23210 4) 24080 5) 24420
128. What is the average number of items sold by all six
companies?
1) 66935 2) 65415 3) 64285 4) 63150 5) 62740
129. What is the ratio of the total unsold items of Company
B to that of Company E?
1) 3 : 5
2) 3 : 7
3) 4 : 7
4) 4 : 5
5) 5 : 7
130. The total unsold items of Company F is what per cent
of the total sold items of Company B?
1) 41.25% 2) 42.5% 3) 43.75% 4) 45% 5) 47.5%
Directions (Q. 131-135): The following bar chart
shows the total number of readers of newspaper A and B
over the period of 2009 to 2013 and the table shows the
percentage of female readers among them.
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KUNDAN
F
21%
A
18%
B
15%
E
14%
D
23%
C
9%
Number of readers
(in thousand)
A
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
B
65
64
60
56
54
48
42
2009
2010
2011
44
2012
45
40
2013
Year
A
B
% female
% female
2009
43%
51%
2010
37%
45%
2011
45%
48%
2012
52%
54%
2013
39%
56%
131. What is the total number of female readers of
newspaper B in the year 2012?
1) 21480 2) 22320 3) 23760 4) 24850 5) 25200
132. What is the difference between the total male readers
of newspaper A and its total female readers in the year
2009?
1) 8620 2) 7840 3) 7450 4) 7280 5) 7060
133. What is the ratio of the total male readers of newspaper
A in the year 2011 to the total female readers of
newspaper B in the year 2013?
1) 22 : 21
2) 13 : 22
3) 24 : 23
4) 25 : 24
5) 16 : 15
134. What is the average number of male readers of
newspaper B over the years?
1) 21320
2) 22640
3) 23450
4) 24780
5) 25160
135. The total number of female readers of newspaper A in
the year 2010 is approximately what per cent of the
total number of male readers of newspaper B in the
year 2010?
1) 65%
2) 63%
3) 61%
4) 59%
5) 57%
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a company there are total 2400 employees, in which
the ratio of males to females is 7 : 5. All the employees work
in three different departments, D 1, D2 and D3 of the
company. The number of male employees working in D1 is
27% of the total number of male employees of the company,
and it is 90% of the total number of female employees in D1.
Test-IV: General Awareness
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. Sahyog-Kaijin 2014, the 13th edition of joint exercises
between the Indian Coast Guard and its counterpart
from which of the following countries, was held off
Kochi recently?
1) Russia
2) China
3) Japan
4) Australia
5) US
142. South Korean steel maker Posco has received
environment clearance for its `52,000-cr steel plant after
remaining in the pipeline for the past eight years. The
plant is to be set up in which of the following states?
1) West Bengal 2) Karnataka
3) Odisha
4) Jharkhand
5) Andhra Pradesh
143. The Reserve Bank of India released the Financial
Stability Report (FSR) – Dec 2013 recently. Aiming to
create awareness about the vulnerabilities in the
financial system, the FSR is published every
1) month
2) two months 3) three months
4) four months 5) six months
144. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Bank of Japan
(BOJ) signed a pact to enhance the maximum amount
of the Bilateral Swap Arrangement (BSA) between the
two countries recently. What is the new limit of the
BSA?
1) USD 20 bn
2) USD 30 bn
3) USD 40 bn
4) USD 50 bn
5) USD 60 bn
145. The RBI had announced to launch Inflation Indexed
National Saving Securities-Cumulative (IINSS-C),
which was later extended to a later date 31 Mar, 2014.
The minimum limit for investment in the bond per
applicant per annum is `5,000. What is the maximum
limit?
1) `1 lakh
2) `2.5 lakh
3) `5 lakh
4) `7.5 lakh
5) `10 lakh
146. The Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services
for Small Businesses and Low-Income Households,
headed by Nachiket Mor, proposed a plan to overhaul
the Indian banking landscape recently. Which of the
following have been proposed in the report?
(A) All resident Indians above 18 years of age will
have full-service bank accounts by 1 Jan, 2016.
(B) Every account holder will have an electronic
payment access point within 15 minutes of walk.
(C) Increasing the priority-sector lending target from
40 per cent of net bank credit to 60 per cent and
doing away with farm-loan subsidies
(D) Allowing banks to set up subsidiaries dedicated
to financial inclusion, without prior approvals from
the RBI
1) All the above
2) Only (A) and (C)
K
KUNDAN
6
of the
7
total number of female employees in D1 and the total number
of male employees working in D2 is 140% of the total female
employees working in D2. Answer the following questions
based on these information.
136. How many male employees are working in department
D3?
1) 504
2) 512
3) 518
4) 524
5) 532
137. The total number of female employees in department
D3 is approximately what per cent of the total number
of male employees working in department D1?
1) 51.7%
2) 53.4%
3) 55.6%
4) 57.2%
5) 58.2%
138. What is the ratio of the total male employees in
department D 1 to the total male employees in
department D2?
1) 2 : 3
2) 3 : 4
3) 4 : 5
4) 5 : 6
5) None of these
139. The total number of male employees in department D3
is approximately what per cent of the total number of
female employees in department D2?
1) 84% 2) 112% 3) 128% 4) 144% 5) 156%
140. The total number of male employees in department D2
is approximately what per cent of the total number of
employees in the company?
1) 15% 2) 18% 3) 21% 4) 24% 5) 27%
The total number of female employees in D2 is
3) Only (B) and (D)
4) Only (A), (B) and (D)
5) Only (B), (C) and (D)
147. What is India’s global ranking in the recently released
‘2014 Index of Economic Freedom’? The index is
published annually by the Heritage Foundation and
the Wall Street Journal.
1) 48th 2) 52nd 3) 79th 4) 102nd 5) 120th
148. Who among the following has been appointed the
new CEO of India’s commodity exchange MCX-SX
recently?
1) GK Pillai
2) Jignesh Shah
3) Joseph Massey
4) Saurabh Sarkar
5) None of these
149. Which of the following countries has enacted a new
law, Same Sex Marriage Prohibition Act, which
criminalises homosexual clubs, associations and
organisations with penalties up to 14 years in jail?
1) Chile
2) Uganda
3) Nigeria
4) Malaysia
5) North Korea
150. The recently published book titled This Place has been
authored by who among the following?
1) Vikram Chandra
2) Nighat M Gandhi
3) Juliet Reynolds
4) Amitabha Bagchi
5) Fatima Bhutto
151. Who among the following has won the 2013 FIFA
Player of the Year award Ballon d’Or recently?
1) Lionel Messi
2) Cristiano Ronaldo
3) Wayne Rooney
4) Arjen Robben
5) Franck Ribery
152. Which of the following software firms has announced
to set up the world’s largest corporate learning and
development centre in India? It will have a total
capacity to train 15,000 professionals at one time and
50,000 professionals annually.
1) Tech Mahindra
2) Wipro
3) Infosys
4) TCS
5) IBM
153. Name the Indian sportswoman whose silver medal at
the World Athletics Final in 2005 was recently elevated
to gold by the International Association of Athletics
Federations recently as gold winner Tatyana Kotova
was disqualified for doping.
1) Kunjarani Devi
2) Karnam Malleswari
3) Tintu Luka
4) Anju B George
5) None of these
154. The Enforcement Directorate has signed an agreement
with the Commerce Ministry for sharing of foreign
exchange realisation data ore eBRC which is expected
to increase transparency. The term BRC stands for:
1) Bank Redemption Certificate
2) Bank Realisation Certificate
3) Bank Rationalisation Certificate
4) Bank Reference Certificate
5) Bank Ratification Certificate
155. Consider the following with respect to the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI)’s decision to increase the loan-tovalue (LTV) ratio of gold loan companies:
(A) The NBFCs have been allowed to lend up to 100
per cent of the value of gold.
(B) The decision has been taken on the
recommendations of the KUB Rao committee.
(C) NBFCs will have to certify purity of gold to
determine the maximum permissible loan.
(D) Loans of `1 lakh and above must be disbursed
through cheques.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (C) and (D)
3) Only (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (B), (C) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
156. The Delhi High Court recently held that the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) can
audit the accounts of which of the following under
the relevant provisions of the law?
1) Private educational institutions
2) Private telecom operators
3) NGOs
4) MNCs
5) All the above
157. The Sakala programme, which guarantees time-bound
delivery of services to citizens by govt departments,
has won National award under outstanding
performance in citizen-centric service delivery category
recently. The scheme is running in
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) Bihar
3) Gujarat
4) Rajasthan
5) Karnataka
158. The Finance Ministry has tasked a nine-member panel
to review the framework on external commercial
borrowings (ECBs) and foreign currency convertible
bonds (FCCBs). The panel is headed by
1) Bimal Jalan
2) MS Sahoo
3) Y Venugopal Reddy
4) C Rangarajan
5) None of these
159. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(IRDA) has set up a 10-member committee to look into
having 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in
insurance intermediaries and Third Party
Administrators (TPAs). The committee will be headed
by
1) TS Vijayan
2) Usha Sangwan
3) Sushobhan Sarker
4) SK Roy
5) Suresh Mathur
160. The Nachiket Mor Committee, in its recent report, has
proposed to convert which of the following
institutions into a ‘commercial entity’?
1) NABARD
2) SIDBI
3) National Housing Bank 4) HUDCO
5) None of these
K
KUNDAN
161. The govt of India will receive a special dividend of
`16,485.71 cr for its 90 per cent stake in which of the
following Maharatna companies as approved by the
company’s board?
1) CIL
2) ONGC
3) IOC
4) GAIL
5) SAIL
162. Who among the following was the chief guest at the
65th Republic Day parade at Rajpath in Delhi?
1) Shinzo Abe (Japan)
2) Akihito and Michiko (Japan)
3) Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck (Bhutan)
4) Abdulla Yameen (Maldives)
5) None of the above
163. According to the Justice MB Shah Commission report
on illegal mining in Odisha, its good quality iron ore
reserves will last for how many years at present rate of
extraction?
1) 10 yrs 2) 20 yrs 3) 30 yrs 4) 40 yrs 5) 50 yrs
164. Michelle Bachelet was officially declared by the
Electoral Court to have won the presidential election
held in Dec, 2013 and will be sworn in on 11 Mar as the
new president of which of the following countries?
1) Chad
2) Spain
3) Chile
4) Norway
5) New Zealand
165. Banks are planning to ask the RBI to lift the cap on
borrowing under the daily Liquidity Adjustment
Facility (LAF). Currently, banks can borrow what per
cent of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) from
the LAF window?
1) 0.5% 2) 1%
3) 1.5% 4) 2%
5) 2.5%
166. Which of the following banks has agreed to pay USD
1.7 bn to victims of the convicted fraudster, Bernard
Madoff, following a settlement with US prosecutors?
The bank is accused of not maintaining an effective
anti-money laundering programme.
1) Standard Chartered
2) Citibank
3) JP Morgan
4) Bank of America
5) HSBC
167. With the successful launch of GSLV-D5 recently, India
has entered into a select group of nations which have
developed their own cryogenic rocket engine
technology. Which of the following is NOT at present
in the group?
1) US
2) Germany
3) Japan
4) China
5) Russia
168. Which of the following teams has lifted both the Men’s
(Barna Ballack Cup) and Women’s (Jayalakshmi Cup)
Team titles of the 75th Senior National Table Tennis
Championships recently in Patna?
1) West Bengal
2) Petroleum Sports Promotion Board (PSPB)
3) Airport Authority of India (AAI)
4) Railways Sports Board (RSPB)
5) None of these
169. What does the letter ‘S’ denote in the abbreviation
SUUTI, a term we often read in financial newspapers?
1) Securities
2) Specified
3) Series
4) Serious
5) None of these
170. Which of the following countries formally joined the
Euro Zone as the 18th member of the group which
uses the Euro as its currency? It has become the
European Union's fastest growing economy.
1) Albania
2) Serbia
3) Latvia
4) Slovenia
5) None of these
171. Pushpa Kapila Hingorani, who died recently, was
India’s pioneer of
1) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
2) Right to Information (RTI)
3) Right to Education (RTE)
4) Women’s education
5) None of these
172. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to
the notification issued by the govt regarding National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) set up
under the new Companies Act?
1) Its chairperson will be entitled to a fixed monthly
pay of `90,000 besides other allowances.
2) It would be the appellate body for National
Company Law Tribunal.
3) It will replace the Company Law Board.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
173. Multilateral funding agency World Bank has
announced to provide loan to construct disasterresilient houses and roads in cyclonic-disaster-hit
Uttarakhand. What is the amount of the loan?
1) USD 250 mn 2) USD 280 mn 3) USD 320 mn
4) USD 350 mn 5) USD 380 mn
174. Centre has decided to provide an additional wage
employment beyond the stipulated 100 days under
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) for Scheduled Tribe
households in forest areas. It will be for
1) 20 days
2) 30 days
3) 40 days
4) 50 days
5) None of these
175. Consider the following with respect to the RBI’s move
to introduce globally compatible unique identity codes
to entities which are parties to a financial transaction
in India as part of the G-20 mandate:
(A) The unique identity code called Legal Entity
Identifier (LEI) is a 20-character code assigned
by a local operating unit (LOU).
(B) Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL) has been
selected to act as LOU.
(C) The functioning of CCIL as a local operating unit
will not fall under the regulation and oversight of
the RBI.
Which of the above statements is NOT correct?
K
KUNDAN
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) Only (B) and (C)
176. In a move aimed at thwarting money laundering
activities, the market regulator Sebi has made which
of the following compulsory for all investments into
Collective Investment Scheme (CIS)? All investments
in CIS funds are to be made
1) through banking channels
2) in cash
3) through correspondents only
4) through registered broking agencies
5) None of these
177. The nation’s first comprehensive adolescent health
programme named ‘Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya
Karyakram (RKSK)’ was launched recently from Thane,
Maharashtra. Based on a national analysis, RKSK will
focus on six areas including:
1) sexual and reproductive health
2) nutrition
3) injuries and violence (including gender-based
violence)
4) non-communicable diseases
5) All the above
178. As part of taking banking services to rural areas, the
Centre has revised its target for opening new bank
branches which will also create an additional 55,000
new jobs in the banking sector. Now, how many new
bank branches will be opened yearly from next fiscal?
1) 5,000 2) 7,000 3) 9,000 4) 10,000 5) 12,000
179. Which of the following industrial groups has become
the first corporate in the country to disburse salaries
leveraging the Aadhaar Payment Bridge (APB) to avoid
fake data?
1) RIL
2) Adani group
3) Trident group
4) Vedanta group
5) Bharati group
180. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) reduced the refinance rates for banks and
other lending agencies by 0.20 per cent to promote
rural credit and rural infrastructure. What is the new
rate for refinance effective from 7 Jan, 2014?
1) 9.10 per cent
2) 9.30 per cent
3) 9.50 per cent
4) 9.70 per cent
5) 9.90 per cent
182. A repair for a known software bug, usually available
at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)
1) Version
2) Patch
3) Tutorial
4) FAQ
5) None of these
183. The property that when classes are arranged in a
hierarchy, each class assumes the attributes and
methods of its ancestors is called
1) generalisation
2) inheritance
3) encapsulation
4) information hiding
5) None of these
184. All of the following are examples of real security and
privacy risks except
1) Hackers
2) Spam
3) Viruses
4) Identity theft
5) None of these
185. If you wish to extend the length of the network without
having the signal degrade, you would use a
1) repeater
2) router
3) gateway
4) switch
5) None of these
186. Which of the following is used to move down a page
in a document?
1) Jump
2) Fly
3) Wriggle
4) Scroll
5) None of these
187. ________ is the process of carrying out commands.
1) Fetching
2) Storing
3) Decoding
4) Coding
5) Executing
188. Which of the following types of viruses are often
transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive?
1) Trojan horse 2) Boot sector
3) Script
4) Logic bomb 5) Worm
189. The binary language consists of________digit(s).
1) 8
2) 2
3) 1,000
4) 1
5) None of these
190. Which of the following is not the basic principle of
networks?
1) Each computer must have a network card.
2) There must be communication media connecting
the network and hardware devices.
3) There must be at least one connecting device.
4) Each computer must have software that supports
the movement of information.
5) None of these
191. For deleting data permanently, we use
1) Delete
2) Shift + Alt + Delete
3) Shift + Delete
4) Erase
5) All the above
192. Integrated circuits are made up of
1) Si
2) Al
3) Mn
4) Mg
5) All the above
193. Whas is the full form of “XP” in Windows XP?
1) XTRA Power
2) XTREME Programming
3) XTRA Process
4) XTREME Power
K
KUNDAN
Test-V: Computer Knowledge
181. The main job of a CPU is to
1) carry out program instructions.
2) store data/information for future use.
3) process data and information.
4) Both 1) and 3)
5) None of these
5) None of these
194. Which key is used to send a digital signature?
1) Public key
2) Private key
3) Digital key
4) Keypad
5) None of these
195. The first computer made available for commercial use
was
1) Mark-I
2) ENIAC
3) UNIVAC
4) EDSAC
5) EDVAC
196. EPROM consists of
1) bipolar transistors
2) Diodes
3) ETL
4) MOSFETs
5) None of these
197. ________ is not an Internet connection.
1) Broadband
2) WWAN
3) DSL
4) WLAN
5) Dial-up
198. The output quality of a printer is measured by
1) dots per sq inch
2) dots per inch
3) dots printed per unit
4) dots printed per line
5) Both 1) and 2)
199. IEEE ________ standard is used for wireless LAN.
1) 802.12
2) 802.13
3) 802.15
4) 802.11
5) 802.10
200. DNS is extremely important for the correct functioning
of the Internet. To do so, it
1) encrypts data
2) maps symbolic names for machines onto their IP
address
3) translates message into machine language
4) All the above
5) None of these
K
KUNDAN
Answers
E@V¥N%R£T
Option 3)
(1-6):
Thus, we can’t compare Q and T. Hence,
does not follow.
Hence, E is grandfather of T.
Option 4)
17. 1;
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5; U and S
6. 2
7. 2; Some papers are pencils (I) + No pencil
is a pen (E) = I + E = O = Some papers are
not pens. Now, No paper is a bottle
conversion
No bottle is a paper (E) +
Some papers are not pens (O) = E + O = No
conclusion. Hence, conclusion I does not
follow.
Again, No pencil is a pen
conversion
No pen is a pencil. Hence, conclusion II
follows.
8. 4; Some papers are pencils
conversion
Some pencils are papers. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow.
Again, Some papers are pencils (I) + No
pencil is a pen (E) = I + E = Some papers are
not pens. Hence, conclusion II does not
follow.
9. 2; No cup is a wire (E) + All wires are bulbs
(A) = E + A = O* = Some bulbs are not cups.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, All stickers are cups (A) + No cup is a
wire (E) = A + E = E = No sticker is a wire.
Hence, conclusion II follows.
10. 1; No sticker is a wire (E) + All wires are
bulbs (A) = E + A = O* = Some bulbs are not
stickers. Hence conclusion I follows, but
conclusion II does not follow.
11. 4; All bowls are spoons (A) + No spoon is
a plate (E) = A + E = E = No bowl is a plate.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, Some glasses are bowls (I) + All bowls
are spoons (A) = I + A = I = Some glasses are
spoons. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
12. 5; Check options one by one
Hence, K is sister-in-law of A.
This leads us to Q < T is true and L T is
true. Hence, does not follow.
13. 2;
Given expression: R < E = A M > N
Thus, A > N is true, and R < A is true.
Again, E > N or N < E is true.
Hence, options 1), 3) and 4) do not follow.
But, option 2) is false and hence follows.
14. 1; Check options one by one:
1) H < A > B C = J < L
This leads us to B J being true. C < L or L
> C is true. And A > J or J < A is true. Hence,
option 1) follows.
2) H < A < B C = J > L
This leads us to B J, being true. But C > L or
L < C is true. Also, we can’t compare A and J.
Hence, 2) does not follow.
3) H < A = B < C = J L
This leads to B < J being true. But (B J)
does not follow.
Again, C L is true. But (L > C) does not
follow. And A < J. Hence (J < A) does not
follow.
4) H < A < B C = J < L
This leads us to A < J or J > A. But (J < A) does
not follow. Again, B J does not follow.
15. 3;
Given expression: Z Y > L = W N > F
Thus, Z > W. Hence, (Z W) does not follow.
Again, L N is true. So, (L = N) may be true.
Again, Z > F or F < Z is definitely true.
Hence, follows. But Y > W is true but
(Y = W) does not follow.
16. 3;
By putting ¥ in place of question mark we
get
18. 1; Option 1)
Thus, N is sister of R. Hence option 1)
follows.
Option 2)
K
KUNDAN
Hence, option 2) does not follow.
Option 3)
Hence, option 3) does not follow.
Option 4)
Hence, option 4) does not follow.
19. 3;
20. 2;
Thus, W is uncle of P. Hence, option 2) is
true.
Option 1)
(21-25):
Bank
Thus, we can’t compare Q and T.
But L < T is true. Hence, does not follow.
Option 2)
Thus, Q > T or T < Q is true. But L > T is
true. Hence, does not follow.
Person
P(+)
A(+)
L(–)
N(–)
Q(+)
G(+)
R(+)
S(–)
City
Dena
Indian
BOB BOI
UBI OBC
Bank
Bank
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
Corp
Bank
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
UCO Delhi Patna Ranchi Kanpur Gur Gha Jaipur Noida
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
S um m ar y
Person
Bank
Place
P(+)
Indian Bank
Ghaziabad
R(+)
Corporation Bank
Patna
G(+)
OBC
Noida
L(–)
Dena Bank
Jaipur
A(+)
BOB
Delhi
N(–)
UBI
Ranchi
Q(+)
BOI
Gurgaon
S(–)
UCO
Kanpur
21. 3 22. 2
23. 4
24. 1 25. 3
26. 4
(27-31):
The machine arranges the words and the
numbers in each step. As for words, the words
are arranged in alphabetical order from left
to right and the numbers are arranged in
descending order from right to left. However,
after arranging all the numbers the digit-sums
of numbers are squared in the last step.
Input: water 13 ferry 15 place 16 boat 22
market 18 verb 12
Step I: boat water 13 ferry 15 place 16
market 18 verb 12 22
Step II: boat ferry water 13 15 place 16
market verb 12 18 22
Step III: boat ferry market water 13 15 place
verb 12 16 18 22
Step IV: boat ferry market place water 13
verb 12 15 16 18 22
Step V: boat ferry market place verb water
12 13 15 16 18 22
Step VI: boat ferry market place verb water
9 16 36 49 81 16
Step VI is the last step of the above input
27. 4
28. 1
29. 3
30. 4
31. 4
32. 4;
35. 3; Northeast
36. 2;
EF = DE = 2 km
Now, AF =
( AE) 2
AE = BE = CD = 1 km
( EF) 2
12 2 2 = 5 km
37. 5; From I. D is a female
=
From II.
Hence, both the statements are sufficient to
answer the question.
38. 5; From I and II.
Then, Manish is facing north.
39. 3; From I.
46. 1; Look at the way the author has compared to the referendum sought by AAP while
forming government. The author assumes
that it is wrong to seek referendum in one
crucial matter and not do so in another crucial matter that affects one and all.
47. 4; (A) takes the argument more in favour
of FDI. Similarly, (D) also helps clinching
the argument in favour of the author and
taking it away from AAP.
48. 1; The benefits have been clearly enumerated in (A).
49. 5; If the government of India’s decision
was taken at the behest of foreign powers,
then clearly there is a need for rethink.
50. 4; We can’t go for (C) because it loses
sight of the core issue involved in the paragraph.
51. 2
52. 5
53. 3
54. 2
55. 3
56. 5
57. 1
58. 3
59. 4
60. 3
61. 2
62. 5
63. 4
64. 5
65. 5
66. 4
67. 2
68. 1
69. 3
70. 3
71. 5
72. 3
73. 1
74. 4
75. 2
(76-80): CBEFDA
76. 4
77. 2
78. 5
79. 3
80. 1
81. 4
82. 2
83. 5
84. 3
85. 1
86. 4
87. 2
88. 1
89. 3
90. 5
K
KUNDAN
R’s rank from the top is (4 + 6 =) 10th.
From the bottom the rank of R is (30 – 10 +
1) = 21st.
From II. The rank of R from the bottom is
4 + 17 + 1 = 22nd. Hence, either statement
I or II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
40. 2; From I.
From II.
33. 4; Given Word: SUBSTANCE
After rearrangeing the given word, it becomes
TANCSUBSE
Now, Second from the right is S.
Third from the left is N.
There are four letter been N and S in the
English alphabetical series, ie O, P, Q and R.
34. 1;
Similarly,
(35-36):
Let A be the man’s home and F the market.
Hence, statement II is sufficient to answer
the question.
41. 3; A law that combats traffic in human
beings will rather prevent abuse of domestic
workers.
42. 3; Since conventional lenders have become increasingly reluctant, borrowers have
to resort to pledging their property in order
to borrow money.
43. 3; Debt-oriented hybrid funds offer a sort
of compromise formula. You may enjoy the
benefits of stock markets but at the same
time have some cushion as well.
44. 3; Although B is also correct, it is not a
course of action.
45. 1; If history repeats itself, privacy policies may go for a six.
91. 5; ? =
0.2304 0.012
= 0.48 ÷ 0.012 = 40
92. 2; (?)3 – 100 = 18 × 1.8 × 7.5 = 243
or, (?)3 = 243 + 100 = 343 = (7)3
?=7
20 40
? = 439.6
93. 3;
100 100
43960 100
5495
or, ? =
20 40
325992
94. 4; ? =
= 47
578 12
42 56
95. 2; ? =
= 147
16
or, ? = (147)2 = 21609
96. 4; The series is +33, +53 , +73, +93, ...
97. 1; The series is +28 2 – 1, +26 2 – 1,
+242 – 1, ...
98. 5; The series is ×3 – 4, ×3 – 8, ×3 – 12,
×3 – 16, ...
99. 3; The series is 28 × 1 + 5 = 33,
33 × 3 + 10 = 109, 109 × 5 + 15 = 560,
560 × 7 + 20 = 3940, 3940 × 9 + 25
= 35485, ...
100. 4; The series is 16 × 4 + 1.5 = 65.5,
65.5 × 4 + 2.5 = 264.5, 264.5 × 4 + 3.5
= 1061.5, 1061.5 × 4 + 4.5 = 4250.5, 4250.5
× 4 + 5.5 = 17007.5, ...
101. 3; CI = (48750 × 1.12 × 1.12 × 1.06) –
48750 = 64821.12 – 48750 = `16071.12
102. 2; Let the cost price be `x.
130
Marked price = x
100
130 85
x
SP =
100 100
130 85
= 1038.70
100 100
x = `940
Now, x
103. 2; Let the sum be `x.
16
8
x 12
x 18
12 –
12 = 266
100
100
or, 16x – 12x = 26600
26600
x=
= `6650
4
or, 20u + 28v = 7
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
v=
y = 4, x = 14
Speed of man in still water =
104. 3; (A + B + C)’s one day’s work =
And (A + B)’s one day’s work =
1
1
and u =
14
4
... (ii)
1
12
= 9 kmph
109. 3; Let the speed of the train be x kmph.
1
30
Speed of the bus =
C’s one day’s work
1
1
5–2
1
–
=
=
=
12 30
60
20
C alone can finish the work in 20 days.
105. 2; Let the daily earning of a man and
that of a woman be `x and `y respectively.
3390
Then, 8x + 5y =
= 565
... (i)
6
3600
Again, 5x + 7y =
= 450
... (ii)
8
Solving equation (i) and (ii), we have
eqn (i) × 5 – eqn (ii) × 8
40 x 25y 2825
– 40 x 56 y 3600
– 31y –775
y = `25, x = `55
Now, daily earning of 7 men and 8 women
together = 7x + 8y = 7 × 55 + 8 × 25
= 385 + 200 = `585
 `585 is earned by 7 men and 8 women in
one day.
`6435 is earned by 7 men and 8 women
1
6435 = 11 days
in
585
Hence, number of days = 11
106. 1; Total number of letters in the word
COLLECTION is 10.
So, the number of arrangements = 10!
Here L, C and O each occurs twice.
10!
Number of ways =
2!2!2!
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
= 453600
1 2 1 2
107. 1; Total number of balls in the box = 3
+3+3=9
9 8
Number of sample space n(S) = 9 C 2 =
2
= 36
4 14
2
speed of the bike =
Then,
120
x
5
600 480
x
x
1800
15
or,
x
x = 120
or,
480
x
x
kmph the and the
5
3x
kmph
5
432
3x
5
15
720
15
x
113. 1; I.
x2 = 3 1331 = 11
x=
11 = 3.316
2y2 – 21y + 55 = 0
2y2 – 10y – 11y + 55 = 0
2y(y – 5) – 11(y – 5) = 0
(2y – 11) (y – 5) = 0
11
y = 5,
Hence, x < y
2
114. 2; I. 5x – 7y = 21
II. 11x + 4y = –109
Solving eqn (i) × 11 – eqn (ii) × 5
55x – 77 y 231
II.
or,
or,
or,
– 55x 20 y 545
– 97 y 776
y = –8 and from this x = –7
Hence, x > y
115. 3; I. 2x2 – 8x – 3x + 12 = 0
or, 2x(x – 4) – 3(x – 4) = 0
or, (2x – 3) (x – 4) = 0
3
x=
,4
2
II. 2y2 – 8y – 9y + 36 = 0
or, 2y(y – 4) – 9(y – 4) = 0
or, (2y – 9) (y – 4) = 0
9
y = 4,
Hence, x
2
116. 2;
K
KUNDAN
n(E) = 3 C 2 3 C2 3 C2 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
n (E )
9
1
P(E) = n (S) =
=
36
4
108. 3; Let the downstrem speed be x kmph
and upstream speed be y kmph.
28 70
14 35
Then, y
or, y
x = 12
x =6
1
1
v
Let y u and
x
Now, 14u + 35v = 6
40 56
20 28
14 ,
y
x
y
x
... (i)
7
3x
3 120
=
= 72 kmph
5
5
110. 4; Let the present age of son and father
be x years and y years respectively.
x 2
Then, y 7
or, 7x = 2y
... (i)
x 12
4
Again, after 12 years, y 12 =
9
or, 9x + 108 = 4y + 48
or, 9x – 4y = –60
... (ii)
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
x = 12 years, y = 42 years
111. 2; I. 6x2 – 49x + 99 = 0
or, 6x2 – 27x – 22x + 99 = 0
or, 3x(2x – 9) – 11(2x – 9) = 0
or, (3x – 11) (2x – 9) = 0
11 9
x=
,
3 2
II. 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
or, 5y2 + 10y + 7y + 14 = 0
or, 5y(y + 2) + 7(y + 2) = 0
or, (5y + 7) (y + 2) = 0
7
y = –2, –
5
Hence, x > y
112. 4; I. 5x2 – 19x + 12 = 0
or, 5x2 – 15x – 4x + 12 = 0
or, 5x(x – 3) – 4(x – 3) = 0
or, (5x – 4) (x – 3) = 0
4
x = 3,
5
II. 5y2 + 11y – 12 = 0
or, 5y2 + 15y – 4y – 12 = 0
or, 5y(y + 3) – 4(y + 3) = 0
or, (5y – 4) (y + 3) = 0
4
y=
, –3
5
Hence, x y
Speed of bike =
y
Area of inside path RSPQ = 2{(60 × 3) + (42
× 3)} = 2(180 + 126) = 612 sq m
Area of outside path LMNO
= 2{(66 × 3) + (48 × 3)} = 2{198 + 144}
= 2 × 342 = 684 sq m
Total area of the path = 612 + 684
= 1296 sq m
Cost of carpeting = 1296 × 7 = `9072
900 700
117. 1; Number of tiles =
= 8750
9 8
118. 2; Area of four walls = 2 × 5 × (12 + 8)
= 200 sq m
Area of doors = 2 × 2.5 × 1 = 5 sq m
Area of windows = 2 × 1.5 × 1 = 3 sq m
Effective area = 200 – 8 = 192 sq m
Cost of painting = 192 × 13.5 = `2592
119. 4; Volume of cylinder = Volume of cone
1
Then, × (4.5)2 × 11 =
× × (4.5)2 × h
3
or, h = 11 × 3 = 33 cm
1
120. 2; Volume of the wall = 28 × 8 ×
2
= 112 m3
Volume of a brick
20 10
7
7
m3
=
100 100 100 5000
Reqd number of bricks
=
112
7
5000
112 5000
7
80000
Cost of making the wall = 80000 × 3 =
`240000
= `2.4 lakh
121. 2; Population of City A at the beginning
110 115
of the year 2011 = 12
= 15.18 lakh
100 100
122. 4; Population of City A at the end of
110 115 105
2011 = 12
= 15.939 lakh
100 100 100
Population of City B at the end of 2011
120 125 105
= 16.5 lakh
100 100 100
Difference = 16.5 – 15.939 = 0.561 lakh
= 56100
= 10
110
100 12 11 11
123. 4; Ratio =
120 10 12 10
10
100
= 11 : 10
124. 3; Population of City B at the end of
12
120 125 110 105 110
2013 = 10 ×
100 100 100 100 100
= 19.0575 lakh
125. 5; Population of City B at the end of
the year = 10 × 1.20 × 1.25 × 1.1 = 16.5 lakh
Population of City A at the beginning of the
year 2009 = 12 lakh
16.5
100 = 137.5%
Reqd % =
12
126. 4; Total sold items of Company A
18
72
= 550000 ×
×
= 71280
100
100
127. 5; Difference
15
80
9
84
= 550000(
×
–
×
)
100
100
100
100
= 55(1200 – 756) = 55 × 444 = 24420
128. 1; Total sale = 55(18 × 72 + 15 × 80 +
9 × 84 + 23 × 65 + 14 × 70 + 21 × 75)
= 55(1296 + 1200 + 756 + 1495 + 980 +
1575) = 55 × 7302 = 401610
Total number of unsold items of Company E
14 30
= 550000 ×
= 23100
100 100
(136-140):
Total = 2400
M:F=7:5
Male = 1400, Female = 1000
165
5
=
=5:7
231
7
130. 3; Total number of unsold items of
Company F = 55(21 × 25) = 28875
Total number of sold items of Company B
= 55(15 × 80) = 66000
Ratio =
28875
× 100 = 43.75%
66000
131. 3; Total number of female readers of
newspaper B in the year 2012
Reqd % =
136. 3
137. 5; D3 (Female) = 220
And D1 (Male) = 378
Reqd % =
54
= 44000 ×
= 23760
100
(57 – 43)
132. 2; Difference = 56000 ×
100
= 560 × 14 = 7840
133. 1; Reqd ratio
220
100 = 58.2%
378
138. 2; Ratio =
139. 4; D3 (Male)
378 3
=3:4
504 4
= 518
D2 (Female) = 360
518
100 = 143.88
360
K
KUNDAN
401610
= 66935
6
129. 5; Total number of unsold items of
15 20
Company B = 550000 ×
= 16500
100 100
Average =
55
100
=
56
45000
100
48000
48 55
45 56 = 66 : 63 = 22 : 21
134. 4; Average number of male readers of
1000
(42 × 49 + 64 × 55 +
5 100
54 × 52 + 44 × 46 + 45 × 44)
= 2 × (2058 + 3520 + 2808 + 2024 + 1980)
= 2 × 12390 = 24780
135. 2; Total number of male readers of
newspaper A in the year 2010
newspaper B =
37
= 22200
100
Total number of male readers of newspaper
B in the year 2010
= 60000 ×
= 64000 ×
55
= 35200
100
Reqd % =
22200
100 = 63.068
35200
63%
Reqd % =
140. 3; Reqd % =
144%
504
100 21%
2400
143. 5 144. 4 145.
148. 4 149. 3 150.
153. 4 154. 2 155.
158. 2 159. 5 160.
163. 3 164. 3 165.
168. 2 169. 2 170.
173. 1 174. 4 175.
178. 4 179. 3 180.
183. 2 184. 2 185.
188. 2 189. 2 190.
141. 3 142. 3
3
146. 4 147. 5
4
151. 2 152. 4
4
156. 2 157. 5
1
161. 1 162. 1
1
166. 3 167. 2
3
171. 1 172. 4
3
176. 1 177. 5
4
181. 4 182. 2
1
186. 4 187. 5
2
191. 3 192. 1
193. 5; The letters “XP” stand for
“eXPerience”, meaning the operating system
was meant to be a new type of user
experience.
194. 2; Private key is used, because it is known
to user only.
195. 3 196. 4 197. 2 198. 1 199. 4
200. 2; DNS (Domain Name System) acts as
a resolutor which maps names onto IP address and vice versa.