to - La Excellence IAS
Transcription
to - La Excellence IAS
GENERAL SCIENCE 11. BIOLOGY 1. 2. 3. 4. 1995 Which one of the following sets is correctly matched ? (a) Diptheria, Pneumonia and Leprosy : Hereditary (b) AIDS, Syphilis and Gonorrhoea : Bacterial (c) Colour blindness, Haemophilia and Sickle cell anaemia : Sex linked (d) Polio, Japanese Bencephalitis and plague : Viral Ans. (c) Explanation: Sex linked (hereditary) diseases : Colour blindness, Haemophilia and Sickle cell anaemia. Bacterial diseases : Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Leprosy, Syphilis, Gonorrhoea and Plague. Viral diseases : AIDS (HIV virus), Polio and Japanese B encephalitis. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the (a) lack of the antigen in his blood (b) lack of antibodies in his blood (c) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood (d) presence of antibodies in his blood Ans. (b) Explanation: Blood type Genotypes Antigens Antibodies A AA, AI A anti-B B BB, BI B anti-A AB AB A, B none O ii None anti-A, anti-B A person with 'AB' blood group is called an universal recipient because of the 'lack of antibodies' in his blood which enables him to take blood from donors of any group of ABO system viz., AB, A, B and O. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation ? (a) Amnion (b) Allantois (c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac Ans. (a) Explanation: Amnion protects the developing embryo from desiccation and mechanical injury by enveloping the embryo and is filled with watery fluid. Allantois serves as a respiratory organ and as a reservoir of excreta. Yolk sac surrounds yolk and provides nutrients to embryo. Chorion : outermost membrane serves as exchange between embryo and environment. It helps in respiration, nutrition, excretion etc. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy ? (a) Isoniazid (d) P-aminosalicyclic acid (c) Streptomycin (d) Rifampicin Ans. (d) Explanation: Rifampicin an antimicrobial drug is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy. 1 5. The only snake that builds a nest is (a) Chain viper (b) King Cobra (c) Krait (d) Saw-scaled viper Ans. (b) Explanation: King Cobra is the only snake that builds a nest made of leaves and branches and guards it until the eggs hatch. It is the largest poisonous snake in the world and is ophiophagous (feeds on snakes). 6. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is (a) 280 (b) 290 (c) 300 (d) 310 Ans. (d) Explanation: Normal temperature of human body on : kelvin scale : 310°K, Celsius scale : 37°C, Fahrenheit scale : 98-6°C 7. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because (a) their blooming is controlled by low temperature (b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon (c) the desert insect eat away flowers during day time (d) the desert insects are active during night time Ans. (d) Explanation : Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because, the desert insects are active during night time which helps in pollination. 8. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease (a) leaf blight (b) leaf spot (c) leaf rust (d) rot Ans. (c) Explanation: Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease 'Leaf rust' caused by Hemileia vastatrix. 9. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins ? 1. Carbon 2. Hydrogen 3. Oxygen 4. Nitrogen (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: All the given elements viz. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen are constituents of proteins. 10. Which one of the following hormones contains iodine ? (a) Thyroxine (b) Testosterone (c) Insulin (d) Adrenaline Ans. (a) Explanation: 'Thyroxine' hormone released by 'Thyroid glands'. The deficiency of 'iodine' causes 'Goitre' disease by the enlargement of Thyroid glands. Thyroxine contains iodinated amino acid (tyrosine). 11. wBy weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular vies of the world .... He touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent against cancer.’5 One of science’s major figures of all time referred to above is (a) G.N. Lewis (b) Linus Carl Pauling (c) Fritz London (d) Walter Heitle 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: 'Linus Car! Pauling' is the scientist who touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent against cancer. 12. “It begins as a single cel! and grows into a merciless disease that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have reached a dramatic turning point. New discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war against” .... The disease referred to in the above quotation is (a) Cancer (b) AIDS (c) Tuberculosis (d)Alzheimer’s disease Ans. (a) Explanation: Cancer of oral cavity in both men and women and of cervix in women are the most common malignancies. Breast cancer incidence is also very high. Surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy are the main modalities of treatment for cancer. 1996 13. Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which one was the first to take place? (a) Organ transplant (b) Bypass Surgery (c) Test tube baby (d) Plastic surgery Ans. (d) Explanation: Plastic Surgery. It is one of the ancient surgical techniques also especially plastic surgery, in ancient India, was developed far beyond anything known elsewhere at the time. In this respect Indian surgery remained ahead of European until the 18th century, when the Surgeons of East India Company learned the art of rhinoplasty from the Indians. Remaining three surgical techniques are of recent origin. 14. According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which causes the death of the largest number of people today is : (a) AIDS (b) Tuberculosis (c) Malaria (d) Ebola Ans. (b) Explanation: According to World Health Organisation's report in 1996, Tuberculosis causes the death of the largest number of people today. T.B. is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterum tuberculosis. India accounts for about 33% of the global burden of tuberculosis. Every year, nearly 20 lakh people develop T.B. in India, nearly 1 million of them highly infectious sputum-positive cases. Two such cases develop every minute. 15. The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is (a) Scurvy (b) Rickets (c) Xerophthalmia (d) Pellagra Ans. (b) Explanation: 'Rickets' caused by the deficiency of Vitamin D in the children needs to be given top priority today. Deficiency of Vit D causes increased loss of Ca + + in urine, therefore, no Ca++ gets deposited in the bone. 3 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Scurvy, Xerophthalmia and Pellagra are due to the deficiencies of Vitamin C, Vit A and Niacin/Nicotinic acid/Vitamin B5 respectively. Living organisms require at least 27 elements of which 15 are metals. Among these, those required in major quantities include (a) potassium, manganese, molybdenum and calcium (b) potassium, molybdenum, copper and calcium (c) potassium, sodium, magnesium and calcium (d) sodium, magnesium, copper andmanganese Ans. (c) Explanation: Minerals required in macroquantities are Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium, Sodium, Chlorine, Sulphur and Magnesium. Micro nutrients or trace elements which are required in smaller quantities : Iron, Manganese, Zinc, Copper, Iodine, Cobalt, Molybdenum, Selenium, Chromium and Silicon. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Vitamin 1. Pepsin B. Enzyme 2. Carotene C. Hormone 3. Keratin D. Protein 4. Progesterone A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 4 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-l, C- 4, D-3 The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness etc. is (a) ethyl alcohol (b) amyl alcohol (c) benzyl alcohol (d) methyl alcohol Ans. (d) Explanation: Methyl alcohol (CH3OH) causes blindness and in extreme cases even leads to death. Biologists have so far known, found and identified a large number of species in the plant and animal kingdom. In terms of numbers, the largest found and identified so far is from among the (a) fungi (b) plants (c) insects (d) bacteria Ans. (c) Explanation : Class 'Insecta' of the animal kingdom, with 7,50,000 species reported, is the largest single group in both plant and animal kingdom. It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by (a) applying trace elements in tomato fields (b) spraying mineral solution on plants (c) spraying hormones on flowers (d) applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements Ans. (c) Explanation: 4 21. 22. 23. 24. By spraying hormones like Gibberellic Acid (GA), NAA, IAA etc. on flowers induces parthenocarpy (development of fruits without fertilization) which leads to the production of seedless tomato fruits. Which of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus, a common disease in adults? 1. Higher sugar level in blood 2. Lower sugar level in blood 3. Lower insulin level in blood 4. Higher insulin level in blood Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone. It enhances the utilization of glucose. It helps conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver and the skeletal muscles. So it lowers the sugar levels in the blood. Insulin deficiency causes 'Diabetes Mellitus' in which glucose is not utilized in a normal way. Glycogenesis is considerably reduced. This elevates the sugar levels in the blood and it passes outside through urine. This condition leads to serious disorders in the carbohydrate metabolism. Consider the following statements: AIDS is transmitted 1. by sexual intercourse 2. by blood transfusion 3. by mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects 4. across the placenta Of these statements : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct Ans. (b) Explanation: Mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects cannot transmit AIDS because the HIV causing AIDS does not replicate inside mosquito, bed bug, flea or other blood sucking insects and the lack of replication of HIV in arthropod cells is due to lack of T4 antigen on cell surface. Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’ ? 1. Ovemutrition 2. Undemutrition 3. Imbalanced nutrition Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 2 alone (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: Malnutrition results from imbalance between body's needs and the intake of nutients, which can lead to syndromes deficiency, dependency, toxicity or obesity. Ovemutrition, undemutrition and imbalanced nutrition are three forms of malnutrition. Protein Energy malnutrition (PEM) leads to two types of diseases viz., marasmus and kwashiorkar. 'Marasmus' is a type of PEM caused by simultaneous deficiency of protein and total food calories; whereas 'kwashiorkar' is caused by severe protein deficiency. People drinking water from a shallow handpump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases except (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid (c) Jaundice (d) Fluorosis Ans. (d) 5 25. 26. 27. 28. Explanation: Water from the deeper layers of the earth, is likely to have excess amounts of fluoride content whereas water from a shallow hand pump is likely to be contaminated with disease causing bacteria and virus. Fluorosis is caused due to intake of excess amount of fluoride in drinking water. It leads to mottled teeth, stiffened brittle bone and joints. Cholera is an acute intestinal infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio choterae and is spread by contaminated food and water. Typhoid fever is contracted when people eat and drink water that has been infected with Salmonella typhi. Polluted water is the most common source of typhoid. Jaundice/Hepatitis is spread mostly by food and water contaminated with hepatitis virus. Yellowing of the skin and ’eyes occurs due to excessive bilirubins in the blood. Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include (a) calcium, potassium and iron (b) calcium and potassium (c) potassium and iron (d) calcium and iron Ans. (a) Explanation: Milk contains majority of the essential minerals and nutrients except Vitamin C that is why it is considered as "Complete food". Water 95% Carbohydrate Mainly Lactose Proteins 3-4%, mainly caesin Fats 3-5-6% Vitamin A, D, E, K, B^ B2, B6, B12 Minerals Potassium, Calcium, Chloride, Phosphorus, Sodium, Sulphur, Magnesium and Iron Match List I (Physiological processes) with List II (Cell organelles) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Photosynthesis 1. Plasma membrane B. Mineral uptake 2. Chloroplast C. Respiration 3. Mitochondria D. Protein synthesis 4. Ribosomes A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (c) Explanation : A-2, B-l, C- 3, D-4 Which one of the following is a modified stem? (a) Carrot (b) Sweet potato (c) Coconut (d) Potato Ans. (d) Explanation: Potato : Modified stem called stem tuber which stores the food material. Carrot and sweet potato are modified roots while coconut is a drupe-Fleshy indehiscent fruit filled with endosperm. Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier against 6 (a) loss of heat from the body (b) loss of essential body fluids (c) loss of salts from the body (d) entry of harmful micro organisms from the environment Ans. (a) Explanation: Fat present below the skin surface acts as an insulator thus preventing exchange of heat from surrounding. 'Blubber' a thick fat layer underneath the skin of 'whales' helps as 'thermoregulator'. 29. Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA ? 1. Researchers using Carbon-14 isotope 2. X-ray technician 3. Coal miner 4. Dyer and painter Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 2 alone (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: X-rays can damage the cell and tissues and finally cause mutation, even excesive dose burns the cell and leads to cancer. Researchers using C-14 isotopes and coal miners too expose to the radiations released in less concentrations continuously will lead to mutation in their cell's DNA. 30. Which one of the following is not an essential mironutrient for plants ? (a) Boron (b) Zinc (c) Sodium (d) Copper Ans. (c) Explanation: Micro nutrients or trace elements are essential mineral elements which are required in small quantities for plant growth and development. They are Fe, Mn, B, Cu, Zn, Mo and Cl. Recently 'Nickel (Ni)' added to the list of micronutrients. Sodium (Na) is not an essential nutrient as it is not required in all the plants for their growth and development except in halophytes. 1997 31. The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the following endocrine glands can function independent of the pituitary gland ? (a) Thyroid (b) Gonads (c) Adrenals (d) Parathyroid Ans. (d) Explanation: Pituitary gland controls the secretary activity of Thyroid, Adrenals, Gonads and many other glands by secreting tropic hormones (Hormones which control release of other hormones). The 'parathyroid gland' controlled by the 'calcium levels' of the blood. That's why it can function independent of the Pituitary gland. 32. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through 1. Blood 2. Lungs 3. Tissue The correct sequence of transportation is (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2 (c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 1, 3, 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place in the sequence of Lungs > Blood -> Tissue. 33. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to 7 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. (a) a chloro compound (b) a sulphur compound (c) a fluorine compound (d) acetic acid Ans. (b) Explanation: Characteristic odour of Onion and Garlic is due to sulphur compounds Allyl propyl disulphide and Diallyl disulphide respectively. Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove ? (a) Menthol (b) Eugenol (c) Menthanol (d) Benzaldehyde Ans. (b) Explanation: Eugenol is the active component of oil of clove. Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highest concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem? (a) Grasshopper (b) Toad (c) Snake (d) Cattle Ans. (c) Explanation: The increased levels of DDT's concentration from one trophic level to other in the food chain is called Biomagnification. 'Snakes' shows the highest concentration of DDT because they are tertiary consumers. Grasshoppers and Cattle occur in the same trophic level as primary consumers, so DDT's concentration is least. Toad is secondary consumer and shows medium concentration of DDT. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War ? (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Hydrogen cyanide (c) Mustard gas (d) Water gas Arts. (c) Explanation: Mustard gas was first chemical weapon used in First World War by Germany at the battle of Ypres (Belgium). Alpha-keratin is a protein present in (a) blood (b) skin (c) wool (d) eggs Ans. (c) Explanation: Alpha-keratin, a secondary structural protein is present in 'wool and hair' while Beta-keratin in 'nail and hoof'. What is the average fat content of buffalo milk? (a) 7.2 % (b) 4.5 % (c) 9.0 % (d) 10.0% Ans. (a) Explanation: Average fat contents : Buffalo's milk 7.8% Cow's milk 4.2% Goats milk 3.5% Human milk 3.8% Which one of the following techniques can be used to establish the paternity of a child ? (a) Protein analysis (b) Chromosome counting (c) Quantitative analysis of DNA (d) DNA finger printing Ans. (d) 8 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. Explanation: DNA finger printing technique is used to establish the paternity of a child, criminal identification in murder and rape cases etc. DNA finger printing is a genetic diagnostic testing also known as 'DNA typing' in which specific repeatable sequences of DNA bases (mini satellites) are identified, analysed and imaged using synthetically prepared artificial radioactive probes. The major component of honey is (a) glucose (b) sucrose (c) maltose (d) fructose Ans. (d) Explanation: Fructose or Levulose (38.19%), the sweetest sugar, is the major component of honey. Dextrose (21.28%), Maltose (8.81%), Pigment (2.21%), Ash (1%), Water (7-.2%) are the other constituents of honey. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called (a) carotid arteries (b) hepatic arteries (c) coronary arteries (d) pulmonary arteries Ans. (c) Explanation: A pair of coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. Failing of the functioning of these arteries ‘causes a situation called heart failure, and requires bi-pass sur gery. Right and left pulmonary arteries carry de-oxygenated blood to right and left lungs, (pulmonary - lung related) Recommended daily intake of proteins for a moderately active women is (a) 30 g (b) 37 g (c) 40 g (d) 46 g Ans. (d) Explanation: Recommended daily intake of proteins for : Moderately active women : 50 g Pregnant women : 65 g Lactating women : 75 g Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Malaria 1. Bone marrow B. Filaria 2. Brain C. Encephalitis 3. Muscle D. Leukamia 4. Lymph node 5. Blood cells A B C D A B C D (a) 5 3 2 1 (b) 5 4 2 1 (c) 4 3 5 1 (d) 5 4 1 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-5, B-4, C-2, D—1 Antigen is a substance which (a) lowers body temperature (b) destroys harmful bacteria (c) triggers the immune system (d) is used as an antidote to poison Ans. (c) Explanation: 9 Antigen is a proteinous substance which, when introduced into the tissue stimulates antibody production (immune system). It may be living or non living in nature. For ex. : Bacteria or virus that enters into our body either naturally or artificially acts as antigen and stimulates antibody production. 1998 45. Examine the following three statements: 1. Processed meat is a perishable food. 2. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins. 3. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? (a) Sealed tins always contain perishable food (b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins. (c) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins. (d) Non-perishable foods are never packed in sealed tins. Ans. (c) Explanation: Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins as it is perishable and all perishable foods are packed in sealed tins. 46. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains (a) polyunsaturated fatty acids (b) saturated fatty acids (c) essential vitamins (d) more carbohydrates and proteins Ans. (a) Explanation: Fish contains high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids and low levels of saturated fatty acids than other sources of flesh. In beef and pork it is 4-10% and in chicken 25-30%. But in fish it is above 50%. 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Disease) List II (Organism) A. Malaria 1. Fungi B. Poliomyelities 2. Bacteria C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus D. Ringworm 4. Protozoan A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1 Ans. (a) Explanation : A. Malaria - Protozoan (Plasmodium) B. Poliomyelities - Virus (Polio virus) C. Tuberculosis - Bacteria (Mycabacterium Tuberculosis) D. Ringworm - Fungi (Microsp^rum & Trichophyton) 48. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to : (a) decrease in haemoglobin level (b) rheumatic heart disease (c) decrease in WBC (d) non-clotting of blood Ans. (d) Explanation: 10 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder caused by a sex linked recessive gene which results into synthesis of a defective protein (antihaemophilic globulin) essential for clotting of blood. Which one of the following types of microorganisms is most widely used in industries ? (a) Bacteria (b) Bacteria and fungi (c) Bacteria and algae (d) Bacteria, microalgae and fungi Ans. (d) Explanation : Bacteria, micro algae and fungi are employed widely in Industrial production of Antibodies, Insulin, Citric acid, alcohol etc. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Fruit 1. Ovule B. Seed 2. Leaf C. Wood 3. Stem D. Starch 4. Ovary A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Fruit - Ovary, Seed - Ovule, Wood - Stem, Starch - Leaf Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Theory of Mutation 1. Beadle & Tatum B. Theory of Evolution 2. Jacob & Monod C. One gene one enzy 3. Darwin -me hypothesis D. Operon concept 4. DeVries A B C D A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Ans. (b) Explanation : A. Theory of Mutation - Devries B. Theory of Evolution - Beadle & Tatum C. One gene one enzyme hypothesis - Darwin D. Operon concept - Jacob & Monod Ergotism is due to consumption of (a) contaminated grains (b) rotting vegetables (c) contaminated water (d) stale cooked food Ans. (a) Explanation: Ergotism is due to consumption of contaminated grains of wheat, rye, oats, pearl millet etc. due to the infection of a fungal pathogen daviceps sps which releases 'Ergotin', a toxic substance causing ergotism. The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called 11 (a) aerobic respiration (b) anaerobic respiration (c) glycolysis (d) hydrolysis Ans. (a) Explanation: Aerobic respiration : Glucose completely oxidised in the presence of oxygen. C6H12O6 + 6O26CO2+6H2O+686 kcal Anaerobic respiration : Glucose partially oxidised in the absence of oxygen into Ethyl alcohol and Acetic acid. C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 56 kcal. Glycolysis : is the stage of respiratory carbon metabolism in which hexose sugar undergoes a partial oxidation to form two molecules of a 3-carbon substance, called pyruvic acid. Glucose 2 mol. of pyruvic acid. Hydrolysis ; A process in which a substance divides into its components in the presence of water. AB + H2O AH + BOH 54. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stone is (a) Uric acid (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Calcium oxalate (d) Calcium sulphate Ans. (c) Explanation: Kidney stones consist of mucopolysacharides, urates, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, and calcium carbonate. Urate and oxalate stones are most common. 1999 55. In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor's eyes is utilized ? (a) Iris (b) Lens (c) Cornea (d) Retina Ans. (c) Explanation: Though entire eye is removed from the donor (after death) only 'cornea' can be transplanted. 56. Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Adrenalin 1. Anger, fear, danger B. Estrogen 2. Attracting partners of smell through sense C. Insulin 3. Females D. Pheromones 4. Glucose A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: Adrenalin (Fight or flight hormone)-Anger, fear, danger Estrogen - Females Insulin (Hypoglycemic hormone) - Glucose Pheromones - Attracting partners of smell through sense 57. Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of (a) biopesticide and antifertility compound (b) antifertility compound, biofertilizer and anticancer drug 12 58. 59. 60. 61. (c) biofertilizer, biopesticide and antifertility compound (d) anti-cancer drug, biopesticide and biofertilizer Ans. (c) Explanation: Neem (Azadirachta indica) acquired industrial importance as a source of biofertilizer (Neem coated urea), biopesticide (Neem guard, 4% Neem seed kernel extract) and antifertility compound (Against insect pest multiplication). Match List I (Drugs/Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Atropine 1. Local anaesthesia B. Ether 2. Heart trouble C. Nitroglycerine 3. Dilation of pupil D. Pyrethrin 4. Mosquito control A B C D A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: A. Atropine - Dilation of pupil B. Ether - Local anaesthesia C. Nitroglycerine - Heart trouble D. Pyrethrin - Mosquito control Which one of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked ? (a) Royal haemophilia (b) Tay-Sachs disease (c) Cystic fibrosis (d) Hypertension Ans. (a) Explanation: Haemophilia is sometimes referred to as the Royal haemophilia as the queen Victoria had no ancestors with the condition but soon after the birth of her eighth child, ’Leopald’ in 1853 it became evident that he had haemophilia. Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disease characterised by 'non-clotting' of blood. Hypertension is high blood pressure, lay sachs disease is a fatal genetic disorder in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance 'ganglioside' GM2 accumulates in the nerve cells of brain. The affected children usually die by the age 5. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease of body's mucus glands. It primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems in children and young adults. Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of (a) Kesari Dal (b) Mustard oil (c) Polished rice (d) Mushrooms Ans. (a) Explanation: Lathyrism leads to total paralysis caused by a neurotoxic compound BOAA (oxalyl - - - diamino propionic acid) present in Lathyrus peas/Khesari (Lathyrus Sativus) when consumed as Kesari dal. It attacks Central Nervous System. Early symptoms include walking difficulties, unbearable cramps and leg weakness. Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly ? (a) Organic farming (b) Shifting cultivation (c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties (d) Growing plants in glass-houses 13 Ans. (a) Explanation: Organic farming is also called eco farming, where the Minimum or no use of chemicals like pesticides, fertilizers, growth regulators etc, is practiced in the agricultural production activities which are replaced by the increased usage of biopesticides, biofertilizers, organic manures etc. which will affect least to the surrounding environment. 62. When ants bite, they inject (a) glacial acetic acid (b) methanol (c) formic acid (d) stearic acid Ans. (c) Explanation: The pain caused during ant's bite is due to injection of Formic acid (HCOOH). 63. Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants ? (a) Biofertilizer (b) Coralloid root (c) Lichen (d) Mycorrhiza Ans. (d) Explanation: Mycorrhiza associated with the roots of higher plants. Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza (VAM) fungi are obligate symbionts penetrate the roots in host plants and form vesicles and arbuscles, reported to increase the uptake of phosphorous Zn, Cu, Mn and Fe. 2000 64. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by (a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen (b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres (c) the depletion of glucose (d) the accumulation of lactic acid Ans. (d) Explanation: Fatigue in muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is due to the accumulation of lactic acid. 65. Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the (a) seeds have very high oil content (b) oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids (c) oil has long shelf-life (d) oil has very low Erucic acid content Ans. (b) Explanation: 'Canola' are a special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for oil rich in unsaturated fatty acids. 66. Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called (a) Keystone species (b) Allopatric species (c) Sympatric species (d) Threatened species Ans. (a) Explanation: 14 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. Keystone species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Allopatric species : species occupying mutually exclusive geographical areas. Sympatric species : different species that live in the same area but are prevented from successfully reproducing by a reproductive isolating mechanism. Threatened species : May become endangered species in the near future, if proper protection measures were not taken up. Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Reason (R) : Women have two 'X' chromosomes. Ans. (d) Explanation: In human beings, 'males' play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring as they are heterosexual with one X and one Y chromosome. Assertion (A) : "DNA Finger printing" has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R) : Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis. Ans. (a) Explanation: 'DNA' finger printing' is a genetic diagnostic testing, in which DNA sample obtained from any of the suspects nucleated body sample (hairs, body fluid (saliva), dried semen, nail, skin etc.) is isolated, identified, analysed and imaged using autificial radioactive probes. It helps in establishing paternity, identification of criminals in rape and murder cases and also in detection of genetic disorders. Assertion (A) : In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second over the whole length of the film. Reason (R) : An image formed on the retina of eye persists for about 0.1 s after the removal of stimulus. Ans. (a) Explanation: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. The 'stones’ formed in human kidney consist mostly of (a) calcium oxalate (b) sodium acetate (c) magnesium sulphate (d) calcium Ans. (a) Explanation: The stones formed in human kidney mostly consists of urates and calcium oxalate, mucopoiysacharides, calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate. Urate and oxalate stones are most common. Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop ? 15 (a) Blue-green algae (b) Rhizobium sp (c) Mycorrhizal fungi (d) Azotobacter sp Ans. (a) Explanation: Blue green algae (Cyano bacteria) and Azolla are used for the low land rice cultivation as algal bio-fertilizers. Fixes 20-30 kg N/ha per year in rice field. Ex. : Anabaena, Nostoc etc. 72. At which stage in its life cycle does the silk worm yield the fibre of commerce? (a) Egg (b) Larva (c) Pupa (d) Imago Ans. (b) Explanation: Pupa stage of Silkworm yield fibre of commerce. The larve while entering the pupal stage makes a pupal case around it by secreting a protein fibre (Fibroin). 73. Match List I (Diseases) with List II (Types of disease) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Haemophilia 1. Deficiency disease B. Diabetes 2. Genetic disease C. Rickets 3. Hormonal disorder D. Ringworm 4. Fungal infection A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: Haemophilia is X-linked recessive genetic disease. Diabetes is due to the low hormone (Insulin) levels in the blood which leads to high blood sugar levels. Rickets is due to the deficiency of Vitamin D in children. Ringworm is due to the fungal infections belong to a group called 'Dermatophytes'. (Microsporum, Trichophyton). 74. Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of (a) caffeine (b) nicotine (c) tannin (d) renin Ans. (c) Explanation: tannin 2001 75. The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as (a) Apoptosis (b) Ageing (c) Degeneration (d) Necrosis Ans. (a) Explanation: The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as Apoptosis. 76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Bone) List II (Name) A. Breast-bone 1. Clavicle B. Collar-bone 2. Patella C. Knee-cap 3. Scapula D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum 16 77. 78. 79. 80. A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 1 4 3 2 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: Breast-bone - Sternum Collar-bone - Clavicle Knee-cap - Patella Shoulder blade - Scapula Consider the following statements : 1. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite. 2. Round-worm has separate sexes. 3. Filaria is caused by a nematode. 4. Guinea-worm is an annelid. Which of these are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: Tapeworm (Taenia solium) is a hermophrodite causing Taeniasis. It is parasitic in the intestines of humans and other invertebrates and is transmitted through consumption of infected 'pork' called 'measly pork'. Filarial worm (Wuchraria bancrofti) is a nematode causing filariasis transmitted through culex mosquito leads to enlargement of lymph nodes. Guinea worm is a nematode. It is parasitic round worm lives in the abdomen or beneath the skin of humans and other invertebrates. Round worms are nematodes which have separate sexes (unisexual). Hermaphrodite is an organism with both the sexes in the same body (bisexual). Which organelle in the Cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA ? (a) Centriole (b) Golgi apparatus (c) Lysosome (d) Mitochondrion Ans. (d) Explanation: Mitochondrion and chloroplast are the cell organelles containing DNA other than nucleus. Hence they are called 'Semi autonomous' organelles where they can synthesize some of its essential proteins with partial dependence on 'Nucleus'. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using ttie codes given below the lists: List I (Achievement in genetics) List II (Scientists) A. Discovery of transduction 1. Khurana and conjugation in bacteria B. Establishing the sex-linked inheritance 2. Kornberg C. Isolation of DNA polymerase 3. Lederberg from E. Coli D. Establishing the complete 4. Morgan genetic code 5. Ochoa A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 5 (c) 4 3 1 5 (d) 3 4 2 1 Ans. (d) Explanation: A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1 "Athlete's Foot" is a disease caused by (a) Bacteria (b) Fungus (c) Protozoan (d) Nematode 17 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. Ans. (b) Explanation: "Athlete's foot" is a disease caused by Tinea pedis', a fungal species. It grows well in the moist skin between toes and the infected skin may become itchy and red. In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor ? (a) Cornea (b) Lens (c) Retina (d) The whole eye Ans. (a) Explanation: Corneal part of the donor's eye is transplanted. It will be taken immediately after the death of the donor. A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion ? (a) O, Rh(b) O, Rh+ (c) AB, Rh (d) AB, Rh+ Ans. (a) Explanation: Blood group O, Rh- will be safe for transfusion because O and Rh- blood groups does not have any antigen. So, there is no chance of coagulation on transfusion with any other blood group. "Metastasis" is the process by which (a) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs (b) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs (c) the chromosomes in cell nuclei are attached to the spindle before moving to the anaphase poles (d) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further Ans. (b) Explanation : The spread of cancer cells through blood or lymphatic system after breaking off from the original tumour to other parts of the body is called 'Metastasis'. The tumours that are formed from the spreaded cells are called 'Secondary tumours'. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Substance) List II (Physiological role) A. Ptyalin 1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin B. Pepsin 2. Digests starch C. Renin 3. Digests proteins D. Oxytocin 4. Hydrolyses fats 5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 1 5 (b) 3 4 2 5 (c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-l, D-5 Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for 18 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. (a) food (b) mechanical support (c) shade (d) water Ans. (b) Explanation: Epiphytes are small plants of orchidaceae family which take shelter on the branches of other trees to obtain more sunlight in ever green forests and also for mechanical support with the help of clinging roots. Example : Vanda. A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of (a) Africa (b) Australia (c) South America (d) South-east Asia Ans. (b) Explanation: Marsupials are characteristic feature of Australia. Kangaroos belong to "Marsupials" are endemic to Australian island. Antigen is a substance which (a) destroys harmful bacteria (b) is used to treat poisoning (c) lowers body-temperature (d) stimulates formation of antibody Ans. (d) Explanation: Antigen is a proteinaceous substance which, when introduced into the body stimulates antibody production. For example, if any virus or bacteria enters the body, the immunity system will be activated to produce antibodies. Which of the following features of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation ? (a) Complementarity of the two strands (b) Double helix (c) Number of base-pairs per turn (d) Sugar-phosphate backbone Ans. (a) Explanation: Complementarity of the two strands of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis ? (a) Lysosome and Centrosome (b) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome (c) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria (d) Lysosome and Mitochondria Ans. (b) Explanation: Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosomes. Ribosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps in protein synthesis. Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. 19 Reason (R) : DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases Ans. (a) Explanation: 'Endonucleases' and 'DNA ligases' are the tools of Genetic Engineering used in cutting and pasting of DNA regardless of the source to produce recombinant DNA's, which are utilised in production of transgenic plants and animals. 2002 91. Assertion (A) : Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination. Reason (R) : Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in the body. Ans. (c) Explanation: Due to the inhibition of production of 'Antidiuretic hormones (ADH)' by taking whisky increases the quantity and frequency of urination. 92. Assertion (A) : Human diet should compulsorily contain Glycine, Serine and Tyrosin. Reason (R) : Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized in the human body. Ans. (d) Explanation: Human diet should compulsorily contain essential amino acids which cannot be synthesized by the human body. The eight essential amino acids are Methionine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Lycine and Phenylalanine. 93. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) All echinoderms are viviparous (b) Roundworm has no circulatory system (c) In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present (d) In cartilaginous fishes, fertilization is internal Ans. (a) Explanation: All echinoderms are oviparous (egg laying) not viviparous (giving birth to young ones directly). 94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Scientists) List II (Achievement) A. Arber and Smith 1. Developed transgenic plants with Agro-bacterium TDNA B. Feldman 2. Discovered endonucleases C. Mullis 3. Discovered reverse transcriptase D. Temin and Baltimore 4. Discovered polymerase chain reaction A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (a) Explanation: Smith, Nathans and Arber were awarded the Nobel prize for physiology and medicine in 1978 for the discovery of endonucleases (restriction enzymes which cut DNA at specified sites). 20 95. 96. 97. 98. The molecular mechanism involved in Agrobacterium infections in plant cell discovered by Feldman in 1980. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique or Thermocycler which multiplicates the desired DNA strand at exponential rates was discovered by Mullis in 1985. 'Reverse transcriptase' an enzyme helps in replication of RNA molecules from a DNA copy is discovered by Temin and Baltimore in 1970. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Prions are the smallest free-living cells (b) The cell wall of Mycoplasmas is made up of amino sugars (c) Viroids consist of a single-stranded RNA molecule (d) Rickettsias lack cell wall Ans. (c) Explanation: Viroids are single stranded RNA molecules without protein coat causes different diseases like Chrysanthemum stunt. Prions are infectious protein bodies. Mycoplasmas lack cell wall while Rickettsias possess cell wall. Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species ? (a) Isolation (b) Mutation (c) Natural Selection (d) Sexual Reproduction Ans. (b) Explanation: Mutation is the most important factor for bringing about the origin of a new species. Mutation is the sudden heritable change and is the seat of all variations or the ultimate source of variation. Evolution is a change in the genetic composition of the population brought about when natural selection acts on the variability of population. Ticks and mites are actually (a) Arachnids (b) Crustaceans (c) Insects (d) Myriapods Ans. (a) Explanation: Ticks and Mites are Arachnids belong to the phylum Arthropoda. These include spiders, ticks, mites and scorpions. Crustaceans of Arthropoda include crabs, lobsters, shrimp, barnacles, crayfish, prawn etc. Insects of the phylum Arthropoda are economically important both benevolent and crop pests (Entomology). They possess jointed legs and include moths, flies, cicadas, fleas, bugs, cockroaches, bees, dragon flies, termites etc. Myriapods are many legged arthropods which include millipedes and centepedes. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body's blood at any given time (b) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood (c) White Blood Cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only. (d) The blood has more platelets than WBC Ans. (d) Explanation: 21 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. The blood has more plate lets (1-5-4-5 lakh/cmm) than WBC (4000 11000/cmm). Blood cells consitute 40% of the total blood consumption. WBC are made by Lymphnodes and Spleen. Consider the following plants : 1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnations 3. Cocoa 4. Grapes Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: Bougainvillea, cocoa, grapes (Hard wood) and carnation (Semi hard wood) are propagated by cuttings. In the context of organic evolution, the loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of (a) use and disuse of organs (b) adaptation to living in burrows (c) natural selection (d) inheritance of acquired characters Ans. (a) Explanation: Loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of use and disuse of organs given by Jean Baptist Lamarck popularly called 'Lamarckism'. New organs arise from new needs and develop in the extent that they are used. Disuse of organs leads to their disappearance. In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynoecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as (a) Dichogamy (b) Herkogamy (c) Heterogamy (d) Monogamy Ans. (a) Explanation: Dichogamy is maturation of androecium and gynoecium at different times. It is of 2 types protandry and protogyny. When androecium (stamens) matures earlier than gynoecium it is called protandry and the vice versa is protogyny. Foot-and-Mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by (a) Bacterium (b) Fungus (c) Protozoan (d) Virus Ans. (d) Explanation: Foot and Mouth disease is caused by a 'Virus' in cattle, buffaloes, swine, sheep and goats. Running sores in the mouth and between the toes. Reduced milk flow and loss of body weight are the main symptoms. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Indian Wildlife Species) List II (Scientific names) A. Asiatic Wild Ass 1. Boselaphus tragocamelus B. Barasingha 2. Cervus duvauceli C. Chinkara 3. Equus hemionus D. Nilgai 4. Gazella gazella A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 Ans. (c) 22 104. 105. 106. 107. Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India : ; 1. Aijun 2. Jaya 3. Padma 4. Sonalika Which of these are wheat ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: Aijun and Sonalika are High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of wheat whereas Jaya and Padma are HYV of Rice. When one gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called (a) Apomixis (b) Pleiotropy (c) Polyploidy (d) Polyteny Ans. (b) Explanation: Pleiotropy : One gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously. Apomixis : Seed formation without fertilization, i.e. without the union of male and female garnets. Polyploidy : Presence of more than two sets of chromosomes unlike in Diploids (2 sets of chromosomes present). Polyteny : Multistranded or polytene chromosome is a giantr chromosome present in salivary glands of insects, composed of thousands of copies of DNA parallel to one another due to the process of endomitosis or endoreduplication. With reference to the human body, consider the following statements : 1. The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercises. 2. Men's testes produce progesterone. 3. Women's adrenal glands secrete testosterone. 4. Stress causes the adrenals to release very less amount of cortisol than usual. Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c.)2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: 'Somatotropin' is a growth hormone, the production of this hormone goes up when a person exercises. It helps in shaping of muscles and growth. Men's testes produce Testosterone while female's ovary produces Estrogen and Progesterone. Women's adrenal glands secretes steroids, mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids. During physical and mental (emotional) stress sympathetic nerves and adrenal medulla produces less amount of cortisols than usual. Which one of the following is monogamous? (a) Wolf (b) Walrus (c) Seal (d) Deer Ans. (a) Explanation: Wolf is monogamous which maintains single mate for sexual intercourse. Polygamous : Having more than one mate at a time like Deer, Cattle, Walrus, Seal etc. 2003 23 108. Octopus is (a) an arthropod (b) an echinoderm (c) a hemichordate (d) a mollusc Ans. (d) Explanation : Octopus is a mollusc with eight equal arms comes under class cephalopoda and order octopoda. 109. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body : 1. Swollen lymph nodes 2. Sweating at night 3. Loss of memory 4. Loss of weight Which of these are symptoms of AIDS ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) caused by HIV, a retrovirus is a fatal disease in which immune system of the body is seriously affected. Symptoms : 1. Swollen lymph nodes. 2. Sweating at night. 3. Loss of weight. 4. Loss of memory. 5. Decreased count of blood platelets causing haemorrhage and fever and 6. Susceptibility to other infections due to breakdown of immune system. 110. Consider the following, statements : 1. The common blue green algae, Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans. 2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Blue green algae (cyanobacteria) found in fresh water, brackish water and salt water. Spirogyra (green algae) common in fresh water habitats. Ulothrix (green algae) found in fresh and marine water habitats. The eyes of chameleon (Chameleon calcaratus) are elevated in small cones and can move in all directions and each eye can see independently of the other. Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 111. Assertion (A) : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. Reason (R) : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure. Ans. (d) Explanation: Along with single bonds, unsaturated fats have double and triple bonds, that's why they are more reactive compared to saturated fats. 24 112. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements : 1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery. 2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal vein. 113. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? (a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins (b) Vitamin-A (retinol) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin (c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints (d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure Ans. (a) Explanation: Milk contains B-complex vitamins viz. Thiamine (B1), Riboflavin (B2), Pyridoxine phosphate (B6), Cyanocobalamine (B12) etc. 114. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements : 1. In response to the presence of HC1, secretin is produced from the duodenum. 2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: 'Secretin' is produced from the S-celis of duodenum in response to the presence of HCI (pH < 4.5). It helps in increasing water and bicarbonate secretion from pancreas and bile ducts. Enterogastrone is secreted from intestinal mucosa and is stimulated on exposure of duodenal mucosa to dietary lipids. It inhibits gastric secretion. 2004 115. Consider the following statements : 1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A. 2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement. 3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles. 4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: 25 116. 117. 118. 119. Night blindness, non functioning of lacrymal glands, dryness, keratinisation of conjuctiva and cornea of the eyes are vitamin A deficiency symptoms. Vitamin B1 also called thiamine or anti beri-beri or antineuritic factor causes muscular dystrophy, heart enlargement, indigestion, nervous disorder and polyneuritis on deficiency. The deficiency of vitamin C or Ascorbic acid or Antiscorbiutic add causes bleeding gums, loosening of teeth, pain in the muscles, fatigue, loss of weight and poor wound healing. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine, therefore no Ca++ gets deposited in the bone. This causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. The hormone insulin is a (a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid (c) Peptide (d) Sterol Ans. (c) Explanation: Insulin is a poplypeptide of 76 aminoacids hence called protein hormone. It is secreted by pancreas which helps in maintaining blood glucose levels by converting excess of glucose into glycogen (Glycogenesis). Lack of Insulin results in excess glucose in the blood (heperglycemia) and the disease is called 'Diabetes mellitus'. Consider the following statements : 1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India. 2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: Tooth less mammals such as pangolins are not found in India. Gibbon is the only ape found in India. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed ? (a) Liver (b) Long bone (c) Pancreas (d) Spleen Ans. (b) Explanation: Lymphocytes are manufactured in the bone marrow and multiply in the Thymus and Spleen. They circulate in the blood stream, penetrating the walls of blood capillaries to reach the cells of the tissues. Nodes at various points in the lymphatic network act as stations for the collection and manufacture of lymphocytes, they may become enlarged during an infectious disease. Consider the following statements 1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body. 2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria. 3. ‘Athlet’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) Explanation: Athlete's foot is a disease caused by Tinea pedis, a fungus. The fungus grows well on the moist skin between toes. The infected skin becomes itchy and red. Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R). You are to examine these two 26 statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 120. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet. Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids. Ans. (c) Explanation: Few fatty acids cannot be synthesized by our body and are 'called Essential fatty acids. The most important of these is "Linoleic acid" (all vegetable oils contain linoleic acid, except coconut oil and palm oil). 2005 121. Assertion (A) : All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only. Reason (R) : The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine. Ans. (d) Explanation: Protein digestion begins in the stomach. In acidic medium of gastric juice, the protein digesting enzyme, 'pepsin' breaks down proteins into peptones. In small intestine 'trypsin' acts on peptones to form peptides and amino acids. 122. Assertion (A) : Amoeba reproduced by fission. Reason (R) : All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods. Ans. (a) Explanation: Asexual reproduction is common in majority of living organisms including most plants, protists (bacteria, protozoans and unicellular algae and fungi) and many lower invertebrates. Amoeba an unicellular protozoan reproduces by binary fission, a simple method of asexual reproduction producing two smaller daughter cells. 123. Assertion (A) : The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty. Reason (R) : A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin. Ans. (a) Explanation: Diabetes Insipidus symptoms are increased thirst, increased drinking and increased urination. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by hypotonic polyuria, secondary to vasopressin (AVP) deficiency, thirst, secondary to elevation in plasma osmolality. 124. Consider the following statements : 1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution. 2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) Explanation: Osmosis is movement of solvent molecules from a less concentrated solution (dilute solution) to high concentrated solution through a semi permeable 27 membrane. For reverse osmosis an external pressure to the solution on the more concentrated side of the membrane has to be created. This technique is used in desalination of plants. 125. Which of the following diseases of milching animals are infectious ? 1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax 3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: Foot and Mouth disease and Cowpox are viral diseases. Anthrax bacillus and Clostridium chauvoei are the bacteria causing Anthrax (splenic fever) and Black quarter (black leg) incattle and sheep, respectively. 126. Consider the following statements : 1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitoes. 2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue. 3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: Dengue is a viral disease (arbo virus) transmitted through Aedes agyptii (mosquito). Fever, head ache, pain in joints, back muscles and eye balls (Retro orbital pain), skin rash for a few days, bleeding from nose and gums, prolonged convalescence are some of the symptoms of the Dengue fever. 127. Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in : (a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry (c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry Ans. (b) Explanation: Inhalation of coal dust for prolonged periods can damage lung tissue of Miners and often develops spots, lumps of fibrous growths in their lungs, this condition is known as pneumoconiosis or black lung disease. Further it develops into other fatal illnesses like heart disease, emphysema and cancer. Coal dust filtering units should be provided in the mines to protect miners from inhaling dust. 2006 128. Consider the following statements : 1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic. 2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks. 3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth. 4. Citric acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in our nutrition. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 2, only (b) 1, 2 and 3, only (c) 3 and 4, only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: 28 129. 130. 131. 132. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic, caffeine increases diuretic action in the kidneys, increasing urinary volume and sodium extraction as a result of a decrease in the tubular re-absorption of sodium and water. Citric acid, a weak organic acid is a good preservative and is also used to add an acidic taste to foods and soft drinks. What is the name of the vessel that delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach & small intestine to the liver? (a) Left hepatic artery (b) Hepatic vein (c) Right hepatic artery (d) Hepatic portal vein Ans. (d) Explanation: Nutrient rich blood from the stomach and small intestine containing minerals and vitamins like A, D, E and K is collected and stored in liver delivered from hepatic portal vein. The B vitamins are also stored in iiver, including a two to four year supply of Vitamin B12. Consider the following statements with reference to human body : 1. The common bile duct releases its contents into stomach. 2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into duodenum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Liver secretes bile, which contains bile pigments and bile salts. The bile secreted by the liver cells is normally stored in the gall bladder. The common bile duct delivers contents directly to the duodenum when the gall bladder contracts, in response to a meal. Pancreas is a large gland which secretes digestive enzymes as well as the hormones, insulin and glucagon. The pancreatic duct runs the length of pancreas and empties into the second part of the duodenum at the ampulla of vater. Consider the following statements : 1. Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to person by mosquito bites. 2. Vomiting and neck pain are two of the symptoms of Meningococcal Meningitis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to person through air via droplets of respiratory secretions and direct contact with an infected person like oral contact with shared items such as cigarettes or drinking glasses or through intimate contact such as kissing. Which one among the following is not a good source of nutritional calcium ? (a) Rice (b) Ragi (c) Skimmed milk (d) Egg Ans. (a) Explanation: 29 Rice is a poor source of calcium and therefore insufficiency of calcium is one of the main defects of diets largely based on rice. Food value of 100 grams of egg is 13.3% proteins, 13.3% fat, 173 kcal of energy, 60 mg calcium, 220 mg of sulphur and iron and vitamins. Ragi and Skimmed milk are good sources of nutrient calcium. 133. Consider the following statements : 1. ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect cancer. 2. Almost 50% of human beings have Rh+ blood while the remaining have Rhblood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) Explanation: ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is an important test for diagnosing viral diseases like AIDS (caused by HIV). Majority of the human beings are Rh+ while very few are Rh--. Erythroblastosis FoetaSis : The haemolytic anaemia of newborn infants; when mother is Rh-- and father is Rh+, Rh+ infants may develop this condition. 2007 134. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body ? (a) Jejunum - Duodenum - Ileum (b) Ileum - Duodenum - Jejunum (c) Jejunum - Ileum - Duodenum (d) Ileum - Jejunum - Duodenum Ans. (d) Explanation Structural part of small intestine Length (cm) Ileum 150-160 Jejunum 100-110 Duodenum 20 135. In human body, which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium & phosphate? (a) Glucagon (b) Growth hormone (c) Parathyroid hormone (d) Thyroxine Ans. (c) Explanation: Parathyroid hormone increases the amount of calcium in blood and decrease phosphate. 136. How do most insects respire ? (a) Through skin (b) Through gills (c) By lungs (d) By tracheal system Ans. (d) Explanation: Insects mostly respire by 'tracheal system'. In this system, gas is directly tresported to the tissues by air filled tubules that bypass blood. The pores of the outside, called spiracles, delivers the gases of respiration. 137. In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts, does the sperm fertilize the ovum ? 30 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. (a) Cervix (b) Fallopian tube (c) Lower part of uterus (d) Upper part of uterus Ans. (b) Explanation : Once a month a single mature ovum is produced and leaves the ovary in a process called 'ovulation'. This ovum enters a tube leading to the uterus called 'fallopian tube'. The ovum needs to meet up with the sperm in the fallopian tube if fertilization is to occur. Which one of the following parts of human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting ? (a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons Ans. (c) Explanation: Medulla Oblongata is a long, stalk like lowermost portion of the brain stem which is involved regulating the functions of swallowing and vomiting. Production of which one of the following is a function of the liver ? (a) Lipase (b) Urea (c) Mucus (d) Hydrochloric acid Ans. (b) Explanation: The liver regulates most chemical levels in the blood and excretes a product called 'bile' which helps carry away waste products from the liver. It involves in conversion of poisonous ammonia to urea. (Urea is one of the end products of protein metabolism that is excreted in the urine). Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system ? (a) Trypsin (b) Gastrin (c) Ptyalin (d) Pepsin Ans. (b) Explanation: Gastrin produced in stomach is not an enzyme but helps digestive enzymes. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants ? (a) Violet and orange (b) Blue and red (c) Indigo and yellow (d) Yellow and violet Ans. (b) Explanation: Blue and red types of visible light (VIBGYOR) are strongly absorbed by plants where 'photosynthesis process' is active hence called 'Photosynthesis Active Radiation’ (PAR). In the human body, which structure is the appendix attached to ? (a) The large intestine (b) The small intestine (c) The gall bladder (d) The stomach Ans. (a) Explanation: Appendix also called Caecum, a vestigial organ is attached to large intestine. In most people, the appendix is located at the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant becomes modified into a pitcher ? (a) Stem (b) Leaf (c) Stipule (d) Petiole Ans. (b) 31 Explanation: In ’Nepenthes' the leaf lamina develops into the pitcher with its apex forming lid which is brightly red coloured for attracting the insects. 12. SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY 1995 1. 2. 3. Cryogenic engines find applications in : (a) sub-marine propulsion (b) frost-free refrigerators (c) rocket technology (d) researches in superconductivity Ans. (c) Explanation : Cryogenic engines find applications in 1. Rocket propulson paticularly GSLV of space programme and Ballistic Missiles. 2. Production of very high magnetic field and Remote Sensing. In the field of space technology, India has demonstrated during 1994, her capability to (a) design advance intercontinental ballistic missile warning systems (b) build satellites (c) build stealth missiles (d) launch geo-stationary satellites Ans. (d) Explanation: India has demostrated her capability to launch geo-stationary satellites. The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that (a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a chain reaction (b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled (c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled (d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor Ans. (b) Explanation: A nuclear reactor is constructed to generate electricity in which energy is produced by controlled chain reaction. 1996 4. 5. Which one of the following satellites is to be launched from India in 1996 ? (a) IRS - P2 (b) IRS - P3 (c) IRS - EN (d) IRS - ID Ans. (b) Explanation: PSLV-D3 launched from Sriharikota on 21 March, 1996, places IRS-P3 in orbit. Which one of the following is a modern tank ? (a) Bhim (b) Akash (c) Arjun (d) Prithvi Ans. (c) Explanation: India’s indigenously designed and developed main Battle Tank (MBT) is 'Arjun' developed by DRDO & CVRDE (Combat Vehicle Research & Development Establishment), Avadi. 6. The world’s fastest computer has been able to perform (as of Dec. 1996) 1997 32 7. (a) 106 operations per second (b) 109 operations per second (c) 1012 operations per second (d) 1013 operatons per second Ans. (c) Explanation: Earth's Simulator is the world's fastest Super Computer developed by Japan in 2002. It is able to perform 35.6 trillion operations/sec. which is about 5 times faster than CRAY-YMP series of Super computers available with USA. The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was (a) albino mouse (b) yeast (c) human being (d) plasmodium vivax Ans. (d) Explanation: Celera genomics first deciphered the female anopheles mosquito (vector) genome in which they found the entire genome of malarial causing parasite plasmodium vivax. Human genome project, launched in 1988 was successful in decoding genetic information present in 24 different types of human chromosomes in the year 2000, June. 1998 8. Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors ? (a) Cobalt (b) Nickel (c) Zirconium (d) Tungsten Ans. (c) Explanation: Zirconium is used to slowdown fast moving neutrons in Nuclear reactors. 9. World Environment Conference to discuss global warming was held in 1997 in (a) Stockholm (b) Riodejaneiro (c) Paris (d) Kyoto Ans. (d) Explanation: The third Conference of Parties (COP-3) to the United Nations Frame Work Convention on climate changes was held in Kyoto, Japan from December 1 to 4, 1997. Delegates from over 150 countries attended to meet to draft a treaty that would initiate definitive, tangible and time bound steps to limit the emission of six green house gases that cause global warming. 10. The damage to Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station Mir was due to (a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship (b) faulty material design of Spektr Module (c) explosion inside the space station (d) collision with an asteroid Ans. (a) Explanation: Collision with a Soyuz Cargo Ship. 11. The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica? (a) Canada (b) France (c) Russia (d) U.S.A. Ans. (c) 1999 12. Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of "Terminator Seed Technology” because the seeds produced by this technology are. expected to (a) show poor germination (b) form low-yielding plants despite the high quality 33 13. 14. 15. 16. (c) give rise to sexually sterile plants (d) give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds Ans. (d) Explanation: Terminator Seed Technology' is a bane towards Indian Farmers because seeds produced from this technology gives rise to plants incapable of forming viable .seeds. Farmers cannot use thus produced seed for sowing purpose next year/season and has to get fresh seed every year from the seed company which monopolises and may increase arbitrarily the cost of seed. Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in (a) space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation (b) surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry (c) space travel, surgery and telemetry (d) space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry Ans. (a) Explanation: Cryogenic engine is used for rocket propulsion particularly GSLV of space programme and ballistic missiles. 'Cryogenic technology' is used in production of very high magnetic field and remote sensing. Directions : The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. Reason (R) : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium. Ans. (a) Explanation: Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene (Cry 1 AC) taken from a bacterium (Bacillus thuringiensis) Assertion (A) : Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India. Reason (R) : Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware. Ans. (c) Explanation : Software is one of the major exports of the country but India is not strong in Hardware infrastructure. Assertion (A) : Dolly was the first cloned mammal. Reason (R) : Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization. Ans. (b) Explanation : Dolly was the first cloned mammal developed by British Geneticist Ian Wilmet which was produced through in vitro fertilization. 2000 17. Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an 34 (a) virus (b) bacterium (c) insect (d) plant Ans. (b) Explanation: Transgenic cotton resistant to bollworm, (Heliothis armigera), a lepidopteran insect pest was developed by inserting a toxin gene (Cry 1 AC) taken from a bacterium (Bacillus thruingiensis). This trangenic cotton was released commercially in India as Bt cotton. 18. Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of (a) monoclonal antibodies (b) interferon (c) antibiotics (d) alcohol Ans. (a) Explanation Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of Monoclonal antibodies which are highly specific to the inducing antigen, and are relatively cheaper. 19. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of : (a) eight binary digits (b) eight decimal digits (c) two binary digits (d) two decimal digits Ans. (a) Explanation: A byte is made up of eight binary digits (bit). Each number, letter, symbol etc. put into a computer is turned into a group of eight bits (bytes). A bit is a term which can have the value of zero or one. 20. For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a (a) quartz crystal (b) titanium needle (c) laser beam (d) barium titanate ceramic Ans. (b) Explanation: Titanium needle. Interference is the reason for reproducing sound. 2001 21. The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced an insectresistant cotton variety that is undergoing field-trials in India. A toxin gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this transgenic cotton? (a) Bacillus substilis (b) Bacillus thuringiensis (c) Bacillus amyloliquifaciens (d) Bacillus globulii Ans. (b) Explanation: A toxin gene Cry 1 AC taken from Bacillus thuringiensis was transfered to cotton to produce a transgenic cotton called Bt cotton gives resistance to Lepidopteran insect pests Especially Boll worms in cotton. 22. Consider the following statements : In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because 1. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions. 2. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process. 3. the fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite. 4. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission. Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 35 Ans. (d) Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, control rods made of Boron steel, or cadmium, which are capable of absorbing neutrons and are used to ensure that the neutron flux is under control. The control rods are inserted in the reactor and can be raised or lowered to control the chain reaction. 23. The range of Agni - II missile is around (a) 500 km (b) 2000 km (c) 3500 km (d) 5000 km Ans. (b) Explanation: Agni is a surface to surface, intermediate range ballistic missile. Agni - I : 700 km (Range) Agni - II : 2000 km (Range) Agni - III : 3500 km (Range) 24. Consider the following organizations 1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research & Exploration 2. Heavy Water Board 3. Indian Rare Earths Limited 4. Uranium Corporation of India Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 25. Who is the scientist in whose honour the "Chandra" X-ray telescope has been named ? (a) Chandrasekhar Venkat Raman (b) Jagdish Chandra Bose (c) Prafulla Chandra Roy (d) Subramanyan Chandrasekhar Ans. (d) Explanation: Subramanyan Chandrasekhar, an Indian born astrophysicist was awarded Nobel Prize for physics in 1983. In his honour the 'Chandra' X-ray Telescope has been named. 2002 26. With reference to Indian satellites and their launchers, consider the following statements : 1. All the INSAT-series of satellites were launched abroad. 2. PSLVs were used to launch IRS-series of satellites. 3. India used the indigenously built cryogenic engines for the first time for powering the third stage of GSLV. 4. GSAT, launched in the year 2001, has payloads to demonstrate digital broadcasts and internet services. Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (c) Explanation: India used imported cryogenic engines from Russia. The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) System is multi-agency, multipurpose operational satellite system for domestic, telecommunications, meteorological observations and data relay, Nation-wide direct satellite T.V. broadcasting and nationwide radio and T.V. programme distribution. The Geostationary satellite services in India were commissioned in 1983 with the launch of INSAT-IB. 27. With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following statements : 36 1. The only source of human stem cells are the embryos at blastocyst stage. 2. The stem cells can be derived without causing destruction to blastocysts. 3. The stem cells can regenerate themselves in vitro virtually forever. . 4. Indian research centres also created a few cell lines which can be developed into many types of tissues. Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: Stem cells are undifferentiated cells which are pluripotent in nature with a capacity to differentiate into different kinds of specialised cells. These are of 2 types : (1) Embryonic stem cell and (2) Adult/Somatic stem cell. The embryonic stem cells are taken from blastocyst (< 14 days old) which is an embryo, removed from the womb or brought from the fertility clinic which destroy the life of human being. The Adult/Somatic stem cells are derived from 'adult somatic/body tissues, ex. Bone marrow, umbilical chord etc. 28. In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named (a) Mars Climate Orbiter (b) Mars Global Surveyer (c) Mars Odyssey (d) Mars Polar Lander Ans. (c) 29. The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in (a) Colombia (b) India (c) Nepal (d) Switzerland Ans. (b) Explanation: The world's highest ground based telescopic observatoy is located in Ladakh of Jammu and Kashmir in India. 2003 30. Consider the following statements : 1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September, 2002. 2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: METSAT also called KALPANA-I named after India born American Space Astronaut 'Kalpana Chawla' was launched by PSLV in September, 2002. 31. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of (a) Agriculture (b) Environment & Forests (c) Commerce and Industry (d) Rural Development Ans. (b) Explanation: Ministry of Environment and Forests. 32. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? 37 (a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command (b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles (c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km (d) The indigenously built INS Prabat can launch surface-to-surface missiles Ans. (c) Explanation: Trishul is a short range (500 m to 9 km) surface to air missile with solid composite propellant and dual thrust motor and command to line-of sight guidance. 2004 33. Consider the following statements: 1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer 2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: Adam Osborne, a computer entrepreneur born in Thailand. In 1980 he opened a computer company, the 'Osborne Computer Corporation'. He produced the first portable mass marketed personal computer. Ian Wilmut, a British Geneticist was the first to successfully clone an adult mammal, producing a sheep named 'Dolly'. 34. Consider the following statements: 1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology 2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production. 3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India’s Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (a) Explanation: All the above statements are correct. IGCAR mainly concerned with FBR technology and associated fuel cycle, material stances, fuel reprocessing and sodium technology. 35. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology (b) Harlow Shapley : Astronomy (c) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory (d) Godfrey Hounsfield: CT Scan Ans. (a) Explanation: Reinhold Messner, the Italian Mountaineer was the first person to scale Mt. Everest without bottled oxygen in 1978. 36. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by (a) Israel (b) USA (c) Russia (d) France Ans. (c) 38 37. INSAT - 3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from (a) French Guiana (b) Seychelles (c) Mauritius (d) Mauritania Ans. (a) 38. Consider the following statements: 1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip. 2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics transmission. 3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the Internet only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: All the above statements are correct. 39. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is (a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India (b) the name of a supercomputer developed by India (c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of India (d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh Ans. (b) Explanation: In December 2002, "Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune succeeded in developing India's most powerful super computer 'Param Padma' which can perform 'one trillion operations/sec, which is at present functioning at C-DAC's 'Tera Scale Facility' at Bangalore. 2005 40. Consider the following statements : 1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005. 2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer. 3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 3 only Ans. (b) Explanation: Kyoto protocol came into force on February 16, 2005 with an obligation on 39 industrialised countries to reduce emissions by an average of 5.2 percent relative to levels prevailing in 1990. Methane accounts for about 20% of contribution to global warming by greehouse gases though it is less in concentration (1,720 ppbv) against CO 2's 60% contribution with 358 ppmv concentration in the atmosphere. In consideration of the 20 year total sum of its intensity of green house effect (global warming index), based on the fact that its atmospheric residence time is 56 times longer than that of CO2. 41. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Ariun : Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT) (b) Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India (c) Saras : Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft (d) Operation : New Indian Naval Base at Karwar Seabird Ans. (b) 39 Explanation: Phalcon is an Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS). It is an aircraft fitted with sophisticated radar and can be said to be a radar on the move. It can provide advance warning about enemy's intrusion into country's air space. It can also track and attack enemy's targets in air. India has an agreement with Israel for supply of its AWACS called PHALCON. 2006 42. In which one of the following areas did the Indira Gandhi Center for Atomic Research make significant progress in the year 2005 ? (a) Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (b) New applications of radioisotopes in metallurgy (c) A new technology for production of heavy water (d) A new technology for high level nuclear waste management Ans. (a) Explanation: IGCAR at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu made significant progress in reprocessing the Uranium-Plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR). 43. Consider the following statements in respect of India’s advanced satellite INSAT - 4A : 1. INSAT - 4A was launched in December, 2005 from New Mexico. 2. The European commercial launch service provider Arianespace was associated with the launch of INSAT - 4A. 3. Tata-Sky - a digital cable service provider is associated with DTH television broadcasting services from INSAT - 4A. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only (c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only Ans. (c) Explanation: INSAT-4A is the most advanced, heaviest, new generation communication satellite lunched in December 2005 from Kourou, French Guyana by Ariane-5G spacecraft. The space vehicle carries ISRO's 3080 kg INSAT-4A and its copassenger, a meteorological satellite, MSG-2 of the European EUMETSAT. INSAT-4A was placed in Geosynchronous Transfer orbit (GTO). 44. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the major events given below ? 1. SLV-3 Launch. 2. Formation of Bangladesh. 3. Sikkim becomes 22nd State of the Indian Union. 4. Pokharan-I test. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (b) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 (c) 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 (d) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 Ans. (a) Explanation: Correct chronological sequence of the events : Formation of Bangladesh : 1971 Pokharan-I test I : 1974 Sikkim becomes 22 nd State : 1975 (36th amendment) of the Indian Union SLV-3 Launch : 1980 (successful launch) 2007 40 45. Which of the following types is used by computed tomography employed for visualisation of the internal structure of human body ? (a) X-rays (b) Sound waves (c) Magnetic resonance (d) Radioisotopes Ans. (a) Explanation: Computed Tomography (CT) is a powerful nondestructive evaluation (NDE) technique for producing 2-D and 3-D cross-sectional images of an object from flat X-ray images. 46. Consider the following statements : 1. The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on AO size whose area is 0.5 cm2 (approximately). 2. The area of A4 size paper is l/8th of that of the AO size paper. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) Explanation: The international paper size standard, ISO-216, is based on the German DIN 476 standard for paper sizes. Using the metric system, the base format is a sheet of paper measuring lm2 in area (AO paper size). A4 is 1/16th size of AO. 47. Which one of the following is another name of RBX ? (a) Cyanohydrin (b) Dextran (c) Cyclohexane (d) Cyclonite Ans. (d) Explanation: RDX (Research and Development Explosive) is also called Cyclonite. It is 142 times more powerful than Tri Nitro Toluene (TNT), a military explosive. 48. Consider the following statements : 1. In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full-fledged cryogenic stage in rocketry. 2. After USA, Russia and China, India is the only country to have acquired the capability for use of cryogenic stage in rocketry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) Explanation: India has become the sixth member of the exclusive club ‘to have developed the cryogenic stage after testing a full fledged cryogenic stage at the 'Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre' (LPSC) in Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu. 49. Consider the following statements : 1. In November, 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi-II missile. 2. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: 41 India successfully tested its first interception test using two live Prithvi missiles. The target Prithvi II missile was firest fired from the lauch complex in Chandipur and after 60 seconds, the interceptor missile fired from wheeler island, 72 km south of Chandipur integrated test range, which destroyed the first one in mid air. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 230 13. GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY 1995 1. 2. 3. 4. Consider the series given below : 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, ........................ The next term of the series is (a) 24/3/96 (b) 25/3/96 (c) 26/3/96 (d) 27/3/96 Ans. (b) Explanation : The difference in series is 28 days i.e. 4.12.95 to 1.1.96 = 28 days 1.1.96 to 29.1.96 = 28 days 29.1.96 to 26.2.96 = 28 days 26.2.96 to 253.96 = 28 days (Note : 1996 is a leap year. So in February 1996, there were 29 days.) In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as distances. By how many metres is 100. metres longer than 100 yards ? (a) 0.856 m (b) 8.56 m (c) 0.0856 m (d) 1.0 m Ans. (b) Explanation: 1 yard = 36 inches ; 1 Inch = 2.54 cm. Difference in 100 yards and 100 metres = (100 - 91.44) m = 8.56m Examine the following statements : I watch T.V. only if I am bored. I am never bored when I have my brother’s company. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along. Which one of the following conclusions is valid in context of above statements? (a) If I am bored, I watch T.V. (b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company. (c) If I am not with my brother then I watch T.V. (d) If I am not bored, I do not watch T.V. Ans. (d) Explanation: Based on the above statements, conclusions a, b, c are wrong. Because (a) If I am bored, watching T.V. is an option, but it is not compulsory, (b) Like that seeking my brother's company is also an option, (c) If I am not with my brother I can do anything else. But conclusion (d) is correct because I watch T.V. only if I am bored. So, if I am not bored, I don't watch T.V. In the given diagram, circle A represents teachers who can teach physics, circle B represents teachers who can teach chemistry, and circle C represents those who can teach mathematics, Among the regions marked p, q, r............ the one which represent teachers who can teach physics and mathematics but not chemistry, is (a) v (b) u (c) s 42 (d) t 5. 6. 7. Arts. (b) Explanation: Circle A (Physics) The region marked p represent for Physics. Circle B (Chemistry) Circle C (Mathematics) So, the region marked u represent for Physics and Mathematics but not Chemistry. Therefore, (b) is the right answer. Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is (a) blue (b) violet (c) red (d) orange Ans. (c) Explanation : Seven members standing in a qu^ue wearing a cap of different colours. i.e. A = Green B = Blue C = Yellow D = Violet E = Indigo F = Red G = Orange D can see Green and Blue E can see Violet and Yellow but not Red G can see all colours other than orange It means G can wear Orange E can wear Indigo D can see Green and Blue E can see Violet and Yellow It means, A, B, C, D can wear Green, Blue, Yellow, Violet respectively. F can wear Red. Therefore, (c) is the right answer. The value of (a - m) (b - m) ... (y - in) (z - m) is : (a) m26 + am25 + abm24 + ........... + a.b.c....z (b) m26 - am25 + abm24 ....... - a.b.c............z (c) 0 (d) indeterminate Ans. (c) Explanation: (a-m)(b-m)...(m-m)...(y-m)(z-m) = 0 [ (m - m) = 0] A rectangular sump of dimension 6 m x 4 m is to be built by using bricks to make the outer dimension 6.2 m x 5.2 m x 4.2 in. Approximately how many bricks of size 20 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm are required to build the sump for storing water ? (a) 1500 (b) 3000 (c)15000 (d) 30000 43 8. Ans. (c) Explanation : The volume required to built by the bricks = Volume of outer dimensions of sump - volume of sump = (6.2 x 5.2 x 4.2) - (6 x 5x 4) = 135.408 - 120 = 15.408 m3 Volume of one brick = 0.20 x 0.1 x 0.05 = 0.001 m3 Total number of bricks required = 15.408 / 0.001 = 15408 The nearest answer is (c). Consider the figure given below : PQRS is a square of side 1 unit and Q, S are the centres of the two circles. The area of the shaded portion is ; (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) Explanation: The area of quarter circle = Area of RSP = x Base x Height = x 1 = Shaded Portion = 9. A thief running at 8 km/hour is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hour. If the thief is 100 meters ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be (a) 2 minutes (b) 6 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) 3 minutes Ans. (d) Explanation: Difference in speed between a Thief and Policeman = 10 - 8 = 2 km/hour With this net velocity (2 km/hr), the police is to catch the thief who is 100 metres (0.1 km) ahead. So, time required = Distance / Velocity = 10. A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54% chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What is the percentage probability that he will fail in Mathematics ? (a) 12 (b) 36 (c) 4 (d) 10 Ans. (d) Explanation: Student’s chance of passing in English = 60% (0.6) Student's chance of passing in both English and Maths = 54% (0.54) Since, passing in English and Maths is an independent thing. Therefore, Chance of passing in both English and Maths = Chance of passing in Maths x Chance of passing in English Chance of passing in Maths = = 0-9 Therefore, chance of not getting the passing marks in Maths = 1 - 0.9 = 0.1 = 10% 11. A table has three drawers. It is known that one of the drawers contains two silver coins, another contains two gold coins and the third one contains a silver coin and a gold coin. One of the drawers is opended at random and a coin is drawn. It is found to be a silver coin. What, is the probability that the other coin in the drawer is a gold coin ? (a) 0-25 (b) 1-00 (c) 0-50 (d) 0-60 Ans. (c) Explanation: 44 According to Question, one Drawer is opened and a silver coin is drawn, so that drawer might be one or three because there are no silver coins in drawer two. If drawer one is opened, then other coin will be a silver coin as drawer one contains both silver coins. But, if drawer three will be opened, then other coin will be a gold coin as drawer three contains one gold and one silver coin. So, the probability of getting other coin as a gold coin will be 1 out of 2 or 0.5. 12. In the Cartesian plane four point P, Q, R, S have co-ordinates (1, 1) (4, 2) (4, 4) and (1, 4). The area of the quadrilateral PQRS (a) 9 (b) 7.5 (c) 4.5 (d) impossible to find unless the lengths the diagonals are known Ans. (b) Explanation: Area of quadrilateral PQRS = area of rectangle SRQT + area of triangle PTQ. = TQ x QR + 1/2 x TQ x TP = 3 x 2 + 1/2 x 3 x 1 = 6 + 1.5 = 7.5 13. Consider the diagram given below T : Transport Ec : Education of children H : Housing C : Clothing F : Food S : Savings O : Others From the diagram shown it would be right to conclude that : (a) the family spent more than half the income on food and clothing (b) the amount saved by the family was too little (c) the family had no health problems (d) the family managed to meet all the essential expenses out of the income earned. Ans. (d) Explanation: According to question, family do not spent more than half on food and clothing. C + F is near about the one fourth of total income. Saving is also not too little. The family might have health problems they might be included in "Others". Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 14. Examine the following statements : 1. All children are inquisitive 2. Some children are inquisitive 3. No children are inquisitive 4. Some children are not inquisitive Among these statements, the two statements which cannot be true simultaneously but can both be false would be (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (a) Explanation: Statement 1 and statement 3 both are opposite to each other and so cannot be true simultaneously but can be false. 45 15. X and Y are two variables whose values at any time are related to each other as shown in Fig. (i). X is shown to vary periodically with reference to time as shown in Fig. (ii). Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) Which of the following curve depicts correctly the dependence of Y on time ? 16. 17. 18. 19. Ans. (c) Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin, alone or flute alone ? (a) 45 (b) 44 (c) 38 (d) 3 0 Ans. (b) Explanation: Total number of musicians = 120 Number of musicians who can play all the three instruments = 5% of 120 = 6 Number of musicians who can play any two or only two of the three instruments = 3Q Number of musicians who can play the guitar alone = 40 The number of musicians who can play violin ajone or flute alone = Total number of musicians - the number of musicians in all three categories = 120 (6 + 30 + 40) = 44 Which of the following can be inferred from the statement that ‘Either John is stupid or John is lazy’ ? 1. John is lazy/therefore, John is not stupid. 2. John is not lazy/therefore, John is stupid. 3. John is not stupid/therefore, John is lazy. 4. John is stupid/therefore, John is not lazy. Codes : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c)3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: According to the statement "Either John is stupid or John is lazy" it can be inferred that John can not be stupid and lazy simultaneoulsy. Therefore, one can conclude that statements (2) and (3) can be correct. A person earns Rs. 2000 per month over and above his salary as additional charge allowance. However, 30% of this additional income will be deduced as additional income tax at source. If the person would deposit Rs. 1000 per month on a long term saving fetching 12% interest his tax liability on the additional allowance would reduce to 10%. What is the effective interest for this person for money invested in the long term savings scheme ? (a) 12% (b) 18% (c) 19% (d) 20% Ans. (b) A person travelled from one place to another at an average speed of 40 kilometer/hour and back to the original place at an average speed of 50 kilometers. What is his average speed in kilometers/hour during the entire round-trip ? (a)45 (b) (c) 400/9 46 (d) Impossible to find out unless the distance between the two places is known. Ans. (c) Explanation: Suppose, a person travelled from one place to another at an average speed of x km Entire round trip, it will take time = Total travelling = 2x km. Average speed = 1996 20. Six roads lead to a Country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3. When there is storm, Y is blocked. When there are floods X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked. At a time, when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used ? (a) Z and 2 (b) Only Z (c) Only 3 (d) Only Y Ans. (c) Explanation: In given condition (when there are both floods and storm) only road 3 can be used. 21. A truck, a car and a motor cycle have equai kinetic energies. If equal, stopping forces are applied and they stop after travelling a distance of X, Y and Z respectively, then (a) X > Y > Z (b) X < Y < Z (c) X = Y = Z (d) X = 4Y = 8Z Ans. (c) Explanation : Let, Kinetic energy of a thing = K Stopping force = S Distance = D Then, K = S x D According to Question, Kinetic energies of Truck, Car and Motor Cycle are same and stopping force is also same. Therefore, X = Y = Z 22. Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes : Carrot, Food, Vegetable ? Ans. (a) Explanation: Venn diagram given in option (a) is correct because food comprises the vegetables and carrot is a part of vegetables. 23. When the frequency distribution is normal (a) median, mode and mean are all different from one another (b) mean, mode and median are identical (c) mean is greater than mode (d) mean is greater than median Ans. (b) Explanation : For a fairly normal frequency distribution, mean, mode, and median are identical but not equal. The efnperical formula for this three measures of central tendency is (for normal frequency distribution) Mean - Mode = 3 (Mean - Median) 47 24. In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, the square represents sports persons and the circle represents coaches. The portion in the figure which represents girls who are sports persons but not coaches is the one labelled : (a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E Ans. (b) Explanation: The portion B of the triangle represents the girls who are sports persons but not the coaches. 25. The next pair of letters in the series AZ, CX, FU, ........... is (a) J Q (b) KP (c) I R (d) IV Ans. (a) Explanation: 26. Mouse is to cat as fly is to: (a) rat (b) animal (c) spider (d) horse Arts. (c) Explanation: Mouse is a kind of food for cat. In the very same way spider treats the fly for food. 27. The following figure contains three squares with areas of 100, 16 and 49 lying side by side as shown. By how much should the area of the middle square be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting three squares is 19 ? (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) Ans. (a) Explanation : Length of side = 10 + 4 + 7 = 21 Reduction in length of side PQ = 21-19 = 2 Length of side of middle square = 4 New length of side of middle square = 4 - 2 Therefore, reduction in the area of middle square = 16 - 4 = 12 28. The average of X1, X2 and X3 is 14. Twice the sum of X2 and X3 is 30. What is the value of X1 ? (a) 20 (b) 2 7 (c) 16 (d) 12 Ans. (b) Explanation: X1 + X2 + X3 = 14 x 3 = 42 X2 + X3 = 30/2 = 15 X1 = (X1 + X2 + X3) - (X2 + X3) = 42 - 15 = 27 29. A rectangle has a perimeter of 50 meters. If its length is 13 meters more than its breadth, then its area is (a) 124 m2 (b) 144 m2 (c) 114 m2 (d) 104 m2 Ans. (c) Explanation: Perimeter of Rectangle = 2(1 + b) Given, Perimeter of Rectangle = 50 metres 2(I + b) = 50 ; or (l + b) = 25 .......(j) (l - b) = 13 (Given in question) ......(ii) 48 From (i) and (ii), we get b = 6 metres and i = 19 metres Area of the rectangle = l x b = 19 x 6 = 114 m2 30. Two packs of cards are thoroughly mixed and shuffled and two cards are drawn at random, one after the other. What is the probability that both of them are Jacks ? (a) 1/13 (b) 2/13 (c) 7/1339 (d) 1/169 Ans. (c) Explanation: Total number of cards = 104 Total number of Jacks = 8 Probability for the jack in first draw = 8/104 and, probability for the jack in second draw = 7/103 Since both the events are independent events. Hence the probability that both of them are jacks = 31. A man starts walking in the north-easterly direction from a particular point. After walking a distance of 500 meters, he turns southward and walk a distance of 400 meters. At the end of this walk, he is situated (a) 300 metres north of the starting point (b) 100 metres north-east of the starting point (c) 300 metres east of the starting point (d) 100 metres north of the starting point Ans. (c) Explanation: In ABC, AC2 = AB2 - BC2 So at the end of this walk, he is situated at the distance of 300 m in the east of the starting point. 32. Examine the following statements : 1. George attends Music classes on Monday 2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday 3. His Literature classes are not on Friday 4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes 5. On Tuesday he attends his Sports classes If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free then he is also free on (a) Monday (b) Thursday (c) Saturday (d) Friday Ans. (b) Explanation: Geroge's activities Day Free Sunday Music class Monday Sports class Tuesday Mathematics class Wednesday History class Thursday Free Friday Literature class Saturday 49 (Literature class can be on Friday or Saturday but in statement 2, it is given that Literature class are not on Friday. Therefore, Literature class is on Saturday). So other than Sunday, he is also free on Friday. 33. Consider the following figures : Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from these figures ? (a) The areas of the three figures are all different (b) The areas of all the three figures are equal (c) The perimeters of the three figures are equal (d) The perimeters of figures I and II are equal Ans. (b) Explanation: Area of all three figures are : Area of rectangle = 9 x 4 = 36 sq. units Area of square = 62 = 36 sq. units Area of triangle = 1/2 x 8 x 9 = 36 sq. units Therefore, the areas of all the three figures are equal. 34. The following figure represents sales (in thousands) over the period 1978 to 1983 : The sales in 1981 exceeded that in 1979 by (a) Rs. one hundred (b) Rs. ten thousand (c) Rs. one lakh (d) Rs. ten lakhs Ans. (c) Explanation: Given, Sales in 1981 = 4,20,000 Sales in 1979 = 3,20,000 Therefore, increase in Sales in 1981 from 1979 is : 4,20,000 - 3,20,000 = 1,00,000 (or One lakh) 35. In an accurate clock, in a period of 2 Siours 20 minutes, the minutes hand will move over (a) 520° (b) 320° (c) 840° (d) 140° Ans. (c) Explanation: Angles of Minutes Hand in an Accurate Clock = 36. Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it should be testable and that it should be stated in a manner that it can be refuted. Which one of the following hypothese, fulfills these characteristics ? (a) Intelligent persons have good memory (b) Some birds are animals (c) Some businessmen are dishonest (d) All men are mortal Ans. (a) Explanation: According to both the characteristics of the hypothesis, hypothesis (a) only fulfills the characteristics because intelligent person can be tested positively and in case of refutation it also can shown that all the persons, having sound memory are not intelligent. Hypothesis (b) cannot be refuted as no bird can be claimed non-animal. Hypothesis (c) is testable but can not be refuted. Hypothesis (d) is neither testable nor refuted. 50 37. If the price of a television set is increased by 25%, then by what percentage should the new price be reduced to bring the price back to the original level? (a) 15% (b) 25% (c) 20 % (d) 30% Ans.(c) Explanation: Let the price of television set = Rs. 100 According to question, Increased price will be (100 + 25) Rs.125 Reduction in price to its original level = 125 - 25 = Rs.100 Percentage Reduction = 38. The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990, and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates. Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt ? (a) In 1970 half of the illiterates were women (female) (b) The proportion of literate males to the total population of males remained the same over the years (c) Male literacy did not improve over this period (d) The ratio of female literates to male literates improve significantly over this period Ans. (d) Explanation: After considering the given pie charts, it can be said that the ratio of female literaates to male literates improved significantly over the period. 39. If A = x2 - y2, B = 20 and x + y = 10, then (a) A is greater than B (b) B is greater than A (c) A is equal than B (d) it is not possible to compare A and B as the data provided is inadequate Ans. (d) Explanation: x + y = 10 and, A = x2 - y2 A = (x + y)(x-y) = 10(x-y) B = 20 It is not possible to compare A and B as the data provided is inadequate or until values of x and y are not given. 1997 40. A rectangular plot of lawn shown in the figure has dimensions ‘x’ and 6y’ and is surrounded by a gravel pathway of width 2 m. What is the total area of the pathway ? (a) 2x + 2y + 4 (b) 2x + 2y + 8 (c) 4x + 4y + 8 (d) 4x + 4y + 16 Arts. (d) Explanation: Length of lawn including pathway = x + 4 Breadth of lawn including pathway = y + 4 Area of pathway = Area of lawn including pathway - Area of lawn = (x + 4)(y + 4) - xy = (xy + 4x + 4y+16) - xy = 4x + 4y+ 16 51 41. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 1000/-. What will be the monthly average income of a person in the same family if the income of one person will be increased by Rs. 12000/-per year ? (a) 1200/(b) 1600/(c) 2000/(d) 3400/Ans. (a) Explanation: Average monthly income of a person in a family is Rs.1000 Total income of that family in a month = 1000x5 = Rs.5000 Total income in a year = 5000 x 12 = Rs. 60,000 If the income of one person increased by Rs. 12,000 per year, then the toal income of that family increased to 60,000 +12,000 = Rs. 72,000 Total income in a month increased from Rs. 5000 to Rs. 6000 and, average monthly income will be 6000/5 = Rs. 1200 42. In the given figure, if QRS is an equilateral triangle and QTS is an isosceles triangle and x = 47°, then the value (in degrees) of y will be (a) 13 (b) 23 (c) 33 (d) 43 Ans. (a) Explanation: Each angie of an equilateral triangle = 60° and, in an isosceles triangle, opposite sides are equal. Therefore TQS will be 47° and RQS = 60° So, y = RQS - TQS = 60° - 47° = 13° 43. In the series of POQ, SRT, VUW, .... the blank space refers to (a)XYZ (b) XZY (c) YXZ (d) YZX Ans. (c) Explanation: In the series of alphabets O comes before P R comes before S U comes before V Therefore, YXZ is the answer as X comes before Y. 44. There are three drawers in a table. One contains two gold coins, another two silver coins, and the third, a silver coin and a gold coin. One of the drawers is pulled out and a coin is taken out. It turns out to be a silver coin. What is the probability of drawing a gold coin, if one of the other two drawers is pulled out next and one of the coins in it is drawn at random? (a) 37.5% (b) 50% (c) 62.5 % (d) 75% Ans. (b) 45. In the following figure : P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400 km north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is : (a) 250 km (b) 300 km (c) 350 km (d) km Ans. (a) Explanation: QR = PQ/2 = 500/2 = 250 46. When three coins are tossed together the probability that all coins have the same face up is (a) 1/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/12 52 Ans. (c) Explanation: Probability of head or tail on up side for a coin = 1/2 Probability of same side up for the three coins 47. The number of students in two sections A and B having different heights is shown in the following table : Height (in metres) No. of students with their height in Section A in Section B 1.55 3 2 1.60 7 6 1.62 12 14 1.65 15 14 1.68 8 9 1.71 6 5 1.75 3 4 The ratio of the number of students of a particular height in Section A to that in Section B is the maximum for the height of (a) 1.55 m (b) 1.60 m (c) 1.65 m (d) 1.71 m Ans. (a) Explanation: If we calculate the ratios of A and B for all the height categories, we found the largest value of A/B at the height of 1-55 (i.e. 3/2). 48. The following table shows the percent change in the amount of sales (in rupees) at different retail stores in a given neighbourhood market in the period 1993 to 1995 : Retail Store Percent Change 1993 to 1994 1994 to 1995 Anshu +10 -10 Borna - 20 +9 Calpo +5 +12 Dilip -7 -15 Elegant +17 -8 If the sales at Anshu store amounted to Rs. 8 lakhs in 1993, then the amount of sales (in lakhs of rupees) at that store in 1995 was : (a) 7.92 (b) 8.00 (c) 8.80 (d) 9.68 Ans. (a) Explanation: Sales at Anshu store in 1993 = Rs. 8 lakh Sales in 1994 = lakh = Rs. 8.8 lakh and, Sales in 1995 = lakh = Rs. 7.92 lakh 49. If the numbers representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of measurement will be (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Ans. (d) Explanation: Let the side of cube be x Volume of cube = Surface area of cube (given) x3 = 6 x 2 x=6 53 50. The length, breadth and height of a room are T, ‘b’ and ‘h’ respectively. The perimeter of the ceiling expressed as a percentage of the total area of the four walls is (a) 100 h (b) (c) h (d) Ans. (b) Explanation : Total area of four walls = 2h(l + b) Perimeter of the ceiling = 2(1+b) Perimeter of the ceiling expressed as a percentage of the total area of four walls 51. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and Y participate in and finish all the events of a series of swimming races. There are no ties at the finish of any of the events. V always finishes somewhere ahead of P. P always finishes somewhere ahead of Q. Either R finishes first and T finishes last or S finishes first and I) or Q finishes last. If in a particlar race V finished fifth, then which one of the following would be true ? (a) S finishes first (b) R finishes second (c) T finishes third (d) R finishes fourth Ans. (a) Explanation: There are 7 persons. V ahead of P P ahead of Q V PQ Also R = 1st and T = last (or) S = 1st and U or Q last In a particular race V = fifth Since 'Q' is last 'S' is 1st 52. Consider the following : 1. Saxena, David, Jain and Kumar were District Collectors at places P, Q, R and S respectively in 1970 2. In 1972, they were transferred. Saxena and Jain interchanged places. Kumar and David also interchanged places. 3. One year later in 1973, they were again transferred such that David and Jain interchanged places and Saxena and Kumar were also interchanged. What should be the next round of transfers so that ail the four persons could have been posted at all the four places ? (a) Interchange Saxena and Davis as well as Jain and Kumar (b) Interchange Saxena and Kumar as well as David and Jain (c) Interchange David and Kumar as well as Saxena and Jain (d) It is not possible for all the four persons to have been posted at all the four places Ans. (c) Explanation: Name Districts 54 1970 53. 54. 55. 56. 1972 1973 Next Saxena P R Q S David Q S P R Jain R P S Q Kumar S Q R P In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages and one person can speak all tSie three languages, then how many persons are there in the group ? (a) 2 1 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 Ans. (d) Explanation: Number of persons who can speak Tamil, Hindi and Gujarati = 27 Two persons can speak 2 languages and one can speak only 1 language in that group. But, the clause is that none can speak any other language. So, total number of persons are 27-3 = 24 Examine the following statements regarding a set of balls : 1. All balls are black 2. All balls are white 3. Only some balls are black 4. No balls are black Assuming that the balls can only be black or white, which two of the statements given above can both be true, but cannot both be false ? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. (a) Explanation: According to statements, only statements 1 and 4 can both be true because there may be situation for all balls to be black (1) or it may be no balls are black. Thus both can be true, but cannot be false. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/hr is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Ans. (a) Explanation: Speed of a boat in still water = Distance/Time taken Speed of boat in still water = 5 km/hr. As, river is opposing the boat, therefore speed of boat = 5 - 4 = 1 A survey was conducted on a sample of 1000 persons with reference to their knowledge of English, French and German. The results of the survey are presented in the given Venn diagrams. The ratio of the number of the persons who do not know any of the three languages to those who know all the three languages is (a) (b) Ans. (b) Explanation: Total number of persons = 1000 (c) 55 (d) Number of persons who know only English = 200 Number of persons who know only French = 180 Number of persons who know only German = 170 Number of persons who know any two languages = 78 + 85 + 105 = 268 Number of persons who know three languages = 175 The number of persons who know languages = 200 + 180 + 170 + 268 + 175 = 993 The number of persons who do not know any language = 1000 - 993 = 7 and, number of persons who know all three languages = 175 Required ratio = 7/175 = 1/25 57. Consider the figures given below : In the given sequence of figures, the figure that would logically appear at SI. No. 5 is Ans. (a) Explanation : 58. The number of times in a day the Hour-hand and the Minute-hand of a clock are at rights angles is (a) 44 (b) 4 8 (c) 24 (d) 12 Ans. (b) Explanation: In an hour, the Hour-hand and the Minute-Hand makes right angles twice. So in a day (24 hours), the number of times right angles will be made is 24 x 2 = 48 198 I 59. Production of Rice and Wheat (In millions of Tonnes) Year Rice Wheat Percentage of Wheat to Rice 1950-51 20.58 6.46 31.4 1960-61 34.58 11.00 31.8 1970-71 42.22 23.83 56.4 1980-81 53.63 36.31 67.7 1990-91 74.29 55.14 74.2 1994-95 81.81 65.77 80.4 1995-96 79.62 62.62 78.6 The above table indicates the performance in India in rice and wheat production from 1950-51 to 1995-96. Which of the following conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid ? 1. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994-95 2. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily increased over 16 years. 3. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before 1980. 4. India became self-sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) None Ans. (a) 60. LMNOP, is a semicircle with center at R and diameter LP, LSR and RQP are also semicircles with centers at T and U and diameters LR = RP = 1/2 LR The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and LSRQP is 56 (a) 0.75 : 1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1 : 0.75 (d) 1.25 :1 Arts. (b) Explanation: Let LP = xm, then, Perimeter of semi-circle = Perimeter of LSRQP = Ratio of Perimter of LMNOP and LSRQP is 1 : 1. 61. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs. 650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing price of A and B respectively (a) Rs. 225 ; Rs.425 (b) Rs.250 ; Rs.400 (c) Rs. 275 ; Rs.375 (d) Rs.300 ; Rs.350 Ans. (b) Explanation: Let the purchasing price of Clock A = Rs. x then, purchasing price of Clock B = Rs. (650-x) Selling price of Selling price of 8x = 320 - 5x x = 3250/13 = Rs.250 Purchasing price of Clock A = Rs.250 and, purchasing price of Clock B = Rs. (650 - 250) = Rs.400 62. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days ? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 14 (d) 21 Ans. (d) Explanation: It takes 7 days to fill a tank with 15 pumps of equal capacity. In order to fill a tank in one day, it will take 15x7 days In order to fill that tank in 5 days, it takes 63. Out of three annual examinations, each with a total of 500 marks, a student secured average marks of 45% and 55% in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual examination ? (a) 450 (b) 400 (c) 350 (d) 300 Ans. (b) Explanation : To secure 60% average, the total marks to be obtained in first, second and third annual examination According to 45% average, total marks in first annual exam According to 55% average, total marks in second annual exam Required marks in third annual exam = 900 - (225 + 275) = 400 64. Which one of the following satisfied the relationship Dda : aDD : : Rrb : ? (a) D D A (b) R R R (c) b R R (d) B B r Ans. (c) Explanation: Similarly, 57 65. A square pond has 2 m sides and is 1 m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then what would be the volume of earth to be removed ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Explanation : Diameter of circular pond = Radius of circular pond = Volume of earth to be ramove = volume of circular pond - volume of square pond = 66. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. What will be its velocity after 3 seconds ? (a) 9.8 m/s (b) 19.6 m/s (c) 29.4 m/s (d) 39.2 m/s Ans. (c) Explanation: Acceleration (a) - 9.8 Time (t) = 3 seconds and, u = 0 Velocity (V) = u + at V = 0 + 9.8 x 3 = 29.4 m/s 67. One local and another express trains were proceeding in the same, direction on paralled tracks at 29 km/hour and 65 km/hour respectively. The driver of the former notices that it look exactly 16 seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train ? (a) 60 m (b) 120 m (c) 160 m (d) 240 m Ans. (c) Explanation: Difference of Express Train to Local Train = 65 - 29 = 36 km/hr. = 36 x (5/18) m/sec = 10 m/sec. Length of Express train = 10 x 16 = 160 metre 68. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is betwwen D and F, C is opposite D, and D & E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs ? . (a) A and B (b) C and E (c) B and F (d) A and C Ans. (b) Explanation: The sitting arrangement is So, the pair C and E is sitting on the neighbouring seats. 69. If in a certain code SAND is VDOG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE (a) PRYG (b) ORTG (c) NPUH (d) ORYH Ans. (d) Explanation: Similarly, 58 70. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother? (a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years (d) 60 years Ans. (d) Explanation: Let the age of mother = x years So, the age of son = x/2 years Age of husband = x + 9 years Age of Daughter = x/2 - 7 According to question, x + 9 = 3(x/2 - 7) or, 2x + 18 = 3x - 42 or, x = 60 years Hence, the age of mother is 60 years. 71. The missing fraction in the series given below is : (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (b) Explanation: 72. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 studentds can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English ? (a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively (b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively (c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively (d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively Ans. (d) Explanation: No. of Students who can speak Hindi in classroon = 50 - 21 + 10 = 39 No. of students who can speak only Hindi = 50 - 21 = 29 No. of students whoc can speak only English = 21 - 10 = 11 73. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand has move 135°, the time would be (a) 7.30 (b) 6.30 (c) 8.00 (d) 9.30 Ans. (a) Explanation: Angle of 360° is covered by hour hand in 12 hours. So, angle of 135° is covered by hour hand in Thus, the required time = 74. In the above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage ? Ans. (c) 59 75. Examine the following statements: 1. All members of Mohan's family are honest. 2. Some members of Mohan's family are not employed. 3. Some employed persons are not honest. 4. Some honest persons are not employed. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? (a) All members of Mohan's family are employed (b) The employed members of Mohan's family are honest (c) The honest members of Mohan's family are not employed (d) The employed members of Mohan's family are not honest Ans. (b) Explanation : According to given conditions, only (b) is right and (a), (c) and (d) seems incorrect. 76. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above situation ? Ans. (a) 77. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C ? (a) G's brother (b) F's father (c) E's daughter (d) A's son Ans. (d) Explanation: From the given statements, we conclude that A, E, D and B are adults. F is the daughter of A and E. G is the daughter of B and D. F and G both are girl. E is married to A and has two children (C and F). Therefore, C is the son of A and E or A's son. 1999 78. In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, ........... the value of ’X’ is (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 29 Ans. (c) Explanation: 5 + 8 = 13 8 + 13 = 21 13 + 21 = 34 21 + 34 = 55 34 + 55 = 89 79. On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky, are 'sky', 'light', 'air', ’water' and 'earth* respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink ? (a) Sky (b) Water (c) Air (d) Light 60 Ans. (d) Explanation: On other planet the terminology for 'water' is 'light'. So, if someone is thristy there, he would drink 'light'. 80. The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% less than that of the return journey. The trains halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to and fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is (a) 45 km per hour (b) 47.06 km per hour (c) 50.00 km per hour (d) 56.25 km per hour Ans. (d) Explanation : Let return speed of train is x km/hr. Onward speed of a train Total distance = 800 km One side distance = 400 km According to question, (Train halts for 1 hour) 81. In a town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car, 65% families own neither a phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following statements in this regard : 1. 10% families own both a car and a phone. 2. 35% families own either a car or a phone. 3. 40,000 families live in the town. Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) Explanation: Suppose x% families own a phone and a car. (25 - x) + x + (15 - x) + 65 = 100 x=5 5% families own a phone and a car. Car or phone families % = (25 - 5) + 5 + (15 - 5) = 35 Total families lived in town = Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct. 82. The yield versus fertilizer input is shown in the graph. Consider the following statements based on this graph : 1. Yield rate is zero at B and C. 2. There is no yield with no fertilizer input. 3. The yield is minimum at D. 4. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C. Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: 61 Yield rate is not zero at B and C. There is yield (=20) with no fertilizer input. So, both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statements 3 and 4 are correct because yield is minimum (=8) at D and the yield is neither minimum not maximum at C (at C it is equal to 20). 83. In a code language, 'SOLID' is written as 'WPSLPIMFHA'. What does the code word "ATEXXQIBVO” refer to ? (a) EAGER (b) WAFER (c) WAGER (d) WATER Ans. (d) Explanation: S O L I D WP SL PI MF HA Similarly, So code 'ATEXXQIBVO' refers to 'WATER. 84. A company manufacturing air-conditioners has set a monthly target. The target and realised values are shown in the bar chart. Consider the following statements based on the chart: 1. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved. 2. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%. 3. The sales Department deserves a pat on the back. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 alone (b) 2 alone (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (b) 85. In a group of five people, K, L and M are ambitious, M. N and R are honest, L, M and N are. intelligent and K, N and R are industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include (a) K alone (b) L and R (c) M and N (d) none in the group Ans. (d) Explanation: K - a, ind L - a, int M - a, int, h N - h, int, ind R - h, ind (a = ambitious, h = honest, int = intelligent, ind = industrious) After considering tha bove information, we conclude that (d) is correct. 86. A man is standing on the 8m long shadow of a 6 m long pole. If the length of his shadow is 2.4m, what is the height of the man ? (a) 1.4 m (b) 1.6 m (c) 1.8 m (d) 2.0 m Ans. (c) Explanation: Height of man 87. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4:3:2, then the triangle (a) is obtuse (b) has one angle greater than 80° (c) is a right triangle (d) is acute Ans. (d) 62 Explanation: Let the angles are 4x, 3x, 2x 4x + 3x + 2x = 180° or x = 20° The angles are 80°, 60°, 40° is acute. 88. The surface area of a spherical dome-shaped roof of a cylindrical water tank shown in the figure is (a) 60 (b) 109 Ans. (b) Explanation: Let the diameter of the circel = r m 89. 90. 91. 92. (c) 120 (d) 300 AC = BC = 10 CE = 3 and CD = 2r - 3 AC x BC = CD x CE 10x 10 = 3(2 r - 3) r = 109/6 m The surface area of the the roof = If X + 2Y = 2X + Y, then X2 / Y2 is equal to (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: X + 2Y = 2X + Y or 2Y-Y=2X-X or X=Y X2 / Y2 = Y2 / Y2 = 1 A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both bowl and cylinder, then the volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel will be (a) (b) (c) 100 % (d) more than 100% (that is, some liquid will still be left in the bowl) Ans. (c) Explanation: Radius of the bowl = r Radius of the cylinder = r Cylinder height = 100r/150 = 2r/3 Volume of bowl = 2/3 Volume of cylinder = Percentage A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as lie fires, the monkey jumps down. The bullet will (a) hit the monkey at the point aimed (b) hit the monkey below the point aimed (c) hit the monkey above the point aimed (d) miss the monkey altogether Ans. (a) In an office, the distribution of work hours is as shown in the following table : No. of Staff Members No. of hours worked 5 0-19 12 20 - 24 25 25 - 29 40 30 - 34 63 15 35 - 39 8 40 - 45 Consider the following inferences drawn from the table : 1. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about 30. 2. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less than 25. 3. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours. Which of these inferences is/are valid ? (a) 1 alone (b) 2 alone (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are valid. In the table, it is not given that atleast 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours. 93. In a factory, quality assurance test is conduced on various samples for a specific characteristic value of the product. The values and the number of samples are as given in the following table : Characteristic value, X No. of Samples 10 3 11 7 12 10 13 15 14 28 15 33 16 24 17 11 18 10 19 6 20 3 Consider the following statements based on the table: 1. The probability that X 15 is 0.64 2. The probability that 13 < X 17 is greater than 0.64 3. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22 Which of the above statements is/are not true ? (a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) Explanation : Number of samples = 150 1. 2. 3. 94. At a given time, two players are standing on a play-field. The cartesian coordinates of their locations are (20, 60) and (-40, -20) units. What is the distance between players ? (a) 60 units (b) 80 units (c) 100 units (d) 140 units Ans. (c) Explanation: Cartesian coordinate of first player = (20, 60) units Second player = (-40, -20) units Distance = units units 64 95. The area of an ellipse is twice that of a circle. The major diameter of the ellipse is twice that of the minor diameter. The radius of the circle is (a) 50% of minor diameter of the ellipse (b) 50% of major diameter of the ellipse (c) minor diameter of the ellipse (d) major diameter of the ellipse Ans. (a) Explanation: Let the minor diameter of ellipse = 2b Major diameter of ellipse = 2a = 2 x2b 2a = 4b or a = 2b Let the radius of circle = r then, or, Radius of circle = 1/2 minor diameter of ellipse = 50% of minor diamter of the ellipse 96. Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being looked after by a matron Farah. Amar weighs 50% more than Akbar and Anthony weighs 25% less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the combined weight of the three boys. All four together weigh 232 kg. The correct arrangement of the person in the ascending order of their weights is (a) Anthony, Akbar, Farah, Amar (b) Anthony, Akbar, Amar, Farah (c) Akbar, Anthony, Amar, Farah (d) Akbar, Anthony, Farah, Amar Ans. (d) Explanation: Let the weight of Akbar = l00 x kg Then weight of Amar = 150 x kg and, weight of Anthony = 75% of 150x = 112.50x kg and, weight of Farah = The ascending order according to their weight is Akbar, Anthony, Farah and Amar. 2000 97. Consider the following pictures of a dice: What is the number opposite 3 ? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) Data insufficient Ans. (b) Explanation: From figure 1 and 2, it is clear that 2 is adjacent to 3 & 4 is adjacent to 2. Hence, 4 must be opposite to 3. 98. Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F : 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. 4. B is the son of A. 5. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above ? (a) A, B and C are all females (b) A is the husband of D 65 (c) E and F are children of D (d) D is the granddaughter of F Ans. (b) Explanation : According to the statements given above the family be appears as : Clearly, D is the wife of A or A is the husband of D. 99. The given diagram shows the number of students who failed in an examination comprising papers in English, Hindi and Mathematics. The total number of students who took the test is 500. What is the percentage of students who failed in atleast two subjects ? (a) 6.8 (b) 7.8 (c) 3 4 (d) 39 Ans. (b) Explanation: Total number of students to be appeared in Examination = 500 No. of students who failed in atleast two subjects = 10+12 + 12 + 5 = 39 As, 39 students are failed out of total 500 students. So, the percentage will be 39x100/500 = 7.8 100. In a certain code, MARCH is written as OCTEJ, how is RETURN written in that code ? (a) TFUVSM (b) QGSTQM (c) TGVWTP (d) TGRVSO Ans. (c) Explanation : Similarly, 101. A, B, C,: D, E and F not necessarily in that order are sitting in six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F C is opposite D D and E are not on neighbouring chair? Which one of the following must be true? (a) A is opposite B (b) D is opposite E (c) C and B are neighbours (d) B and E are neighbours Ans. (d) Explanation: According to the statements the sitting arrangement is shown in the figure : From above we conclude that, B and E are neighbours. 102. In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall If these boys constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-third of the number of students in the class, then what is the number of girls in the class ? (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24 Ans. (b) Explanation: Let the total number of students = x No. of boys = 2/3 x Given, three-fourt of total boys = 18 Therefore, x = 36 So, total students = 36 66 103. 104. 105. 106. Total boys = Therefore, number of Girls = 36 - 24 = 12 A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm is rolled into a cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting the cylinder is Rs. 50/- per square meter, then what will be the cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder ? (a) Rs. 25.00 (b) Rs. 37.50 (c) Rs. 75.00 (d) Rs. 87.50 Ans. (a) Explanation: The area of the iron-sheet will be the area of the outer surface of the cylinder which is 0.5 m x 1 m = 0.5 m2 The cost of painting this at the rate of Rs. 50 per square metre will be 0.5 x 50 = Rs. 25 In an examination, every candidate took physics or mathematics or both 65.8 % took physics and 59.2% took mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many candidates took both physics and mathematics ? (a) 750 (b) 500 (c) 250 (d) 125 Ans. (b) Explanation : Assuming total number of candidates = 100 65.8 took physics and 59.2 took maths. By adding those, we get, 65.8 + 59.2 = 125 But there are 100 students, so 25 of them took both subjects. Actual candidates are 2000. Therefore, candidates who took both Physics and Maths are 20 x 25 = 500 A bag contains 20 bails. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking atleast one ball of each colour ? (a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 16 Ans. (d) Explanation: Since, 8 Green balls + 7 White balls = 15 balls 7 White balls + 5 Red balls = 12 balls and, 8 Green balls + 5 Red balls = 13 balls So, it is clear that if we pick more than 15 balls (i.e. 16 balls or more), then it is sure that there will atleast one ball of each colour. Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest ? (a) A square with an area of 36 sq. cm. (b) An equilateral triangle with a side of 9 cm. (c) A rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq. cm. as area (d) A circle with a radius of 4 cm. Ans. (c) Explanation: In (a) Perimeter of Square = In (b) Perimeter of Eq. Triangle = 9 x 3 = 27 cm In c) Perimeter of Rectangle = (10 + 40) x 2 = 100 cm In (d) Permieter of Circle = 2 x 4 x 3.14 = 25.12 cm Cleariy, rectangle has the highest perimeter. 107. In the given figure OQP = 30° and ORP = 20°, QOR is equal to 67 (a) 100° Ans. (a) Explanation: (b) 120° (c) 130° (d) 140° As OP = OQ (radii of the same circle) OPQ = OQP = 30° and OR = OP ORP = OPR = 20° QPR = OPQ + OPR = 50° QOR = 2 x OPR = 2 x 50° = 100° (because the angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of circle). 108. A club has 108 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club? (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 27 (d) 30 Ans. (c) Explanation: No. of men in the club = 108 x (2/3) = 72 No. of women = 108 - 72 = 36 No. of unmarried women in the club .= Total no. of women - Total no. of unmarried women = 36 - 9 = 27 109. The following figure represents times vs. learning curves of two students, Q and R for learning a mathematics lesson Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graplr ? (a) R started slowly in the beginning but got ahead of Q to complete learning the lesson (b) Q started slowly and finished learning the lesson earlier then R (c) R was always faster than Q in learning mathematics (d) Q was always faster than R in learning mathematics Ans. (a) Explanation: Since the graph shows that R started slowly in the beginning but R completed learning the lesson in a lesser period than Q. So (a) is the correct answer. 110. A goat is tied to two poles P and Q with ropes that are 15 meters long. P and Q are 20 meters apart as shown in the given diagram Which one of the following shaded portions indicates the total area over which the goat can graze ? Ans. (c) Explanation: The goat is tied to two poles P and Q with ropes, then it will move in the form of an arc. Only (c) is showing the case. 111. A person starts from a point A and travels 3 km eastwards to B and then turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He again turns left and travels five times the distance he covered between A and B and reaches his destination D. The shortest distance between the starting point and destination is 68 (a) 18 km Ans. (c) Explanation: (b) 16 km (c) 15 km (d) 12 km If D is the destination, AD is the shortest distance to the starting point. AD is the hypoteneous of a right-angled triangle So, applying the Pythagorus Theorem, we get, AD2 = 122 + 92 or, AD = 15 km. 112. The distribution of 1,00,000 tourists who visited India during a particular year is shown in the given charts. Based on this, the number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 who visited India in the year concerned is (a) 10,000 (b) 8,000 (c) 6,000 (d) 4,000 Ans. (d) Explanation: Total number of Japanese in the given visitors = 1,00,000 x (20/100) = 20,000 Total no. of Japanese over the age of 50 years = 20.000 x (60/100) = 12,000 No. of Japanese between the age of 40 to 49 = 20.000 x (20/100) = 4,000 No. of Japanese below the age of 39 = Total no. of Tourists - (No. of Japanese over 50 + No. of Japanese between age of 40 to 49) = 20,000 - (12,000 + 4,000) = 4,000 So, the number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 are 4,000. 113. What is maximum number of pieces of 5 cm x 5 cm x 10 cm cake that can be cut from - a big cake of 5 cm x 30 cm x 30 cm size? (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 30 Ans. (c) Explanation: The number of pieces of cake would be : 114. A rectangular water tank measures 15 m x 6 m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn out lowering the level by 1 meter, how much of water has been drawn out ? (a) 90,000 litres (b) 45,000 litres (c) 4,500 litres (d) 900 litres Ans. (a) Explanation: Volume of water removed from the tank = 15 x 6 x 1 = 90 cubic metres = 90,000 litres (1 cubic metre = 1000 litres) 115. An accurate clock shows 8 O' clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 O’clock in the afternoon? (a) 150° (b) 144° (c) 168° (d) 180° Ans. (d) Explanation: Since in a clock, hour hand completes an angle of 360° in 12 hours and there is a gap of 6 hours between 8 A.M. and 2 P.M. So, in 6 hours, hour hand will rotate at an angle of 180°. 69 116. The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, both save Rs. 600/- per month. What is their total monthly income? (a) Rs.8,400 /(b) Rs.5,600/(c) Rs.4,200 /(d) Rs.2,800/Ans. (c) Explanation: Let Komal's income = 4x and, Asha's income = 3x According to the question, 8x - 1200 = 9x - 1800 x = 600 So, their total income will be 4 x (600) + 3 x 600 = Rs. 4200 117. If X = - 2, then X3 - X2 - X - 1 is equal to (a) 1 (b) - 3 (c) -11 (d) - 15 Ans. (d) Explanation: Given, X = -2 X3 - X2 - X - 1 = (-2)3 - (-2)2 - (-2) - 1 = - 8 - 4 + 2 - 1 = -11 118. In the given figure, all line segments of the shaded portions are of the same length and at right angles to each other. The same can be cut out of a board of side 10 cm. What is the area of the shaded portion ? (a) 36 cm2 (b) 48 cm2 (c) 52 cm2 (d) 64 cm2 Ans. (c) Explanation : Let length of small side be 'x' cm. 5x = 10 , So x = 2cm There are 13 squares in the shaded region of the figure. So, the area of shaded portion = 13 x 22 = 13 x 4 = 52 cm2 2001 119. A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the number of literate females is (a) 24,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 54,000 (d) 60,000 Ans. (a) Explanation: Total population = 3,00,000 Total males = 1,80,000 Total literates = 50% of . total population = 1,50,000 Male literates = 70% of males = 1,80,000 x = 1,26,000 So, female literates = 1,50,000 - 1,26,000 = 24,000 120. In a survey, it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile phone. If 55% owned both a car and a mobile phone, what per cent of those surveyed owned a car or a mobile phone or both.? (a) 65 % (b) 80 % (c) 85 % (d) 97.5 % Ans. (c) Explanation : % of car owners = 80 % of mobile phone owners = 60 % having both car + mobile = 55 70 % having only car = 80-55 = 25 % having only mobile phone = 60 - 55 = 5 % having both car or mobile phone = 55 Total % having a car or mobile phone or both = 55 + 25 + 5 = 85 121. In 1930, a person's age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father's age became ten times that of his son's age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were, respectively (a) 16 years, 58 years (b) 15 years, 50 years (c) 14 years, 42 years (d) 13 years, 34 years Ans. (c) Explanation: Let son's age in 1930 be x years. Then father's age in 1930 will be 8x years. In 1938, father's age = (8x + 8) According to question, 8x + 8 = 10x or, x = 4 Son's age in 1930 = 4 years and age of his father = 32 years In 1940 the age of son and his father were 14 years (4+10) and 42 years (32+10) respectively. 122. A circle of 1 m radius is drawn inside a square as shown in the figure given above. What is the area of the shaded portion in m2 ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (d) Explanation Area of shaded portion = (Area of Square - Area of Circle) = 123. Most guitarists are bearded males. If A represents all males, B represents beared males and C represents all male guitarists, then the correct diagram for their relation (shaded portion) is Ans. (a) Explanation: Since circle A represents all males and B represents beared male and C represents all male guitarists. It means that some guitarists are beared male, b, c, d diagrams are representing other than males also. So, option 'a' is correct. 124. In the above figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB = BC and BAC = 70°, then ADC is (a) 400 (b) 800 (c) 1100 (d) 1400 Ans. (d) Explanation: Consider the triangle ABC. It is an isosceles triangle. BAC = BAC = 70° ABC = 40° Now, consider ABCD. The sum of a pair of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180°. ABC + ADC = 80° ADC = 180° - 40° =140° 71 125. Anand must be a vegetarian because he is a Buddhist. The argument assumed that (a) most Buddhists are vegetarians (b) all Buddhists are vegetarians (c) only Buddhists are vegetarians (d) most vegetarians are Buddhists Ans. (b) Explanation : The argument assumed that all Buddhists are vegetarians. 126. The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S, T from 1986 to 1988 : Per cent change Town From 1986 to 1987 From 1987 to 1988 P +8 -18 Q - 15 +11 R +6 +9 S -7 -5 T +13 -6 If town T consumed 500,000 units in 1986, how much did it consume in 1988 ? (a) 371,000 units (b) 531,100 units (c) 551,100 units (d) 571,100 units Ans. (b) Explanation : T's consumption in 1986 = 5,00,000 units T's consumption in 1987 = 500000 x = 5,65,000 T's consumption in 1988 = 565000 x = 5,31,100 units 127. A person travels from X to Y at a speed of 40 kmph and returns by increasing his speed by 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips ? (a) 36 kmph (b) 45 kmph (c) 48 kmph (d) 50 kmph Ans. (c) Explanation: Speed from x to y = 40 km/hr Speed from y to x = 40 x = 60 km / hr Since the distance travelled is same, the average speed 128. Solve the given equations : x2 + y2 = 34 x4 - y4 = 544 The values of x and y are (a) ± 4, ± 3 (b) ± 5, ± 3 (c)± 3, ± 5 (d) ± 3, ± 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: x2 + y2 = 34 x4 - y4 = 544 or (x2 + y2) (x2 - y2) = 544 34 (x2 - y2) = 544 (x2 - y2) = 544 / 34 = 16 Now, (x2 + y2) = 34 ......(i) (x2 - y2) = 16 ...... (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = ± 5 and y = ±3 129. A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/ hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is (a) 4 km (b) 5 km (c) 6 km (d) 7 km 72 Ans. (b) Explanation : Distance (s) = Velocity (v) x time (t) The distance is samein both the cases s = x (t + 3) as v = 5/60 = 1/12 km/min.............(i) s = x (t - 7) as v = 6/60 = 1/10 km/min..............(ii) x (t + 3)= x (t - 7) or, t = 57 minutes Hence, Distance (s) = x (57 + 3) = 5 km 130. A conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes, and a second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2 minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered, using both the conveyer belts ? (a) 25 minutes and 30 seconds (b) 30 minutes (c) 35 minutes (d) 40 minutes and 45 seconds Ans. (b) Explanation: The 1st belt delivers in 1 minute = 3/5 tons The 2nd belt delivers in 1 minute = 1/2 tons The two belts together deliver = (3/5 + 1/2) tons in 1 minutes = 11/10 tons in 1 minute So, the two belts together deliver 1 ton in 10/11 minutes Hence, two belts together deliver 33 tons in x 33 minutes = 30 minutes 131. Water is filled in a container in such a manner that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the container to be full, in how much time will it be one-fourth full ? (a) 7 minutes & 30 seconds (b) 10 minutes (c) 20 minutes (d) 25 minutes Ans. (c) Explanation: When time = 30 minutes, the tank is full. When time = 25 minutes, the tank is 1/2 full. When time = 20 min., the tank is 1/2 + 1/2 = 1/4 full. (Since the volume of the water filled, doubles after every 5 minutes) 2002 132. Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the East exactly at 6.48 p.m. on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise ? (a) 8.24 p.m. (b) 9.12 p.m. (c) 10.00 p.m. (d) 11.48 p.m. Ans. (b) Explanation: To complete one cycle moon takes 30 days. In one day it advances 24 x 60 x = 48 mts. On the first day, if it rises, in the East at 6.48 p.m. On the fourth day (i.e. after 3 days) it will be at 6.48 p.m. + (48x3) = 6.48 + 2.24 = 9.12 p.m. 133. A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube ? (a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 6 cm 73 Ans. (b) Explanation: If we keep 0.2 kg (=200 gms) mass, the cube immerse completely. If we remove this mass the cube is 2 cm above the water. So, exposed volume of the cube (= 2 x I x I) is equivalent to the mass kept on it. So, 2 x I x I = 200 gms 212 = 200 I = 10cm (as the weight is in grams, the length comes in cms). 134. A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving a rebate of 10% on the price fixed he made a profit of 15%. If the cost of the article is Rs. 72, the price fixed on it is (a) Rs.82.80 (b) Rs.90.00 (c) Rs.92.00 (d) Rs.97.80 Ans. (c) Explanation: Suppose fixed price is Rs. x Rebate is 10% Selling price = Cost = Rs.72 Profit should be at 15% x = 92, so the answer is 'c’. 135. Consider the volumes of the following : 1. A parallelopiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm. 2. A cube of each side 4 cm. 3. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm. 4. A sphere of radius 3 cm. The volumes of these in the decreasing order is (a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 Ans. (d) Explanation: 1. Volume of a Parallelopiped = length x breadth x height = 5 x 3 x 4 = 60 cm3 2. Volume of Cube = (side)3 = (4)3 = 64 cm3 3. Volume of Cylinder = = 3.14 x 32 x 3 = 84.78 cm3 4. Volume of Sphere = 4= 4 x 3.14 x 32 = 113.04cm3 So, order in descending order is 4, 3, 2, 1. Hence answer is (d). 136. A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can cross a 200 metre bridge in (a) 8 seconds (b) 14 seconds (c) 6 seconds (d) 15 seconds Ans. (b) Explanation : Distance = 200 + 150 = 350 m Speed = 90 km/hr = m / sec = 25 m / sec Time = Distance/Speed = 350/25 sec = 14 sec. 137. Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2 km/hr faster than the second lady and reaches B one hour before the second lady reaches A. The 74 two cities A and B are 24 km apart. IIow many kilometers does each lady travel in one hour ? (a) 5 km, 3 km (b) 7 km, 5 km (c) 8 km, 6 km (d) 16 km, 14 km Ans. (c) Explanation: Let the first lady walks at a speed of x km/hr Then, the second lady walks at the speed of (x - 2) km/hr First lady will reach B in 24/x hours Second lady will reach B is 24/(x - 2) hours According to question, 24x - 24(x - 2) = x(x - 2) 48 = x2 - 2x or, x2 - 2x - 48 = 0 (x - 8)(x + 6) = 0 x = 8 or x = -6 In the question, x must be positive. So, x = 8 Speed of second lady = (8 - 2) = 6 km/hr Hence, each lady travel 8 km and 6 km respectively, in one hour. 138. Am it started a business by investing Rs. 30,000. Rahul joined the business after some time and invested Rs. 20,000. At the end of the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2 : 1. After how many months did Rahul join the business ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Ans. (b) Explanation: 30000 x 12 : 20000 (12 - x) = 2 : 1 Solving above equation, we get x = 3 139. When the time in the wall-clock is 3.25 p.m. the acute angle between the hourshand and the minutes-hand is (a) 60° (b) (c) (d) 42° Ans. (c) Explanation: The angle between two numbers in a clock is 360° 12 = 30°. When the time is 3.25 p.m., the minutes hand will be on 5 and will have moved 60° from 3 and hour hand would be between 3 and 4 and it would have move . So the difference between two hands will be = 60° - 12.50° = 47.5° 140. The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years hence, his age will be double of the sum of the ages of his sons. The father’s present age is, (a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years (d) 55 years Ans. (b) Explanation: Suppose sum of ages of sons = X years and, age of their father = Y years "Given, Y = 3X ......(i) After 5 years, Father's age will be = Y + 5 Sum of his sons' age will be = X + 5 + 5 = X + 10 years Y + 5 = 2 (X+ 10) .......(ii) 75 Solving (i) and (ii), we get, X = 15 years and Y = 45 years So, the father's present age = 45 years 141. The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12 m long and 9 m wide and 8 m high is (a) 12 m (b) 14 m (c) 17 m (d) 21 m Ans. (c) Explanation: Length of longest Pole = Length of Diagonal of Cuboid 142. In a company, 60% of the employees are men. Of these 40% are drawing more than Rs. 50,000 per year. If 36% of the total employees of the company draw more than Rs. 50,000 per year, what is the percentage among women who are drawing less than Rs. 50,000 per year ? (a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 3 0 Ans. (a) ExplanationL Let total number of employees in the company = 100 Out of these 60 are men and 40 are women. If 40% of men drew more than Rs. 50,000 per year, the actual number will be x 60 = 24 According to question, 36% of total employees drew more than 50,000 per year, so the women in this category will be (36 - 24) = 12 Now, out of 40 women, 28 women are drawing less than Rs. 50,000 per year. Percentage wise, the number will be x 60 = 70 143. A bus is moving with a speed of 30 km/hr ahead of a car with a speed of 50 km/hr. How many kilometres apart are they if it takes 15 minutes for the car to catch up with the bus ? (a) 5 km (b) 7.5 km (c) 12.5 km (d) 15 km Ans. (a) Explanation: The speed of car compared to that of bus = 50 - 30 = 20 km/hr The difference in their distance = speed x time = 20 x (1/4) = 5 km 2003 144. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points, in a field. A cyclist ‘C’ moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle (c) The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve (d) This type of motion is not possible Ans. (b) Explanation: On this circular path, at any point the angle ACB is always a right angle. 145. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving (i) single flag of different colours, or (ii) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or 76 (iii) three flags in a different sequence of colours. The maximum number of codes that can be generated is (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 18 Ans. (c) Explanation: Let the three colours be Red, Blue, Yellow. From statement I, the codes can be R, B, Y (=3). From statement II, the codes can be RB, BR, RY, YB, BY, YB (= 6). From statement III, the codes can be RBY, BYR, YBR, RYB, BRY, YRB (= 6) Hence, total number of ways by chnging flag = 3 + 6 + 6 = 15 146. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is (a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr (c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr Ans. (a) Explanation: Let the total distance covered by the car be x km. Time taken to cover the first one third distance = Time taken to cover the second one third distance = Time taken to cover the last one third distance = Total time = 147. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at (a) 8.30 a.m. (b) 8.10 a.m. (c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m. Ans. (d) Explanation: Speed of A = 1 round per hour Speed of B = 6 rounds per hour Suppose, they meet after t hours Distance travelled by A = t x 1 rounds Distance travelled by B = t x 6 ronds Since, B has completed one additional round. (6t — 1) round = t round 5t = 1 hour t = 1/5 hour = 12 minutes A + B meet at 7-42 a.m. (7-30+12) 148. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is : (a) Rs. 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75 (c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50 Ans. (c) Explanation: As per given conditions, The first candle will burn for 2 hrs. The second candle will burn for 3 hrs. 77 149. 150. 151. 152. The third candle will burn for 4 hrs. So, after 4 hours, these candles will burn out and the fourth candle will also be extinguished. Thus, the total time = 13 hrs Required expenditure = 13 x 0.75 = Rs.9.75 A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three femaies. Amongst the females, Ms. A refused to be a member of the committee in which Mr.B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted ? (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 Ans. (d) Explanation: Total pairs = 5 x 3 = 15 Different ways in which the two-members committee, comprising of one male and one female. But 'A' refuses to be a member of the committee, in which 'B' is taken as the member, so the combination A-B is out of the picture. Thus, the committee can be consituted only in 14 different ways. Three bells toil at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again ? (a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m. (c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m. Ans. (c) Explanation: The L.C.M. of 9, 12, and 15 is 180. Therefore, the bells will toll together again after 180 minutes, i.e. 3 hours. The answer is 8 a.m. + 3 = 11 a.m. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is (a) 6 hrs. 45 minutes (b) 7 hrs. 45 minutes (c) 8 hrs. 15 minutes (d) 8 hrs. 30 minutes Ans. (b) Explanation: Let the time taken in one way walking = x minutes and, the time taken on one way cycling = y minutes Given, x + y = 5 hours and 45 minutes = 345 minutes 2y = 345-120 = 225 minutes [ he would have gained 2 hrs (=120 min.) by cycling both ways] y = 112.5 minutes y = 345 - 112.5 = 232.5 minutes 2x = 465 minutes i.e. 7 hours 45 minutes The time taken by him to walk both ways is 7 hrs. 45 min. 2004 Two cars X and Y starts from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other ? (a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m. (c) 4:10 p.m. (d) 4 : 20 p.m. Ans. (b) Explanation: 78 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. Suppose the car cross each other after 't‘ hour of their start. Distance moved by car X = 60 x (10-9) + 60 x {t - (10 - 9) - (11 - 10)} = 60 + 60(t - 2) Distance moved by car Y = 60 x t Total distance between them = 700 700 = (60 x t) + {60+ 60(t-2)} t = 760/120 hr = (760/120) x 60 min. = 380 min. or 6 hours and 20 min, The cars will meet at (6 hr & 20 min + 9 a.m.) 3.20 a.m. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that (i) no examinee has given the correct answer (ii) answers of no two examinees are identical What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test ? (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 119 (d) 129 Ans. (c) Explanation: Total number of combination where each item of A matches with its corresponding correct item under list B would be 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120 ways. Considering one examinee for each of these cases, as answers of no two examinees are identical the maximum number of examinees would be 120. Among these 120 combinations only one would be the right answer. So, these would be only 1 examinee who could give the rights answer. Considering the other condition that, no examinee has given the right answer, the maximum number of examinees would be 120- 1 = 119. The details given below relate to the FOUR items that follow : Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines - one each on politics, sports, science and films are available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not necessarily in that order) and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that (i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz (ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers (iii)the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers (iv)the magazine on science is edited by Ila For the following four items, select the correct answer : The magazine on science is published by (a) Aryan Publishers (b) Bharat Publishers (c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers Ans. (c) The magazine on sports is (a) edited by Feroz (b) edited by Gurbaksh (c) published by Bharat Publishers (d) published by Charan Publishers Ans. (a) The magazine on films is (a) published by Dev Publishers (b) published by Bharat Publishers (c) edited by Gurbaksh (d) published by Charan Publishers Ans. (b) The magazine on politics is 79 (a) edited by Ila (c) published by Dev Publishers Ans. (b) Explanation: 158. 159. 160. 161. (b) edited by Gurbaksh (d) published by Charan Publishers Based on this table, we can trace out the answers for 154, 155, 156, 157, as c, a, b, b respectively. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m. ? (a) Not even once (b) Once (c) Twice (d) Thrice Ans. (b) Explanation: Speed of A = 3 km/hr, time given = 5 & 1/2 hr distance travelled by A = 3xll/2 = 16.5 km Speed of B = 2.5 km/hr, time given = 5 & 1/2 hr distance travelled by B = 2.5 x 11/2 = 13-75 km Therefore, in the given time, the difference in the distance travelled by them = 2.75 km. The total extra distance need to be travelled by one in order to cross the other by at least once is = length of path around by the field = 400 + 400 + 300 + 300 = 1400 m = 1.4 km If they cross more than once then they need at least 1 - 4 x 2= 2.8 km difference between themselves, but because the difference is only 2.75 km, they can once cross each other. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done ? (a) 27 (b) 3 9 (c)93 (d) 39 - 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: First letter can be dropped into any of the three boxes. Corresponding to this case, the second can also be dropped into any of the three boxes and so on. Therefore, the number of ways in which the letters can be dropped = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 39 How many three - digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit ? (a) 120 (b) 210 (c) 365 (d) 405 Arts. (c) Explanation: According to given conditions, if 7 occur at the hundredth place, the digit at the tenth place would be 9. For this case the unit place can be filled in any of the five ways (0,2,4,6,8). Therefore no. of ways = 5 The number of ways for filling the hundredth place apart from the case of 7 would be (1,2,3,4,5,6,8,9) = 8 ways. Corresponding to each of these, the no. of ways for filling up the tenth place would be (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8) = 9 ways apart from 7 at the hundredth place = 8 x 9 x 5 = 360 ways Therefore, total no. of ways = 360 + 5 = 365 In how many different /ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee, are never together ? (a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 360 (d) 480 80 Ans. (d) Explanation: Considering the cases when the two are always together, we can group them together and treat them as a unit. Therefore, now considering five units the number of ways in which they can be arranged = 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 =120 ways. Now for each of these cases the two in themselves can exchange their position. Therefore, total no. of ways in which two would always be together would be 120 x 2 = 240 The total no. of ways of arranging all the six persons would be 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 720 ways Therefore, the no. of cases for which they would never be together would be 720 -240 = 480 162. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in (a) 45 days (b) 50 days (c) 54 days (d) 62 days Ans. (b) Explanation: 50 men can complete the work in 50 days. 1 man can do 1 / (50 x 50) work in 1 day. 50 women can complete the work in 50 days. 1 woman can do 1/(80x50) work in 1 day. 40 men in 10 days can do (40 x 10)/(50x50) = 4/25 of the work 48 women in 10 days can do 3/25 of the work Total work done by them in 10 days = 4/25 + 3/25 = 7/25 So, the work is still left. After removal of 5 men and 8 women, we can find the amount of work done by 35 men and 40 women in 10 days, which comes out to be 7/50 and 1/10 respectively. Total work done by them = 7/25 + 6/25 = 13/25 So, the work is still left. Again after removal of 5 men and 8 women, we can find the amount of work done by 30 men and 32 women in 10 days, which comes out to be 3/25 and 2/25 repsectively. Total work done by them = 5/25 Therefore, in 30 days they can do 13/25 + 5/25 = 18/25 work Again after removal of 5 men and 8 women, we can find the amount of work done by 25 men and 24 women in 10 days, which comes out to be 1/10 and 3/50 respectively. Total work done by them = 1/10 + 3/50 = 4/25 Therefore, in 40 days they can do 18/25 + 4/25 = 22/25 work Again after removal of 5 men and 8 women, we can find out the amount of work done by 20 men and 16 women in 10 days, which comes out to be 2/25 and 1/25 respectively. Total work done by them = 3/25 Therefore, in 50 days they can do 22/25 + 3/25 = 25/25 work Thus, the work gets completed. No. of days are 10+10+10+10+10 = 50 163. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is (a) (b) (c) (d) 81 Ans. (c) Explanation : The first student can have any day of the year as his birthday. Corresponding to the first person the second and the third person need to have the same day as their birthday. Therefore, the probability that they have identical birthdays is = 1 x (1/365) x (1/365) = (1/365)2 2005 164. 165. 166. 167. Directions (For the next FOUR items) : Based oe the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krishnan have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies 'in one of the cities given above. Further, it is given that : (i) GopaPs hometown is Ernakulam. (ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. (iii) Economic College is in Bhopal. (iv) Inder’s hometown is Cuttack. (v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi. (vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown, Ahmedabad. (vii) Engineering College is situatedin Ernakulam. Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items : Which is Krishnan’s hometown ? (a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack (c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined Ans. (c) Explanation: From the statements, we can drive that, Krishnan's hometown will not be Delhi. So, Harsh's hometown is Delhi and Krishnan's hometown is Bhopal. Which College is situated in Inder hometown ? (a) Commerce (b) Medical (c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical Ans. (d) Who studies in Bhopal ? (a) Goyal (b) Harsh (c) Gopal or Inder (d) Inder or Harsh Ans. (c) If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of Persons-Hometown-Place of Study ? (a) Gopal-Emakulam-Delhi (b) Jai-Ahmedabad-Emakulam (c) Krishnan-Delhi-Emakulam (d) Harsh-Bhopal-Delhi Ans. (b) Explanation: If Inder studies in A, one can conclude that Jain's hometown is Ahmedabad and he studies in Ernakulam. 82 168. 169. 170. 171. Condition : None of the 5 boys is studying in his home town based on the above figure we can find out answers for 164, 165, 166, 167 questions as 'c', 'd', 'c', *b* respectively. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shpkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan whilebuying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Ans. (a) Explanation : Let the purcahsed amount be 1100 g and the cost price of 1100 g be Rs. x. He pays for 1000 g and buys 1100 g Cost price of 1000 g = Net profit = Similarly, while selling, if he sells 1000 g, he would actually be selling 900 g at the price of 1000 g. Similarly, once again the profit would be x/11 Total profit = x/11 + x/11 = 2x/11 In terms of percentage, total profit would be 200/11. On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey ? (a) 14 (b) 4 8 (c) 96 (d) 108 Ans. (d) Explanation: In all the no. of stations = 10 + 2 + 4 = 16 So, for each station, no. of stations for which tickets are to be issued = 15 No. of tickets for each new station = 30 Total no. of tickets = (30x4)-(4x3) = 108 Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and start along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog? (a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres (c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres Ans. (d) Explanation: Let Rahul & Aryan meet at a distance of x from start. Rahul start after time = t 40 x (5 + t) = 501 200 + 40 t = 50 t 200 = 50 t - 40 t 200 = 10 t t = 20 minutes x = 50 x t = 50 x 20 = 1000 m. Dog has to move more than 1000 m. A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot ? 83 (a) 160 m x 27 m (b) 240 m x 18 m (c) 120 m x 36 m m Ans. (c) Explanation: Suppose the dimensions of the plot is x m y m (d) 135 m x 32 Area of original plot = Sum of areas of smaller plots Hence, its dimensions is 120 m x 36 m 172. 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats are vacant. One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers ? (a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 4 8 (d) 60 Ans. (b) Explanation: There would be 2 cases. Case (i) The lady sits on the reserved seat. No. of seats left = 4 2 men & 4 seats. 1 man can take any of the 4 seats. 2nd man can take any of the left 3 seats. No. of ways = 4x3 = 12 Case (ii) The lady does not sit on the reserved seat. Lady can take any of the 4 seats. 2 men, now can occupy any of the 3 seats. 1st man in one of the 3 seats 2nd man in one of the left over 2 seats. No. of ways = 4 x 3 x 2 = 24 Total no. of ways = 12 + 24 = 36 173. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done ? (a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 81 Ans. (d) Explanation: Total no. of ways in which balls can occupy squares, no condition is applied = 9C6 = 84 No. of ways in which one row is filled = 3 No. cases in which at least one ball occupies each row = 84 - 3 = 81 174. There are 6 persons — A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and C never sits anywhere ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done ? (a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 120 (d) None of the above Ans. (d) Explanation: 84 Total no. of ways in which they can take seat if no condition is applied = 6 ! = 720 According to given condition, C A & B will come in order C....,B.....,A Following cases need to be taken into account (i) ‘C’ at extreme left Let B take 2nd place from right, therefore A can sit in 1 way. If B takes 3rd place from right, A can sit in 2 ways. If B takes 4th place from right, A can sit in 3 ways. If B takes 5th place from right, A can sit in 4 ways. No. of ways from this case = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 (ii) ‘C’ at 2nd place from left Similarly {as in case (i)}, no. of ways of this case would be 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 (iii) ‘C’ at 3rd place from left No. of ways = 1 + 2 = 3 (iv) ‘C’ at 4th place from left No. of ways = 1 Total no. of ways = 10 + 6 + 3+1= 20 No. of ways when the given condition apply = 720-20 = 700 This option is not given. So, the answer is ‘d’ 175. 300'persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners, and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not judges; 160 are men judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no foreign judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting ? (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 60 Ans. (c) Explanation: Total persons attending the meeting = 300 Foreigners = 120, Indians = 300 120 = 180 Let the number of men judges = x Number of women who are not judges = y According to question, 110 + x + y + 35 = 180 x + y = 35 and, 110 + x + 35 = 160 x = 15 and y = 20 Total number of Indian women = Women judges + y = 35 + 20 = 55 176. There are 6 persons : A, B, C, D, E and F. A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E F has 3 items more than D Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons ? (a) 41 (b) 47 (c) 53 (d) 5 8 Ans. (c) Explanation: A=C+3 D = B-4 E = F-6 C=E+2 F = D+3 On adding these equations, we get, A = B - 2 Total no. of Articles = A + B + C + D + E + F = A+(A + 2)+(A - 3)+(A - 2)+(A 5)+(A + l) =6A-7 85 When A = 8, total no. of articles = 6 x8 - 7 = 41 When A = 9, total no. of articles = 6 x 9 - 7 = 47 When A = 10, total no. of articles = 6x10-7 = 53 177. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box ? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/5 (c) 2/9 (d) 2/11 Ans. (d) Explanation: n(S) = 11 Total number of ways all the ten balls lying on the same half of the box {n(E)} = 2 P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 2/11 178. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible value of n? (a) 196 (b) 216 (c) 256 (d) 296 Ans. (c) Explanation: When we divide equilateral triangle into small equilateral triangles, it would be in four parts. Further division shows, that it would be in a multiple of four. Therefore, answer should be in terms of power of four. 256 = 44, Hence (c) is the correct answer. 179. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face. In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which the 4T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces ? (a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) Not possible Ans. (a) Explanation: Total coins = 10 1st attempt : 4 coins are overturned = 6 left Ilnd attempt : 4 coins are overturned = 6 - 4 = 2 left Now, we take 1 from the left over 2 and any 3 from the previously turned ones. Finally the left over coins and the three coins from the preceding steps which have already been turned twice can be overturned One can complete the process in 4 attempts. 2006 180. A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). The positions of the hour-hand and the minute-hand of the watch are exactly interchanged. The new time shown by the watch is closest to which one of the following ? (a) Twelve minutes to three (b) Thirteen minutes to three (c) Fourteen minutes to three (d) Fifteen minutes to three Ans. (c) Explanation: 86 There are 60 divisions on a clock. Now, the time is 9:14, the minutes hand is On the 14th division. At the same time the hour hand is just above the 9 'O’ clock (i.e. 45th division), corresponding to the 14 minutes. The distance moved by the hour hand in 60 minutes is 5 divisions. So, the distance moved by it in 14 minutes is So, the hour hand's actual position is at division. If this tow hands are interchanged, the minutes hand will be at th division (and the hours hand will be at 14th division, nearer to the 15th division (or) 3 'o' dock). So the minutes hand will take approximately 14 minutes to reach the 60th division (or, 3'o' clock). So the answer is 'c'. 181. Each of 8 identical balls is to be placed in the squares shown in the figure given above in a horizontal direction such that one horizontal row contains 6 balls and the other horizontal row contains 2 balls. In how many maximum different ways can this be done ? (a) 38 (b) 28 (c) 16 (d) 14 Ans. (a) Explanation: Case I : 6 balls in row 3 and 2 balls in row 4. .Number of possibilities = 6C2=15 Case II : 6 balls in row 4 and 2 balls in row 3. Number of possibilities = 6C2=15 Case III : 6 balls in row 3 and 2 balls in row 1 or 2 or 5 or 6. Number of possibilities = 4 Case IV : 6 balls in row 4 and 2 balls in row 1 or 2 or 5 or 6. Number of possibilities = 4 Total numer of possibilities = 15 + 15 + 4 + 4 = 38 182. In a tournament each of the participants was to play one match against each of the other participants. 3 players fell ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament. What was the total number of participants at the beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75 ? (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15 Arts. (d) Explanation: Let the initial number be x. The three players played 9 matches. The rest of players (x - 3) would play each other. x-3C2+ 9 = 75 x = 15 183. P, Q, R, S and T reside in a 5 - storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further, 1. T does not reside on the topmost floor. 2. Q does not reside on the ground floor. 3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R. To know as to which one of the 5 persons resides on the ground, floor which of the above statements are sufficient / insufficient ? (a) 1 and 3 are sufficient (b) 2 and 3 are sufficient (c) 1, 2 and 3 are sufficient (d) 1, 2 and 3 are insufficient Ans. (d) 87 Explanation: From the given three statements, the number of ways 5 persons resides are shown below : Storey I II III 4 Q Q R 3 T R S 2 R S P 1 S P Q G P T T So, from these three ways, we conclude that either P or T can reside at ground floor. So, the statements are insufficient to know as to which one of the 5 persons reside on the gound floor. 184. A box contains 5 sets of balls while there are 3 balls in each set. Each set of balls has one colour which is different from every other set. What is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of balls of the same colour has been removed ? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 Ans. (a) Explanation : There are 15 balls in the box. There are 5 different colours. When 5 balls are removed, we may get 5 balls of different colours. When we remove 6th ball, it is of one of the colours which has already been removed. So, we can claim with certainty that a pair of balls of the same colour has been removed. 185. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the probability that their product is odd ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Arts. (c) Explanation: For product to be odd all the digits must be odd. No. of ways choosing 3 odd digits out of 5 = 5C3 = Total number of ways of choosing out of 9 = 9C3 = Probability = 30/252 = 5/42 186. What is the value of X in figure III ? (a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 25 (d) 3 6 Ans. (d) Explanation: (I) (II) (III) X = 36 satisfies equation (III). 187. Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to 6. This cube is shown in its four different positions in the figures I, II, III and IV. Consider the following statements : 1. Figures II and III are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 6. 2. Figures II and III are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 4. 3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to know as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 3. 88 Which of the statemensts given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 3, only (b) 1 and 2, only (c) 2 and 3, only Ans. (d) Explanation: (d) 1, 2 and 3 Figures II and III are sufficient to know the faces opposite to the face numbered '6' (that is 1), and the face numbered 4 (that is 3). Figures I and IV are sufficient to know the face opposite to the face numbered 3 (that is 4). So all statements are correct. 188. In a question paper, there are four multiple-choice questions. Each question has five choices with only one choice for its correct answer. What is the total number of ways in which a candidate will not get all the four answers correct ? (a) 19 (b) 120 (c) 624 (d) 1024 Ans. (c) Explanation: Total no. of ways = 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 = 625 The ways in which a candidate will get all the four answers correct is = 1 Total number of ways in which a candidate will not get all the four answers correct = 625 - 1 =624 189. There are 8 equidistant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the periphery of a circle. In a time interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant. How much time after the start, will the two persons meet each other ? (a) 4t (b) 71 (c)9t (d) Never Ans. (a) Explanation: If we assume that they meet after 'n' intervals 2n = (3n + 1) - 8 Since 'B' is 1 position ahead of 'A', we add T, from this total if we subtract 8 positions, then time taken by 'B' equals to that of A, because B can do 3 rounds in the same time as A can do 2 rounds. So, 2n = 3n - 7 -n= -7 n=7 So, in 7 time intervals (= 7t) both can meet. 190. Each of the five persons A, B, C , D and E possesses unequal number (<10) of similar items. A, B and C possess 21 items in all, while C, D and E possess 7 items in all. How many items do A and B possess in all ? (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) Data is insufficient Ans. (b) Explanation: A+B + C = 21 .....(i) C+D+E = 7 .....(ii) C, D, E can be 1, 2 or 4 (not in order) since their sum is 7 and all the values of persons are unequal. 89 C can have any value out of 1, 2 or 4. But value of C cannot be 1 or 2 as if its value is 1 or 2, then to satisfy the equation (i), the value of either A or B would have been 10 which is not possible because it is given that the value of each person is less than 10. So value of C is 4. A + B = 21 - 4 = 17 191. There are three parallel straight lines. Two points A and B are marked on the first line, points C and D are marked on the second line, and points E and F are marked on the third line. Each of these 6 points can move to any position on its respective straight line. Consider the following statements : 1. The maximum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is 18. 2. The minimum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is zero. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Maximum number of triangles can be drawn when all the points are noncollinear as shown in the figure. Number of tringles = 6C3 = Minimum number of triangles can be drawn when the points on each line coincide and on the same line which cuts all the three lines as shown in the figure. In that case no triangle can be formed. Hence, only statement 2 is correct. 192. A mixed doubles tennis game is to be played between two teams (each team consists of one male and one female). There are 4 married couples. No team is to consist of a husband and his wife. What is the maximum number of games that can be played ? (a) 12 (b) 2 1 (c) 36 (d) 42 Ans. (d) Explanation: Total no. of teams = 4 In order to constitute mixed double teams, in such a way that no team consists of a husband and his wife, the possible ways are 4 x 3 = 12 (as every man can form a team with 3 other women) To play a game at lest 2 teams are required, so 6 pairs of teams are possible. Each team can play 7 games (with 7 different teams) So, total no. of games, this 6 pairs of teams can play are 6 x 7 = 42. So, (d) is the answer. 193. In an office, the number of persons who take tea is twice the number of persons who take only coffee. The number of persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take only tea. Consider the following statements : 1. The sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both is four times the number of persons who take both coffee and tea. 90 2. The sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice the number of persons who take both tea and coffee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation : If we assume the number of persons who take only coffee as '10', then according to the given information above diagram can be drawn. Based on the above, (20 -x)2 = 10 + x 40-2xa = 10 + x 40 - 10 = 3x x = 10 No. of persons who take both coffee & tea (x) = 10 Statement (1) : The sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30. So, this statement is wrong. Statement (2) : The sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea = 10 + 10 = 20. This is twice the number of persons who take both tea and coffee (= 10). So, this statement is correct. Hence, answer is (b). 194. How many numbers are there in all from 6000 to 6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) having at least one of their digits repeated ? (a) 216 (b) 356 (c) 496 (d) 504 Ans, (c) Explanation: Total numbers between 6999 and 6000 is 1000. As the first digit is 6 always. Therefore, the numbers between 6999 and 6000 without repitition of any digit = 1 x 9 x 8 x 7 = 504 So, the number of ways in which at least one of their digits is repeated = 1000 504 = 496 ways. 195. Each of 2 women and 3 men is to occupy one chair out of 8 chairs, each of which is numbered from 1 to 8. First, women are to occupy any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then the 3 men would occupy any three chairs out of the remaining 6 chairs. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done ? (a) 40 (b) 132 (c) 1440 (d) 3660 Ans. (c) Explanation: Number of ways = 4 x 3 (for women) Number of ways = 6 x 5 x 4 (for men) Total number of ways = 4 x 3 x 6 x 5 x 4 =1440 2007 196. Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2 ? (a) 36 (b) 81 (c) 91 (d) 116 Ans. (c) Explanation: 91 When three dice are rolled, the no. of possible outcomes = 63 = 216 No. of possible outcomes in which '2' does not appear on any dice = 5 3 = 125 No. of possible outcomes in which atleast one dice shows ‘2’ = 216-125 = 91 197. All the six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in any one word. The words so formed are then arranged as in a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence ? (a) 436 (b) 590 (c) 601 (d) 751 Ans. (c) Explanation: If we arrange those letters in alphabetical order, it is ACHINS No. of words start with A = 5 ! = 120 No. of words start with C = 5 ! = 120 No. of words start with H = 5 ! = 120 No. of words start with I = 5 ! = 120 No. of words start with N = 5 ! = 120 And, SACHIN becomes the first word among the words that start with 'S'. So, SACHIN which comes after 120 x 5 = 600 words, will come at position no. 601. 198. Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three different boxes such that any box contains at least one ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done ? (a) 90 (b) 120 (c) 150 (d) 180 Ans. (c) Explanation: n = 5, r = 3 No. of ways = [rn - rC1( r -1)n + rC2 (r - 2)2 + ....] = 35 - 3C1(3 -1)5 + 3C2(3- 2)5 = 243 - 3(32) + 3(1) = 150 199. Amit has five friends : 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit’s wife also has 5 friends : 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s ? (a) 24 (b) 38 (c) 46 (d) 58 Ans. (c) Explanation: Possibilities to invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit's friends and two of them are his wife's friends 1. 2 boys (Amit's) + 2 girs (Wife's) 2. 2 girls (Amit's) + 2 boys (Wife's) 3. 1 girl (Amit's) + 1 girl (Wife's) + 1 boy (Amit's) + 1 boy (Wife's) Total no. of possibilities to satisfy the condition = (2C2 x 2C2) + (3C2 x 3C2)+(3C1 x 2C1 x 2C1 x 3C1) = (1 x 1) + (3 x 3) + (3 x 2 x 2 x 3) = 1 + 9 + 36 = 46 200. (Each small circle represents a different station) What is the maximum number of different paths that exist between the station A and station B ? (a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) 35 Ans. (b) 92 Explanation: at position 2 incoming outgoing Station a 3 3 Station b 4 3 Station c 3 2 Station d 2 2 Max. number of paths = 9 + 12 + 6 + 4 = 31 Total 3x3=9 4 x 3 = 12 3x2=6 2x2=4 201. In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in the small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball ? (a) 32 (b) 35 (c) 44 (d) 56 Ans. (b) Explanation: To have atleast one ball in each triangle first 4 balls are taken out to put them in 4 triangles. Now, no. of balls n = 4 no. of triangles = 4 No. of ways n + r-1 Cr-1 = 7C3 = 35 202. 6 equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equi-distant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines, and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed ? (a) 37 (b) 55 (c) 126 (d) 225 Ans. (b) Explanation: No. of squares in each row = 5 Total no. of squares 1 203. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done ? (a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 27 (d) 33 Ans. (c) 204. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face carrying one different number. Further, 1. The face 2 is opposite to the face 6. 2. The face 1 is opposite to the face 5. 3. The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5. 4. The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2. Which one of the following is correct ? (a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3 (b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4 (c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6 (d) None of the above Ans. (a) Explanation: For the given information face '2' is coming adjacent to face 3. 93 205. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys - A, B, C9 D and E such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of such different groups ? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c)7 (d) 8 Ans. (c) Explanation: 5 C3 - 3C1 = 206. In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in the 12 squares (each ball to be placed in the exact centre of the squares and only one ball is to be placed in one square) shown in the figure given above such that they do not lie along the same straight line ? (a) 144 (b) 200 (c) 204 (d) 216 Ans. (b) Explanation: 220 - 4 - (3 x 4C3) = 220 - 4 - 12 = 204 207. If ail the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times does the digit 6 appear ? (a) 138 (b) 139 (c) 140 (d) 141 Ans. (c) Explanation: From 501 to 599 No. of times '6' coming at one's position = 10 No. of times '6' coming at ten's position = 10 From 600 to 700 No. of times '6' coming at one's position = 10 No. of times '6' coming at ten's position = 10 No. of times '6' coming at hundredth position = 100 Total no. of times 6 appears is 140. 208. A and B can complete work together in 5 days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the job ? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18 Ans. (a) Explanation: By solving the above equations, we get A = 10 days 209. Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B, and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car, he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways? (a) 7 hours 45 minutes (b) 8 hours 15 minutes (c) 8 hours 30 minutes (d) 8 hours 45 minutes Ans. (d) Explanation: Assume Amit's speed as x km/hr and, his Car's speed as y km/hr In both the cases the distance is same between A and B, i.e., 'd' km In first case total time = hrs = hrs In second case total time = hrs = hrs 94 Then, Time taken if he walks both ways = hrs = 8 hrs and 45 mins 210. A person has to completely put each of three liquids : 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobil Oil in bottles of equal size 'Without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required ? (a) 34 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) None of the above Arts. (b) Explanation: L.C.M. of 403, 465, 496 = 31 No. of Bottles req. = (403/31) + (465/31) + (496/31) = 13 + 15 + 16 = 44 211. A train completes a journey with a few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 km per hour. If the train had not stopped anywhere, it would have completed the journey at an average speed of 60 km per hour. On an average, how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey ? (a) 20 minutes per hour (b) 18 min. per hour (c) 15 minutes per hour (d) 10 min. per hour Ans. (a) Explanation: So, it stopped 20 min. per hour. 212. The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs. 16,000 per month. The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5% but stopped a transport allowance of Rs. 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary ? (a) Rs. 16,000 (b) Rs. 16,500 (c) Rs. 16,800 (d) Cannot be known since data are insufficient Ans. (a) Explanation: Increment in the salary = 5% of 16,000/-. i.e., But transport allowance (- 800/-) had been stopped. So, the new average of the salary of the employees stands same, i.e., 16,000/-. 14. CURRENT EVENTS 1995 1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given beiow the' lists: List I List II A. Emesto Zedillo 1. Uruguay B. Alberto Fujimori 2. Brazil C. Julio Maria Sanguinetti 3. Mexico D. Fernando H. Cardoso 4. Bolivia 5. Peru A B C D A B C D (a) 3 5 1 2 (b) 4 5 3 1 95 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. (c) 3 4 5 2 (d) 5 3 1 4 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-3, B-5, C-l, D-2 The lead character in the film ‘The Bandit Queen, has been played by (a) Pratiba Sinha (b) Rupa Ganguly (c) Seema Biswas (d) Shabana Azmi Ans. (c) Explanation: Seema Biswas The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to (a) H.G.Khurana (b) K.V. Frisch (c) Julian Fluxlay (d) Dorothy Hodgkins Ans. (b) Explanation: K. V. Frisch Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. Hamas : Palestinian extremist group 2. Sinn Fein : I.R.A.’s political wing 3. True Path : A major'constituent of the Party ruling coalition in Turkey Codes : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (a) “The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970 .... areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human beings, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fallout from those clouds.......is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects - that may persist for decades.” The offensive substance referred to in this quotation is : (a) DDT used as insecticide (b) a complex mixture of herbicides and weedicides used to increase agricultural output in the South Vietnam under the U.S. aid programme (c) a complex mixture of DDT and other insecticides used as aerial sprays for protection against malaria and other tropical diseases (d) dioxin used as defoliants Ans. (d) Explanation: Dioxin used as defoliant by America to clear the forests of Vietnam for easy find out and killing of Vietnamese guerillas hiding in the forests. Consider the table given below providing details of traffic volume per hour for four locations : Location I II III IV Total Traffic volume 377 380 377 225 % of Heavy Vehicles 24.40 12.50 30.00 12.50 96 7. 8. 9. Average noise level 73.50 72.60 73.50 72.98 in dB (A) Noise pollution level 84.00 83.00 86.50 80.90 in dB (A) When the total traffic volume is the same, the factor(s) which affect(s) the noise pollution level is/are (a) % of heavy vehicles (b) noise pollution level & average noise level (c) average noise level & % of heavy vehicles (d) indeterminable on the basis of details given Ans. (a) Explanation: % of heavy vehicles ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is (a) a crude form of heroin (b) a crude form of cocaine (c) uranium oxide (d) unrefined gold Ans. (c) Explanation: Uranium oxide Which one of the following countries had in 1994 voted against joining the European Union? (a) Norway (b) Sweden (c) Finland (d) Austria Ans. (b) The signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons include (a) U.S.A., Russia, India, Iran and Israel (b) Iraq, Libya, India, Russia and China (c) Brazil, Angola, North Korea, Pakistan and U.S.A. (d) Syria, Sri Lanka, Japan, Singapore and France Ans. (a) Explanation: The treaty banning chemical weapons was signed in the year 1997 and was attended by 160 countries. 1996 10. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time ? (a) Boycott (b) Gherao (c) Bandh (d) Hartal Ans. (a) Explanation: Boycott 11. Which one of the following had legalised euthanasia ? (a) Texas in the USA (b) Northern Territory in Australia (c) Quebeec in Canada (d) Maharashtra in India Ans. (a) Explanation: Texas in the USA 12. In the 1996 Cricket World Cup, the non-test playing countries which participated included 97 (a) UAE, Kenya and Canada (b) UAE, Kenya and Hong Kong (c) UAE, Kenya and Holland (d) Canada, Kenya and Hong Kong Ans. (c) Explanation: UAE, Kenya and Holland 13. Consider the following statements: Towards the close of 1995, the fortunes of Indian Hockey were believed to be on the upswing because 1. India had won the Azlan Shah Cup ‘95 2. India beat Pakistan in the South Asian Federation Games Final 3. India had by then qualified for the Atlanta Olympics Of these statements : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct Ans. (a) 14. Which one of the following works has recently been made into a full length feature film ? (a) R. K. Narayan’s Malgudi Days (b) Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children (c) Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy (d) Upamanyu Chatterjee’s English August Ans. (d) Explanation Upamanyu Chatterjee's English August 1997 15. The Basque separatist organization is active in: (a) Russia (b) Cyprus (c) Portugal (d) Spain Ans. (d) Explanation: The Basque separatist organization is active in Spain. 16. The film The Making of the Mahatma lias been directed by (a) Peter Ustinov (b) Richard Attenborough (c) Shyam Benegal (d) Mira Nair Ans. (c) Explanation: This film has been directed by Shyam Beneal 17. A major health mission carried out in 1996 was (a) war against leprosy (b) small-pox eradication (c) pulse polio immunization (d) popularisation of oral rehydration therapy Ans. (a) : Explanation: A major health mission carried out 1996 was war against leprosy. 18. Bishop Carlos Felipe Ximenes Belo and Jos Remos Horta who shared the 1996 Nobel Peace Prize are known for their work for the cause of (a) East Timor (b) Gautemala (c) Bosnia (d) Barunda Ans. (a) Explanation: Bishop Carlos Felipe and Jos Remos Horta are human right activists who led non-violent struggle against Indonesian army's brutality in East-Timor. 98 1998 19. The meeting of G-15 countries held in Malaysia in 1997 was attended by (a) 14 member countries (b) 15 member countries (c) 16 member countries (d) 17 member countries Ans. (c) Explanation: 16 members countries 20. Olympics 2004 is to be held in (a) Johannesberg (b) Capetown (c) Rome (d) Sydney Ans. (*) Explanation: None of the above Olympics Year Venue 2002 Sydney (Australia) 2004 Athens (Greece) 2008 Beijing (China) 21. Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary talks between the Sri Lankan Government and representatives of Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups? (a) New Delhi (b) Colombo (c) Thimpu (d) Madras Ans. (b) Explanation: Colombo 22. 'MERCOSUR* consists of group of countries of (a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Latin America (d) South East Asia Ans. (c) Explanation: 'MERCOSUR' originally consists of Four countries from Latin America or South America viz., Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay and Uruguay. More recently Venezuela becomes a part of MERCOUSER 23. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by (a) greenhouse effect (b) depletion of ozone layer (c) EL Nino effect (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Explanation: El Nino Effect 24. Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to (a) Dr. Homi Bhabha (Posthumous) (b) Former President R. Venkataraman (c) Satyajit Ray (Posthumous) (d) Dr. Abdul Kalam Ans. (d) Explanation: A.PJ. Abdul Kalam, Aruna Asaf Ali (Posthumous), Gulzari Lai Nanda (Posthumous) were awarded Bharat Ratna in 1997. 25. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian-born woman astronaut Kalpana Cfaawla ? 1. She was born in Karnal. 2. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS - 87. 99 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 3. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre. 4. She did a space-walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 Ans. (c) The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty was held in the Capital city of (a) Canada (b) Japan (c) Sweden (d) Zimbabwe Ans. (c) Explanation : Land Mines Conference was held in the capital city of Sweden, Stockholm. The number of economically active women (excluding students and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of all women of working age (generally those aged 15-64 years) was the highest in 1996 in (a) USA (b) China (c) Russia (d) S.Korea Ans. (c) Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List-I with area of their specialized work given in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Dr. Raja Ramanna 1. Plant Chemistry B. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan 2. Nuclear Physics C. Prof. U.R. Rao 3. Thermodynamics and astrophysics D. Prof. Meghnad Saha 4. Space research 5. Agricultural sciences A B C D A B C D (a) 3 5 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 5 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (c) A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird ? (a) Dove (b) Dodo (c) Condor (d) Skua Ans. (b) Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for contribution in the area of : (a) International Economics (b) Financial Economics (c) Public Economics (d) Development Economics Ans. (c) What are the official languages of the U. N. O. ? (a) English, French and Russian (b) English, French, German and Russian (c) English, French, Russian, Chinese and Hindi (d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabic and Spanish Ans. (d) Explanation: English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabic and Spanish. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United Front which was in power during ’96-97’ ? 1. Bahujana Samaj Party. 2. Samata Party. 100 3. Haryana Vikas Party. 4. Assam Gana Parishad. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: Bahujana Samaj Party (BSP), Samata Party and Haryana Vikas Party were not a part of United Front Government. 33. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been connected through a 6-lane express way ? (a) Ahmedabad : Vadodara (b) Dhaka : Chittagong (c) Islamabad : Lahore (d) Mumbai : Pune Ans. (a) Explanation: Ahmedabad : Vadodara. 1999 34. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the Indian Republic from the French (b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India (c) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the Chinese in the 1962 Sino-Indian War (d) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which were transfered to India by lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan respectively Ans. (b) 35. The economic crisis in the latter half of 1990s most seriously affected Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia and South Korea. The cause of the crisis was (a) mismanagement of the financial resources and financial sector, in general (b) the prolonged over-valuation of local currencies vis-a-vis the western currencies (c) the downswing and recession in the western economies which earlier provided export market to these export oriented countries (d) none of the above Ans. (a) Explanation: Mismanagement of the financial resources and financial sector, in general. 36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Libraries) List II (Locations) A. Saraswati Mahal Library 1. Patna B. Library of Tibetan 2. Dharamsala Work and Archives C. Raza Library 3. Thanjavur D. Khuda Baksh Oriental 4. Rampur Public Library A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 3 4 1 Ans. (a) 37. Transchart is the (a) chartering wing of the Ministry of Surface Transport (b) container service established by Indian Railways 101 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. (c) training institute of maritime studies and research (d) passenger insurance scheme of Indian Railways Ans. (a) Explanation: Chartering Wing of the Ministry of Surface Transport. "India has the largest population of the Asian X. Today, there are just about 20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural habitat spreading across the evergreen forests, dry thorn forests, swamps and grasslands. Their prime habitats are, however, the moist deciduous forests. The X population in India ranges from North-West India where they are found in the forest divisions of Dehradun, Bijnor and Nainital districts of UP to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka and Kerala and in Tamil Nadu. In Central India, their population is distributed in southern Bihar and Orissa. In the East, they are seen in North Bengal, Assam and a few other states.” The animal 'X' referred to in this quotation is (a) Lion (b) Elephant (c) Tiger (d) One-horned rhinoceros Ans. (b) Explanation: The animal 'X' referred in the quotation is Elephant. Consider the following statements about the European Union : 1. The European Union was known earlier as the European Community. 2. The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were milestones in its formation. 3. Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship. 4. Switzerland is a member of the European Union. Which of the above statements ate correct ? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Jim Laker : Highest number of wickets in a Cricket Test Match (b) Brian Lara : Highest score in an innings in Test Cricket (c) Sanath Jayasuriya : Highest partnership in an innings in Test Cricket & Roshan Mahanama (d) Sunil M. Gavaskar: Highest aggregate of runs in Test Cricket Ans. (d) Explanation: Highest aggregate of runs in Test Cricket belongs to Allan Border (11,174). Presently (as on June 15, 2006) this record is held by Brian Lara (11,300). The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is (a) Hindi (b) English (c) Mandarin (d) Spanish Ans. (c) Explanation: Mandarin, a Chinese language is spoken by largest number of people (873 million) in the world followed by Spanish (322 million), English (309 million), Hindi, Bengali, Portuguese, and Russian. In order to win the Grand Slam in Tennis, a player must win which one of the following groups of tournaments ? (a) Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, U.S. open 102 (b) Wimbledon, French Open, U.S. Open (c) Wimbledon, French Open, Paegas Czech Open, U.S. Open (d) Davis Cup, Wimbledon, French Open Ans. (a) Explanation: Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, U.S. Open 43. Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment ? (a) The Water (Cess) Act, 1977 (b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 (d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997 Ans. (d) Explanation: The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997 where 'ports' are not treated as environmental issues. 44. In the November 1998 Composite Dialogue Process between India and Pakistan three contentious issues listed below as 1,2 and 3 were discussed. Contentious Issues 1. Disengagement of troops 2. Settlement of boundary dispute 3. Sharing river water. Match the issues with the areas marked in the map as A, B and C and select the correct answer using the codes given below A B C A B C (a) 2 1 3 (b) 2 3 1 (c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 2 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-l 45. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List I (Writers) List II (Books) A. Sashi Tharoor 1. Clear light of Day B. Amitav Ghosh 2. Circle of Reason C. Anita Desai 3. Love and Longing in Bombay D. Vikram Chandra 4. Show Business A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 4 3 1 Ans. (a) Explanation : A-4, B-2, C-l, D-3 2000 46. Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. My Music, My Life 1. Laxman Gaikwad B. Adha Gaon 2. Rahi Masoom Raza C. Radha 3. Ramakanta Rath 103 D. The Pilferer 4. Ravi Shankar A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (b) Explanation : A-4, B-2, C-3, D-l 47. The given map shows locations of airports labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. What is the correct sequence of the airports in which the hijacked Indian Airlines place IC-814 landed after its initial take off from Kathmandu in December 1999 ? 48. 49. 50. 51. (a) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 (c) 5, 4, 2, 3 (d) 5, 1, 3, 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: Amritsar - Lahore - Dubai - Kandahar. The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1 - 12 - 1999 : "..Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, pro-government and Shiite Muslim depties who were in favour of women's rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained." The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of (a) Kuwait (b) Iran (c) Bahrain (d) Saudi Arabia Ans. (a) Explanation: The Parliament referred to in the quotation is that of Kuwait. Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars : 1. Radial tyres 2. Streamline body 3. Multipoint fuel injection 4. Catalytic converter with exhaust Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fueld efficient ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: Streamline body and Multipoint fuel Injection. Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the "Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum? (a) U.S.A. (b) Singapore (c) Hong Kong (d) France Ans. (b) Explanation: Singapore occupies the first place in the "Global Competitive Report" of World Economic Forum. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II A. Development Programme 1. UN India Human Development Report B. National Council of Applied Economic 2. India Development Report 104 Research C. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development 3. World Development Report Research D. World Bank 4. Human Development Report A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-l 52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Institute) List II (Location) A. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies 1. Hyderabad B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 2. Mumbai C. National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-sciences 3. Bangalore D. Central Institute of English & Foreign Languages 4. Dharamshala 5. Varanasi A B C D A B C D (a) 5 3 4 1 (b) 5 2 3 1 (c) 3 2 4 5 (d) 4 5 1 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-5, B-2, C-3, D-l 53. Match the international events listed below with their respective places labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : International Events : A. Venue of Commonwealth Conference held in 1999 B. Venue of World Trade Organisation meeting held in 1999 C. Place of Israel-Syria Peace talks held in January, 2000 D. Place of military action by Russian troops in January, 2000 A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 5 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 3 5 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-4, B-l, C-2, D-3 54. To reach the final of first grand slam of the year 2000, Martina Hingis defeated (a) Lindsay Davenport (b) Jennifer Capriati (c) Sarena Williams (d) Conchita Martinez Ans. (b) Explanation: Jennifer Capriati was defeated by Martina Hingis. 55. The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by (a) China (b) Malaysia (c) Korea (d) Philippines 105 Ans. (c) 2001 56. The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was (a) "Food, nutrition & environmental security" (b) "Arrest declining interest in pure sciences" (c) "Make India energy self-sufficient" (d) Make India I.T. Superpower Ans. (a) Explanation: The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was "Food, nutrition and environmental security. 57. Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces : 1. First batch of women pilots was commissioned in Indian Air Force in 1996. 2. Officers' Training Academy is located in Nagpur. 3. Southern Command of Indian Navy has its Headquarters at Chennai. 4. One of the Regional Headquarters of Coast Guard is located at Port Blair. Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 only (d) 4 only Ans. (d) Explanation: Officers Training Academy (OTA) is located in 'Chennai'. Headquarters of Southern Command (Training) of Indian Navy is located at 'Kochi'. 58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Country) List II (President) A. Columbia 1. Vicente Fox B. Philippines 2. Hugo Chavez C. Mexico 3. Gloria Macapagal Arroya D. Venezuela 4. Andres Pastrana A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (c) 59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Institute) List II (Location) A. Central Institute of Medicinal & Aromatic Plants 1. Chandigarh B. Centre for DNA Finger Printing and Diagnostics 2. Hyderabad C. Institute of Microbial Technology 3. New Delhi D. National Institute of Immunology 4. Lucknow A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-4, B-2, C-l, D-3 60. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Important Day) List II (Date) A. World Environment Day 1. March 20 106 B. World Forestry Day C. World Habitat Day D. World Ozone Day 61. 62. 63. 64. 2. 3. 4. 5. June 5 September 16 October 3 December 10 A B C D (b) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 A B C D (a) 2 1 4 5 (c) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: A-2, B-l, C-4, D-3 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List I (Books) List II (Author) A. The Struggle in My Life 1. Lech Walesa B. The Struggle & the Triumph 2. Nelson Mandela C. Friends & Foes 3. Leonid Brezhnev 4. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto 5. Sheikh Mujibur D. Rebirth Rehman A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 2 1 5 3 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3 A great landslide caused by an earthquake killed hundreds of people in January 2001 near (a) San Salvador (b) San Jose (c) Managua (d) Guatemala City Ans. (a) Falun Gong is (a) an ethnic minority in Eastern China (b) an insurgency outfit in Western China (c) a pro-democracy movement in China (d) a spiritual movement in China Ans. (d) Explanation: Falun Gong is a spiritual movement in China. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Person) List II (Achievements) A. Deep Sen Gupta 1. India's youngest International Master in the Sangli International Chess Tournament, 2000 B. P. Harikrishna 2. The first Indian ever to win a gold in discus in the World Junior Athletic Championship in Santiago, 2000 C. Seema Antil 3. Won the title in the Asian Junior Chess Tournament in Mumbai, 2000 D. Tejas Bakre 4. Won the under - 12 title in the World Youth Chess Festival in 107 Oropesa, 2000 A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-4, B-l, C-2, D-3 65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using below the lists: List I (Person) List II (Distinguished as) A. Santosh Yadav 1. T. V. host B. Oprah Winfrey 2. Journalist C. Oscar Wilde 3. Mountaineer D. R Sainath 4. Dramatist and Author A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1 3 4 2 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-3, B-l, C-4, D-2 66. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using below the lists: List I (Award/Prize) (Recipient) A. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development Tutu B. Jamnalal Bajaj Award Gurudev Khush C. International Gandhi Peace Prize the codes given the codes given List II 1. Archibiship Desmond 2. Dr. 3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan D. Wolf Prize 4. Nelson Mandela A B C D A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-3, B-l, C-4, D-2 67. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Sports women) List II (Sport) A. Anjali Vedpathak 1. Athletics B. Mouma Das 2. Gymnastics C. Neelam Singh 3. Rifle Shooting D. Tumpa Debnath 4. Table Tennis 5. Chess A B C D A B C D (a) 3 4 2 5 (b) 4 3 1 2 108 68. 69. 70. 71. (c) 4 3 2 5 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (a) Explanation : A-3, B-4, C-2, D-5 The Chess player Alexi Sliirov represents (a) Albania (b) Kazhakstan (c) Russia (d) Spain Ans. (d) Explanation: Alexi Shirov represent Spain. The theme of the World Development Report 2001, is (a) From Plan to Market (b) Knowledge for Development (c) Attacking Poverty (d) The State in the Changing World Ans. (c) Explanation: The theme of the World Development Report 2001, is attacking poverty. Mekong Ganga co-operation project is (a) an irrigation project involving India and Myanmar (b) a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries (c) a hydroelectric power project involving India, Bangladesh and Myanmar (d) a defence and security agreement of India with its eastern neighbours Ans. (b) Who amongst the following was the Chairman of I.S.R.O. when INSAT - 3B was launched? (a) Anil Kakodkar (b) Abdul Kalam (c) K. Kasturirangan (d) U.R. Rao Ans. (c) Explanation: K. Kasturirangan was the Chairman of ISRO when INSAT-3B was launched. 2002 72. Match List I (Commission) with List II (Matter of Enquiry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Wadhwa Commission 1. The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi B. Liberhan Commission 2. Killing of Graham Staines C. Sri Krishna Commission 3. Demolition of a religious structure at Ayodhya D. Jain Commission 4. Riots in Mumbai in 1993 A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (b) Explanation : A-2, B-3, C-4, D-l 73. A World Summit with representation from all the countries will be held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of (a) AIDS control (b) Global terrorism (c) Human rights (d) Sustainable development Ans. (d) 109 74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Country) List II (President) A. Congo 1. Levy Mwanawasa B. Nigeria 2. Joseph Kabila C. Uganda 3. Olusegum Obasanjo D. Zambia 4. Yoweri Museveni A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 75. Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the World Badminton Championship in the year 2001 ? (a) Gopichand (b) Hendrawan (c) Ji Xin Peng (d) Peter Gade Ans. (b) 76. Who among the following set a new national record in the women’s Pole-vault event in the 7th edition of Senior Federation Cup held in Karnataka in the year 2001 ? (a) G. G. Pramila (b) Jyothna Deka (c) Karamjeet Kaur (d) Manisha Dey Ans. (c) 77. The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent years is due to (a) conflict between different native ethnic groups (b) prolonged crisis over land reforms (c) economic crisis due to continuous drought and famine (d) power struggle between political group of white European settlers and native black community Ans. (b) Explanation: The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent years is due to prolonged crisis over land reforms. 78. Which country among the following has been involved In two ties in Test cricket ? (a) Australia (b) India (c) West Indies (d) England Ans. (a) Explanation: Australia has been involved in two ties in Test Cricket. 79. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Organisation) List II (Headquarters) A. International Atomic Energy Agency 1. Brussels B. International Telecommunication Union 2. Geneva C. Council of the European Union 3. Paris D. Organisation for Economic 4. Vienna Cooperation and Development A B C D A B C D (a)1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 110 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. Ans. (d) Explanation: A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Book) List II (Author) A. Autobiography of an Unknown Indian 1. MulkRaj Anand B. India : A Wounded Civilization 2. Nirad C. Chaudhuri C. Confessions of a Lover 3 . R. K. Narayan D. The English Teacher 4. V. S. Naipaul A B C D A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 Consider the following names : 1. Archbishop Desmond Tutu 2. Lech Walesa 3. Shimon Peres 4. Yasser Arafat Who among these won the Nobel Peace Prize ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Name of the lady) List II (Achievement) A. ChinnaPillai 1. Winner of Neerja Bhanot Award B. Kaveri Thakur 2. Recipient of Stree Shakti Puraskar C. MiraNair 3. Became the fastest swimmer in Asia at the age of 16 years D. Yasoda Ekambaram 4. Recipient of the Golden Lion at Venice Film festival A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Consider the following countries : 1. Angola 2. Colombia 3. Congo 4. Sudan Which of these countries has/have been suffering from civil war ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) Recently, several hundred South African soldiers were sent to Burundi (a) to side with Tutsi tribe in the country's civil war (b) to side with the Hutu tribe in the ongoing ethnic conflict 111 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. (c) as a part of United Nations special force to keep control on the ethnic groups revolting against the government (d) as South Africa's protection force to help mediate an agreement between warring groups of civil war Ans. (c) The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation Forum was held in the year 2001 in (a) Bangkok (b) Hongkong (c) Jakarta (d) Shanghai Ans. (d) Explanation : The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation Forum was held in the year 2001 in Shanghai. In the year 2001, Germany approved a S 32 million credit to India (a) to promote primary education inselected states (b) for Tehri dam project (c) to assist in the development of nuclear power generation projects (d) for oceanographic research Ans. (d) Explanation : In 2001, Germany approved a $32 million credit to India for oceanographic research. Who among the following won six gold medals in the 9th FINA - World Swimming Championship held in Fukuoka, Japan in the year 2001 ? (a) Grant Hackett (b) Ian Thorpe (c) Michael Phelps (d) Roman Sloudnow Ans. (b) In the year 2001, India offered a grant of five million dollars to Tajikistan to (a) tackle the drought situation (b) set up a Software Technology Park (c) promote mineral exploration (d) procure defence equipment Ans. (c) Explanation: India gave this grant to Tajikistan to promote mineral exploration. Who was the first Indian lady actress to receive the Padma Shri Award ? (a) Smita Patil (b) Nargis Dutt (c) Meena Kumari (d) Madhubala Ans. (b) Explanation: Nargis Dutt was the first Indian lady actress to receive the Padma Shri Award. In the year 2001, the Prime Minister announced a five-year excise duty holiday for industries in (a) cyclone prone coastal Andhra Pradesh (b) border states of North-East (c) earthquake ravaged Kutch district (d) recently formed states of Chattisgarh and Jharkhand Ans. (c) In the Year 2001, in which one of the following events of Women's Singles did Venus Williams defeat Serena Williams to win the title ? (a) Australian Open 2001 (b) French Open 2001 (c) Wimbledon 2001 (d) US Open 2001 Ans. (d) 2003 92. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a 112 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. (a) literateur (b) musician (c) scientist (d) sportsperson Ans. (a) Explanation : Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a literateur. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Cricketers) List II (Country) A. Barry Richards 1. England B. Tex Dexter 2. West Indies C. Alan Davidson 3. South Africa D. Charlie Griffith 4. New Zealand 5. Australia A B C D A B C D (a)3 2 5 1 (b) 5 1 4 2 (c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 5 2 4 1 Ans. (c) Explanation : A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2 Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in (a) Long Jump (b) 110 m Hurdle Race (c) 100 m Dash (d) High Jump Ans. (c) Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’ ? (a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh (c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha Ans. (a) Explanation: The Book 'New Dimensions of India's Foreign Policy' is written by Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in (a) France (b) Italy (c) Portugal (d) Spain Ans. (d) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (High Officials) List II (Organisation) A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines B. S. Ramadorai 2. NTPC C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS D. VivekPaul 4. Wipro Technologies A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C- 1, D-4 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of Parliament 113 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. (b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government sources (c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest nuimber of newspapers (d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country Ans. (c) Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan : 1. During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC. 2. Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997. 3. Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 1 Ans. (d) Explanation: Lahore Summit took place in the year 1999. Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Benazir Bhutto. In December 2002, the Prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi Declaration’ with the (a) President of Indonesia (b) President of Russia (c) Prime Minister of Cambodia (d) Prime Minister of Laos Ans. (b) Explanation: The Prime Minister of India signed 'Delhi Declaration' with the President of Russia. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries (b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975 (c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence (d) East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001 Ans. (c) Explanation: East Timor was a Portuguese Colony and was occupied by Indonesia. East Timor declared independence only after referendum. UN took over it on October 25, 1999. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to (a) John Hume (b) Nelson Mandela (c) Norodom Sihanouk (d) Sadako Ogata Ans. (c) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Name of the Person) List II (Associated with) A. Brijmohan Lai Munjal 1. Biotechnolgy B. Kiran Karnik 2. Automobile industry C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry D. Sunil Mittal 4. Telecom industry 5. Film Industry A B C D A B C D 114 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. (a) 4 1 5 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 5 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C- 1, D-4 Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis Championship in the year 2002 to win the title? (a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyet (b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan (c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge (d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek Ans. (d) Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award ? (a) Dev Anand (b) Lata Mangeshkar (c) Ramanand Sagar (d) Yash Chopra Ans. (d) Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002 ? (a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero (c) Andra Agassi (d) Pete Sampras Ans. (a) The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with (a) Sailing (b) Hockey (c) Golf (d) Athletics Ans. (d) Explanation: Soma Biswas is associated with Athletics. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Distinguished Lady) List II (Organisation/Industry) A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited 5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited A B C D A B C D (a) 1 4 5 2 (b) 2 4 1 5 (c) 1 3 5 2 (d) 2 3 1 5 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-1, B-4, C-5, D-2 Survey of India is under the Ministry of (a) Defence (b) Environment & Forests (c) Home Affairs (d) Science & Technology Ans. (d) Explanation: Survey of India is under the Ministry of Science and Technology. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote ? (a) Iceland (b) India (c) New Zealand (d) U.S.A. 115 Ans. (c) Explanation: New Zealand was the first country to give women the right to vote. 111. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Raman Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in (a) prevention of child marriages (b) promotion of communal harmony (c) environmental protection (d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits Ans. (d) Explanation : Sandeep Pandey is mainly an activist in education and livelihood projects for Dalits. 112. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronald of Brazil was (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 Ans. (c) 113. In the year 2002, the President of India presented the national award for excellence in public administration and management sciences to (a) Kumar Manglam Birla (b) N. R. Narayana Murthy (c) Rahul Bajaj (d) Ratan Tata Ans. (b) Explanation: Third Lai Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration and Management Sciences was given to Infosys Technologies Chairman, N.R. Narayana Murthy. 2004 114. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India during the year 2002-03? (a) Birlasoft (b) Infosys Technolgies (c) Tata Consultancy Servicese (d) Wipro Technologies Ans. (c) Explanation: T.C.S. was the largest IT software and service exporter in India during the year 2002-03 followed by Infosys Technologies and Wipro Technologies. 115. Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. My Presidential Years 1. S. Radhakrishnan B. The Hindu View of Life 2. V. V. Giri C. Voice of Conscience 3. N. Sanjiva Reddy D. Without Fear or Favour 4. R. Venkataraman A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (d) ExplanationL A-4, B-1, C-2, D-2 116 116. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around the middle of 2003 ? (a) They were demanding tax relief (b) They were against the Hong Kong Government’s plan to impose an internal security law (c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom (d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong Ans. (d) Explanation: They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong. 117. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as (a) a campaigner for urban sanitation (b) an anti-child labour activist (c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes (d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women Ans. (b) Explanation: Shanta Sinha is known as an anti-child labour activist 118. Match List ! (Persons) with List II (Positions) and- select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. B. P. Mishra 1. Executive Director, IMF B. Suresh Kalmadi 2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd C. Praful Patel 3. President Indian Olympic Association D. V. S. Jain 4. Vice - President, South Asian Region, World Bank A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 119. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan) has become famous because of (a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton (b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS (c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women (d) rain-water harvesting Ans. (d) Explanation: Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan) working in the field of rain water harvesting. Mr. Rajendra Singh of this organisation received the Ramon Magsaysay Award for his contribution to this field. 120. Consider the following statements: 1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India. 2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India. 3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 117 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 3 only Ans. (d) Explanation: Currently (June-2006) Nafisa Ali - Chairperson of the Children's Film Society, India Sharmila Tagore - Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries? (a) Fiji (b) Mauritius (c) Malaysia (d) Kenya Arts. (a) Explanation: Famous Golf Player Vijay Singh is from Fiji. Which of the following institutes have been recognised as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament) ? 1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai 2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali 3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram 4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: All the institutes mentioned above were recognised as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament). World’s longest ruling head of government is from (a) Switzerland (b) Cuba (c) Zimbabwe (d) New Zealand Ans. (b) Explanation : Fidel Castro came to power in 1959 following Cuban revolution, an armed revolt that overthrew the dictatorship of Fulgencio Batista. He became Cuba's PM in 1961 and shortly thereafter, the elections were cancelled and Constitutioin was suspended. He was elected 'President' in 1976 by Cuba's National Assembly. Liberia was in the international news in tSie recent times for (a) harbouring terrorists associated with religious fundamentalism (b) supplying raw uranium to North Korea (c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people (d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs Ans. (c) Explanation: Its long running Civil War killing or displacing thousands of people. Consider the following statements: 1. P. V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic relations between India and Israel. 2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Isreal to have visited India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 118 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. Explanation: Ariel Sharon was the first Prime Minister of Israel to visit India. The reason for chechnya to be in the news recently is (a) discovery of huge reserves of oil (b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people (c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in a great loss of human life (d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people Ans. (b) Explanation: Separatist rebellious activities by the local people. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year 2003 ? (a) Czech Republic (b) Romania (c) Serbia (d) Slovenia Ans. (c) Explanation: P.M. of Serbia was assassinated in the year 2003. Consider the following companies: 1. Voltas 2. Titan Industries 3. Rallis India 4. Indian Hotels Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) Explanation: All the Companies given in the question are in the Tata Group of Industries. In which one of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people ? (a) Democratic Republic of Congo (b) Indonesia (c) Nigeria (d) Zambia Ans. (a) More than 40 Heads of States/Governments were Invited by Vladimir Putin in May, 2003 to (a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq (b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg (c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issue of missile shield for European and CIS countries (d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism Ans. (b) Explanation: Celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St. Petersburg. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder 2. Mumbai Metallurgy and New Materials C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology & Natural History 3. Jabalpur D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad A B C D A B C D 119 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 Consider the following international language : 1. Arabic 2. French 3. Spanish The correct sequence of the language given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is (a) 3 - 1 - 2 (b) 1-3-2 (c) 3 - 2 - 1 (d) 1 - 2 - 3 Ans. (a) Explanation: Spanish, Arabic and French. Match List I (Distinguished Ladies) with List II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Jhumpa Lahiri 1. Science and environment B. Sunita Narain 2. Novel-writing C. Naina Lai K-idwai 3. Film industry D. Ravina Raj Kohli 4. Banking 5. Television media A B C D A B C D (a) 4 5 3 1 (b) 2 1 4 5 (c) 4 1 3 5 (d) 2 5 4 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5 The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to (a) the control of AIDS (b) magnetic resonance imaging (c) respiratory diseases (d) genetic engineering Ans. (b) In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever women Vice-Chancellor of (a) Oxford University (b) Cambridge University (c) Harward University (d) Purdue University Ans. (b) George W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American States ? (a) California (b) Texas (c) Virginia (d) Indiana Ans. (b) Explanation: George W. Bush comes from Texas. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Departments Ministry of the Government of India 1. Department of and Child Development: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 2. Department of Official language : Ministry of Human Resource Development 3. Department of Drinking Water Supply: Ministry of Water Resources 120 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None Arts. (d) Explanation : Department of Child Development : Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Department of Official Language : Ministry of Home. Department of Drinking Water Supply : Ministry of Rural Development. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Agency) List II (Headquarters) A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) 1. Nairobi B. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 2. Vienna C. United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) 3. Berne D. Universal Postal Union (UPU) 4. New York A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice ? (a) Margaret Atwood (b) J. M. Coetzee (c) Graham Swift (d) Ian McEwan Ans. (b) Explanation : J.M. Coetzee : South African Writer and Scholar, who is best known for his novels 'Waiting for the Barbarians (1980)' and The Life and times of Michael K (1983) which won the Booker Prize, Britain's highest literary award. He won a second Booker Prize in 1999 for 'Disgrace' a novel about life in post-apartheid South Africa. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi-the partner of Mahesh Bhupati, comes from which of the following countries ? (a) Italy (b) Sweden (c) Belarus (d) Croatia Ans. (c) Explanation: Max Mirnyi is from Belarus. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian? (a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Vinoo Mankad (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) V. V. S. Laxman Ans. (d) Explanation: Presently, Virender Sehwag (309) holds the record^ of highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian breaking V.V.S. Laxman's record of 281. Match List I (Person) with List II (Position) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List I List II 121 143. 144. 145. 146. A. Anil Kakodar 1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff B. Raman Puri 2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission C.M.Jagannatha Rao 3. Chairman, ISRO D. G. Madhavan Nair 4. Chairman Atomic Energy Commission A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly matched with its country ? (a) Salamanca : Spain (b) Cannes : Italy (c) Cancun : Mexico (d) Bruges : Belgium Ans. (b) Explanation: Cannes city, famous for its film festival is present in France. Match List I (Sports - person) with List II (Sport/Game) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming C. Pankaj Advani 3. LawnTennis D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker 5. Hockey A B C D A B C D (a) 3 5 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 5 4 3 Ans. (d) Explanation : A-2, B-5, C-4, D-3 The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M. Hayden. Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were (a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar & Colin Cowdrey (b) Len Hutton, Peter May & Vivian Richards (c) Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers and Brian Lara (d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara Ans. (c) Explanation: Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers (365) and Brian Lara (375). Presently Brian Lara (400) holds this record by breaking M. Hayden's 380. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Unit of Indian Railway Location (a) Railway Staff College : Vadodara (b) Central Organization for Railway Electrification : Varanasi (c) Wheel and Axle Plant : Bangalore (d) Rail-coach Factory : Kapurthala 122 Ans. (b) Explanation: Diesel Locomotive works is at Varanasi. 147. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2003, is from (a) Iraq (b) Nigeria (c) Iran (d) Libya Ans. (c) Explanation: Shirin Ebadi is a lawyer from Iran and has contributed greatly for democratisation of polity in Iran. 2005 148. Who among the following is not a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award ? (a) Ustad Bismillah Khan (b) Satyajit Ray (c) Lata Mangeshkar (d) Raj Kapoor Ans. (d) Explanation: Bharat Ratna Award Recipient Year Ustad Bismillah Khan 2001 Satyajit Ray 1992 Lata Mangeshkar 2001 149. Who among the following is the President of the FICCI ? (a) Sunil Mittal (b) Brijmohan Lai Munjal (c) Onkar S.Kunwar (d) Vivek Burman Ans. (c) 150. Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan Reddy, an Indian born doctor working in U.S.A., during February, 2005 ? (a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly diseases like cancer (b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant (c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like AIDS (d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born infant Ans. (b) Explanation: Successful open heart procedures called arterial switch performed on an infant. 151. Which countries played in the Lawn Tennis Davis Cup Final in the year 2004 ? (a) Switzerland and United States of America (b) Spain and United States of America (c) Australia and Argentina (d) Sweden and Belgium Ans. (b) Explanation: Lawn Tennis Davis Cup Final, 2004 was played between Spain and U.S.A. Spain won the final of Lawn Tenis Davis Cup 2004 defeating U.S.A. bu 3 : 2. 152. Whose autobiography is the book “My Music My Life” ? (a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain Ans. (c) Explanation: "My Music, My Life" is the autobiography of Pandit Ravi Shankar. 123 153. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Organization) A. V.R.S. Natarajan 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited B. A.K. Puri 2. Air India C. V. Thulasidas 3. Marudi Udyog Limited D. Jagdish Khattar 4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited 5. Indian Space Research Organization A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 5 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 154. Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission ? (a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case (c) Tehelka tapes Case (d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya Ans. (d) Explanation: Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya was probed by the Liberhan Commission. 155. Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a public limited company ? (a) Dabolim Airport, Goa (b) Cochin airport (c) Hyderabad airport (d) Bangalore airport Ans. (b) Explanation: A new greenfield international airport has been built and opened to traffic in i999 at Cochi. The airport was built by a Public Limited Company promoted by the State Government. Now two more green field airports at Bangalore and at Hyderabad are under construction. 156. Consider the following sites/monuments : 1. Champaner - Pavagadh Archaeological Park 2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai 3. Mamallapuram 4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple) Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Arts. (d) Explanation: World Heritage List is maintained by UNESCO. There are 26 Indian properties in the World Heritage List. 157. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Distinguished Person) List-II (Achievement/ Known as) A. Guenter Grass 1. First woman Prime Minister of Canada B. Trevor Huddleston 2. Nobel Prize Winner for literature 124 C. Dicky Dolma apartheid in 3. Leading 159. 160. 161. against South Africa 4. Youngest woman to climb the Mt. D. Kim Campbell Everest 158. campaigner 5. American viol ini st A B C D A B C D (a) 5 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 5 3 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 Consider the following statements : 1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945. 2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945. 3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans. (c) Explanation: The charter of UNO was adopted at San Fransisco, USA in June, 1945. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Distinguished Person) List-II (Area of Work) A. B. V. Rao 1. Automobiles Manufacture B. C.K. Prahalad 2. Fisheries Economy C. John Kurien 3. Information Technology and Software D. Kiran Karnik 4. Poultry Farming 5. Management Science A B C D A B C D (a) 2 5 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 5 (c) 2 3 1 5 (d) 4 5 2 3 Ans. (d) Explanation: A-4, B-5, C-2, D-3 Recently, to which of the following countries did India offer to built a Buddha Temple ? (a) China (b) Myanmar (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam Ans. (a) Explanation: During Chinese premier Wen Jiabao's recent visit to India, the two governments signed the Memorandum on Construction of an Indian Style Buddhist Temple on the Western Side of the White Horse Temple in Luoyang, Henan Province. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member? (a) Cambodia (b) China (c) Laos (d) Philippines 125 162. 163. 164. 165. Ans. (b) Explanation: China is not a member of ASEAN but a member in ASEAN + 3 alongwith South Korea and Japan. Consider the following statements : 1. Second World Buddhist Summit was held in Bangkok in NovemberDecember, 2004. 2. World Punjabi Conference was held in Jalandhar in December, 2004. 3. 4th Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) Explanation: Fourth Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004. Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly. 2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house. 3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 an 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Ans. (d) Explanation: The Lower House is the State Duma and the Upper House is the Federation Council in the Russian Parliament. Consider the following statements : 1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome. 2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards. 3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) None Ans. (c) Explanation: ISO is a network of National Standards Institute of 151 countries, on the basis of one member per one country with its Headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland. Consider the following statements : 1. Vigyan Rail is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. 2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. 3. EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None Ans. (d) Explanation: Vigyan Rail is organized by 'Vigyan Prasar' jointly with the support of Ministry of Railways and Department of Science and Technology. Vigyan Prasar is an 126 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. autonomous body under Department of Science and Technology (Ministry of Science and Technology). EDUSAT was launched from Sriharikota. Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an outstanding player? (a) Table tennis (b) Hockey (c) Football (d) Basketball Ans. (c) Explanation: Shanmugham Venkatesh is a player of Football. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Southern Air Command : Thiruvananthapuram (b) Eastern Naval Command : Visakhapatnam (c) Armoured Corps Centre : Jabalpur and School (d) Army Medical Corps : Lucknow Centre and School Ans. (c) Explanation: Armoured Corps Centre and School is located in Ahmednagar, Maharashtra. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Publication Group 1. Sportstar : The Hindu publication group 2. Businessworld : ABP group 3. The Week : Malayala Manorama publication group 4. Reader’s Digest : Indian Express publication group Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c)2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: Reader's Digest Group : Living Media India Limited, New Delhi. In which country is Bandung, where the Conference of African and Asian nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) situated ? (a) Thailand (b) Egypt (c) Indonesia (d) Philippines Ans. (c) Explanation: Bandung is situated in Indonesia. Match stems in the List-I (Businesswoman) with those in the List-ii (Company) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II A. Zia Mody 1. Venkateshwara Hatcheries B. Anuradha J.Desai 2. AZB & Partners C. Villoo Morawala Patell 3. Quantum Market Research D. MeenaKaushik 4. Avestha Gengraine Technologies 5. Biocon India A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 5 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 5 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (d) Explanation : A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Project Company 127 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. (a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jaipur (Orissa) : Steel Authority of India (b) Power Plant at Jamnagar (Gujarat) : Essar Power (c) Nabinagar Power Plant (Bihar) : Indian Railways (d) Kayamkulom Power Plant (Kerala) : National Thermal Power Corporation Ans. (b) Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched ? British Prime Minister Political Party (a) John Major : Conservative Party (b) James Callaghan : Labour Party (c) Harold Wilson : Conservative Party (d) Margaret Thatcher : Conservative Party Ans. (c) Explanation: Harold Wilson belongs to Labour Party. Match items in List-I with those in the List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Location) List - II (Known For/In News for) A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit C. Marmagao 3. Bio-diesel plant D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language ? (a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia (c) Mauritius (d) Singapore Ans. (d) Explanation: Tamil is a major language in Singapore. Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810. 2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress. 3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress. The Declaration of the Independence of the 13 states of which the American Union then consisted was adopted by Congress on July 4, 1776. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work ? 128 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. (a) Ministry of Agriculture (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development (d) Ministry of Rural Development Ans. (c) Explanation: Under the Ministry of Human Resource Development does the Food and Nutrition Board Work. Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission formed in December, 2004 ? (a) Ratan Tata (b) Deepak Parikh (c) Ashok Ganguly (d) Kumaramangalam Birla Ans. (d) Explanation: Investment Commission headed by Ratan Tata with the two other members include HDFC Chairman Deepak Parikh and Chairman of I-one Source, Ashok Ganguly. In which one of the following countries did hundreds of people die in year 2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm Jeanne ? (a) Colombia (b) Haiti (c) Sudan (d) Ghana Ans. (b) Explanation : In Haiti, hundreds of people die in the year 2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm Jeanne. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) The First Meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines in the year 2004 (b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/ Convention on Biological Diversity (c) The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms (d) The United States of America is member of the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity Ans. (c) Explanation: India is a signatory to International Convention on Biological Diversity Since May, 1994. The First meeting of the Parties (MOP-1) to the Cartagena protocol on Biosafety was held in the year 2000. Where was world’s largest ever Meet on HIV AIDS held in July, 2004 ? (a) Bangkok (b) Singapore (c) New York (d) Rome Ans. (a) Explanation: World's largest ever Meet on HIV AIDS was held in July, 2004 in Bangkok. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I(Lawn Tennis Tournament) List - II (Winner of Women Singles) A. French 0pen-2004 1. Svetlana Kuznetsova B. Wimbledon-2004 2. Anastasia Myskina C. US 0pen-2004 3. Maria Sharapova D. Australian 0pen-2004 4. Serena Williams 5. Justine Henin-Hardene A B C D A B C D 129 (a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 5 (c) 5 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 5 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5 182. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Famous Former Sportsperson) List II (Game/Sport) A. Wally Grout 1. Swimming B. Eusebio 2. Lawn Tennis C. Rod Laver 3. Cricket D. Mark Spitz 4. Football 5. Basketball A B C D A B C D (a) 3 5 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 5 3 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 183. Consider the following statements : 1. The Man Booker Prize is awarded to citizen of any of the countries of the British Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland. 2. A leading London-based software company underwrites the Man Booker Prize presently. 3. The winner of the Man Booker Prize in year 2004 is a South Asian. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) Explanation: Man Group Pic. is not a Software company. It is a leading global provider of alternative investment products and solutions as well as one of the World's largest future brokers. Alan Hoilinghurst, the winner of Man Booker Prize, 2004 is from England. 184. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? Person Award 1. Champadevi Shukla : Goldman Environmental Prize 2. Dr. P. Sri Ramachanrudu : Vachaspati 3. Ela Ramesh Bhatt : Lai Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management 4. Upamanyu Chatterjee : Lalit Kala Ratna Award Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation : Upamanyu Chatterjee is the Winner of Sahitya Award. 2006 130 185. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Well-known Company Major Area of Work (a) Adobe Systems India : Software (b) Sasken : Communication technology (c) Genpact : Power generation (d) Synthite : Export of spices Ans. (c) Explanation: Genpact is a BPO Company not a power generation company. 186. Zayed bin Sultan-al-Nafayan was a Song serving President of which of the following ? (a) Oman (b) Kuwait (c) United Arab Emirates (d)Saudi Arabia Ans. (c) Explanation: Zayed bin Sultan-al-Nahyan was a long serving President of United Arab Emirates. 187. In which State is the Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located ? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttaranchal Ans. (a) Explanation: Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development is located in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu. 188. What was the main reason for which Niger was in the news in recent times ? (a) Many deaths due to AIDS (b) Fierce civil war (c) Intense fighting with Algeria (d) Famine and starvation Ans. (d) Explanation: Niger was in the news because of famine and starvation due to Locust epidemics and Drought conditions. 189. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List - I (Author) List - II (Book) A. Amartya Sen 1. An Ordinary Person’s Guide to Empire B. BimalJalan 2. The Argumentative Indian C. Arundhati Roy 3. The Future of India D. Mani Shankar Aiyar 4. Confessions of a Secular Fundamentalist A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 3 4 1 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 190. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Scientific Achievement Country (a) Creating the world’s first mouse with a full human chromosome : United Kingdom (b) Cloning a human embryo for the first time : Germany 131 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. (c) Guiding a spacecraft for collision with a comet : United States of America (d) Landing a spacecraft on an asteroid : Japan Ans. (b) Explanation: Cloning a human embryo for the first time was done by the Scientists at Massachusetts, U.S.A. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ? Inventor Invention 1. Christopher Cockerell : Hovercraft 2. David Bushnell : Submarine 3. J.C. Perrier : Steamship Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only (c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only Ans. (b) Explanation: Fulton invented the Steamship. Who among the following wrote “The Communist Manifesto” along with Karl Marx ? (a) Emile Durkheim (b) Friedrich Engels (c) Robert Owen (d) Max Weber Ans. (b) Explanation: Friedrich Engels an Industrialist in England, wrote "The Communist Manifesto" alongwith Karl Marx. Who among the following was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Award, 2005 for her lifetime achievement in dance ? (a) Chandralekha (b) Tanjavur Balasaraswati (c) Uma Sharma (d) Yamini Krishnamurthy Ans. (a) Explanation : Chandralekha was presented the Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Award, 2005. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming ? (a) Australia (b) Germany (c) Japan (d) New Zealand Ans. (d) Explanation: New Zealand is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming. Who is Wole Soyinka ? (a) A well-known economist (b) A well-known football player (c) A well-known industrialist owning steel plants in many parts of the world (d) A Nobel Prize winner for literature Ans. (d) Explanation: Wole Soyinka is a Nobel Prize winner for literature. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN ? (a) Vietnam (b) Brunei Darussalam (c) Bangladesh (d) Myanmar Ans. (c) Explanation : 132 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. ASEAN founded in 1967. Its original signatories are Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand and later expanded to Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam and Brunei Darussalam. Papua New Guinea was given observer status and summit level dialogue partners are China, S. Korea, Japan and India. Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network, located ? (a) Russia (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh Ans. (c) Explanation: South-East coast of Sri Lanka. Whom did Croatia defeat in the Davis Cup - 2005 Finals to win the Davis Cup 2005 ? (a) United States of America (b) Slovak Republic (c) Argentina (d) Spain Ans. (b) Explanation : Croatia defeat Slovak Republic in the Davis Cup, 2005. Indian Airlines (New name : Indian) have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel. This logo has been inspired from which one of the following ? (a) Hampi Temples (b) Mamallapuram Temples (c) Sun Temple, Konark (d) Khajuraho Temple Ans. (c) Explanation: Sun Temple, Konark. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Area of Distinction) A. E.C.G. Sudarshan 1. Theatre B. V. Shanta 2. Violin C. T.N. Krishnan 3. Research in Physics D. Mahesh Dattani 4. Cancer treatment 5. Water-harvesting A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 5 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 5 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 What is the Universal Product Code (UPC) adopted for ? (a) Fire safety code in buildings (b) Earthquake-resistant building code (c) Bar code (d) Against adulteration eatables Ans. (c) Explanation: UPC was the first Bar code Symbology widely adopted. For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games ? (a) Swimming (b) Boxing (c) Long Jump (d) High Jump Ans. (b) Explanation: 133 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. Olympic boxer displaying the best style and technique will be awarded Val Barker Cup in the Olympic Games. Which one among the following was the first to legalize euthanasia ? (a) Austria (b) Switzerland (c) Netherlands (d) Canada Ans. (c) Explanation: Netherlands was the first country to legalize euthanasia in April 2002. Which one of the following is not a Central University ? (a) Pondicherry University (b) Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad (c) Visva Bharti, Shanti Niketan (d) University of Madras, Chennai Ans. (d) Explanation: University of Madras, Chennai is not a Central University. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Leading Woman List - II (Country) Lawn Tennis Player) A. Daniela Hanutchova 1. Russia B. Patty Schnyder 2. Slovakia C. Nadia Petrova 3. France D. Amelie Mauresmo 4. Switzerland A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List - I List - II A. Harold Pinter 1. Director-General, FAO B. Jacques Diouf 2. President, European Commission C. Jose Manuel 3. World Bank appointed expert for adjudicating on the Baglihar Barroso Hydel project D. Raymond Lafitte 4. Litterateur A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Sigmund Freud : Psychoanalysis (b) Anna Freud : Child psychiatry (c) Milton Friedman : Economics (d) Eric R. Kandel : Literature Ans. (d) Explanation: 134 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. Eric R. Kandel, the 2000 Nobel Prize Laureate in Physiology. Which one of the following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in Barmer-Sanchore basin of Rajasthan ? (a) Cairn Energy (b) Unocal Corporation (c) Reliance Energy Ventures (d) ONGC Ans. (a) Explanation: Cairn Energy, a British Oil Firm. Recently with which country’s government did ONGC-Mittal Energy Limited (OMEL) sign a joint venture deal of $6 billion dealing with infrastructure, refinery and power ? (a) Colombia (b) Venezuela (c) Nigeria (d) Saudi Arabia Ans. (c) Explanation: OMEL sign a joint venture deal with Nigeria's Govt. Which one among the following was awarded the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award 2004 in September, 2005 by the Prime Minister of India ? (a) Infosys Technologies Ltd. (b) Midas Communication Technologies (c) Tata Consultancy Services (d) Biocon India Ltd. Ans. (b) Explanation: MIDAS Communication Technologies was awarded the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award, 2004. Who among the following directed the film chosen as India’s official entry for the year 2006 Academy Awards ? (a) Adoor Gopalakrishnan (b) Amol Palekar (c) Sanjay Leela Bhansali (d) Kunal Kohli Ans. (b) Explanation: Amol Palekar's Film 'Paheli'. Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh governments signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the linking of two rivers as a link project. Which are these two rivers ? (a) Betwa and Chambal (b) Betwa and Ken (c) Chambal and Son (d) Ken and Narmada Ans. (b) Explanation: A tripartite agreement for the first interlinking of River has been signed by Centre, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh to divert surplus waters of Ken river basin to water deficit Betwa basin, through construction of Dandhan dam on Ken river and a 231 km. long canal. With reference to the Government of India’s various programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar ? (a) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for the single girl child in families in villages. (b) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for female sportspersons from villages who represent their states in any game. (c) It is an incentive scheme for schools in the villages for computer education. 135 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. (d) It is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj institutions. Arts.(d) Explanation: It is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj Institutions. In which Olympics Games did India last win a Gold Medal ? (a) Montreal (1976) (b) Moscow (1980) (c) Los Angeles (1984) (d) Atlanta (1996) Ans. (b) Explanation: India last win a Gold Medal in Moscow Olympics (1980) for the Hockey event. In which country is the committee which selects winners for Nobel Peace Prize located ? (a) Norway (b) Sweden (c) Finland (d) Denmark Ans. (a) Explanation: Nobel Peace Prize Committee is located in Oslo, Norway. Match List - I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List - II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List - I List - II A. C.N.R. Rao 1. Telecommunication B. Jagdish Bhagwati 2. Physics C. G.N. Ramachandran 3. Economics D. Ashok Jhunjhunwala 4. Solid State Chemistry and Material Science A B C D A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 Ans. (a) Explanation: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Area of Work) A. ElaBhatt 1. Theatre training B. Mahashweta Devi 2. Women’s labour sector C. Ebrahim Alkazi 3. Management teaching D. Vijay Govindarajan 4. Litterateur and social worker for the country’s tribal communities A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (b) Explanation: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Organization/Area of Work) A. Chanda Kochhar 1. Advertising B. Amrita Patel 2. Banking C. Indra Nooyi 3. Dairy Development D. Piyush Pandey 4. Pepsi Co. 136 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (c) Explanation: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 To which one of the following processes is the term CMYK related ? (a) Railway signalling (b) Navigation (c) Offset printing (d) Electronic voting machine Ans. (c) Explanation: CMYK related to Offset printing. /It is substractive colour model used in colour printing. The colours are Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and Key (Black). Consider the following statements : 1. Kofi Annan - the UN Secretary General is from Nigeria. 2. Kofi Annan is the first UN Secretary General to be appointed from the ranks of the United Nations staff. 3. Kofi Annan was appointed for a second term to the office of the UN Secretary General. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only (c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only Ans. (c) Explanation: Kofi Annan is from Ghana and is the Seventh Secretary General of UNO. Which one of the following countries is not a participating team in the Football World Cup-2006 to be held in Germany in July 2006 ? (a) Russia (b) Togo (c) Ivory Coast (d) Switzerland Ans. (a) Explanation : Russia is not a participating team in the Football World Cup 2006. Consider the following statements : 1. The Nobel Prize Awarding Ceremony takes place on December 10 of every year. 2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was added later on to the other five areas Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Economics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) Explanation: The Nobel Prize for Economics (also called Nobel Memorial Prize) was set up by Swedish Central Bank in 1968 to commemorate its tricentennial was added later on to the other five areas - Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Literature, which were set up after the death of the inventor, Alfred Nobel. What is Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF) ? (a) An agency formed by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to check misuse of drugs by sports-persons 137 (b) A non-governmental organization which specializes in international humanitarian aid and emergency medical assistance (c) An organization to develop applications of nanotechnology in medicine (d) An organization of medical practitioners funded by the European Union which carries out research against spread of AIDS Ans. (b) Explanation: MSF is a non-governmental organization which specializes in international humanitarian aid and emergency medical assistance 224. In which one of the following films did the Nobel Laureate Pearl S. Buck collaborate ? (a) Shatranj Ke Khilari (b) Guide (c) Lawrence of Arabia (d) Titanic Ans. (b) Explanation: Nobel laureaute 'Pearl S. Buck' was the screen writer of 'Guide' (1965). 225. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the Nordic Council ? (a) Norway (b) Denmark (c) Iceland (d) United Kingdom Ans. (d) Explanation: Nordic Council consists of Norway, Sweden, Denmark, Iceland and Finland. U.K. is not a member of the Nordic Council. 226. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research ? (a) President of India (b) Vice-President of India (c) Prime Minister of India (d) Union Minister of Science and Technology Ans. (c) Explanation: Prime Minister of India - President of CSIR. Union Minister of Science and Technology - Vice President of CSIR. R.A. Mashelkar - Director General of CSIR. 2007 227. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Writer) List-II (Book) A. V. S. Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur B. Salmman Rushdie2. In a Free State C. Paul Seott 3. Midnight’s Children D. J. G. Farrell 4. Staying On A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 Ans. (a) Explanation: 2, 3, 4, 1 • V. S. Naipaul is a British writer. In 1971, he became the first person of Indian origin to win a Booker Prize for his book "In a Free State". • Salmman Rushdie is a British Indian novelist and essayist. He won the Booker Prize for his second novel "Midnight's children". 138 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. • Paul Scott was a British novelist and poet. He won the Booker Prize in 1977 for his novel "Staying On". • J. G. Farrell was a British novelist. He won the Booker Prize in 1973 for his book "The Sieze of Krishnapur". What is the Galileo Project which has been in news recently ? (a) An intercountry programme of missile shield developed by the United States of America (b) A project developed by India with assistance from Canada (c) An environmental protection project being developed by Japan (d) A multi-satellite navigation project being developed by the European Union Ans. (d) Explanation: Galileo is based on a constellation of 30 satellites and ground stations providing information concerning the positioning of users in many sectors such as transport, social services, the justice system and custom services, public works, search and rescue systems, etc. Near the end of the year 2006, which one of the following countries was suspended from the Commonwealth after a military coup ? (a) Kenya (b) Myanmar (c) Fiji (d) Tanzania Ans. (c) Explanation: In Dec., 2006, Fiji's military commander Frank Bainimarama seized control of the country marking the fourth coup in two decades. He dismissed PM Laisenia Qarase accusing him of corruption and leading Fiji oh a path of doom. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 42 Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006 because of which one of the following ? (a) Finding high quality gas reserves (b) Finding uranium deposits (c) Finding zinc deposits (d) Installation of wind power units Ans. (a) Explanation: In May, 2006 High Quality Gas Reserves have been found at a depth of 3,161 metres in an exploratory well drilled in Shahgarh block in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. The gas was estimated to have 88 to 91% hydrocarbon. Which one of the following countries recently upgraded its defence agency to a full defence ministry ? (a) Italy (b) Japan (c) Switzerland (d) Poland Ans. (b) Explanation: Japan’s Security Council and Cabinet, both led by Prime Minister Junichiro Koizumi, on June 2006, endorsed legislation to upgrade Defence Agency to a Cabinet-level ministry. Who among the following was chosen as the FIFA World Player of the Year for the year 2006 ? (a) Zinedine Zidane (b) Fabio Cannavaro (c) Ronaldinho (d) Thierry Henry Ans. (b) Explanation: 139 233. 234. 235. 236. Italy's Fabio Cannavaro who lead Italy to the world cup won FIFA world player of the year 2006 with 498 points. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 Page 196 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Known as) A. John C. Mather 1. Co-founder of Microsoft B. Michael Griffin 2. Space Walker C. Paul G. Allen 3. Administrator of NASA D. Piers Sellers 4. Nobel Prize Winner, 2006 in Physics A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (c) Explanation: 4, 3, 1, 2 • John C. Mather is an American astrophysicist and cosmologist. He was awarded with Nobel Prize in Physics in 2006, shared with George F. Smoot. • Michael Griffin began his duties as the 11th Administrator of NASA on April 14, 2005. • Paul G. Allen is an American Entrepreneur. With Bill Gates, he formed Microsoft. • Piers Sellers is a British-American astronaut. In 2002, he performed three spacewalks to help install the third piece of International Space Station structure. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Cosmic Background : Satellite programme Explorer (COBE) (b) Falcon : Under-sea cable system (c) Discovery : Space shuttle (d) Atlantis : Space station Ans. (d) Explanation: Atlantis is not a space station but is a 'Space Mission'. Consider the following statements : 1. China has the observer’s status at the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. 2. India has the observer’s status at the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Eminent Person) List-II (Known as) A. BhanuBharti 1. Music composer B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and Litterateur C. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam 3. Theatre director D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife film maker A B C D A B C D 140 237. 238. 239. 240. (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (d) Explanation: Bhanu Bharti is one of the eminent theatre directors who directed two plays 'Bapu' and 'Samrat'. Documentary film maker Mike Pandey wins the prestigious Green Oscar award for his movie 'The Vanishing Giants'. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam is an Indian music composer. He is better known as Khayyam. Vinda Karandikar is a famous Marathi poet. He is the winner of 39th Jnanpith Award. In the latter half of the year 2006, in which one of the following countries did a military coup take place ? (a) Cambodia (b) Laos (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam Ans. (c) Explanation: Thailand Coup : General Sonthi Boonyaratkalin ousted the PM Thaksin Shinanatra who was away into UN tour. The military took over the administration and formed a council of administrative reforms. General Sonthi, a Muslim in the Buddhist dominated nation is known to be close to the king. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 40 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List-I (Company) List-II (Major Area/Product) A. Chevron 1. Wind energy B. A T & T 2. Oil C. AMD 3. Telephone, internet D. Enercon GmbH 4. Micro-processor A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (c) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) William Dickson : Motion Picture film (b) Charles Babbage ; Programmable computer (c) Nicholas Stem : Construction Technology (d) Brian Greene : String theory Ans. (c) Explanation: Nicholas Stern is a British‘Economist and Academic. He was the Chief Economist and Vice-President of World Bank from 2000 to 2003, Where are the headquarters of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located ? (a) Dubai (b) Jeddah (c) Islamabad (d) Ankara Ans. (b) Explanation: The headquarter of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) is located at Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. It is an inter-governmental organization with a Permanent Delegation to the United Nations. It groups 57 mostly Islamic nations. 141 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 85 Which one of the following cities has been the venue of the Asian Games for the maximum number of times from the year 1951 to the year 2006 ? (a) Delhi (b) Bangkok (c) Tokyo (d) Beijing Ans. (b) Explanation: Venue Number of times hosted Bangkok (Thailand) 4 (1966, 1970, 1978, 1998) Delhi (India) 2 (1951, 1982) Tokyo (Japan) 2 (1958, 1994) Beijing (China) 1 (1990) Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he won Doubles Final in the US Open Tennis Tournament 2006 ? (a) Max Mimyi (b) Martin Damm (c) Bob Bryan (d) Mike Bryan Ans. (b) Explanation: In the U.S. Open Tennis Tournament, 2006, Leander Paes (India) and Martin Damm (Czech Republic) beat Max Miryni (Belarus) and Jonas Bjorkman to win the title. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 201 Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW) ? (a) Edward Kasner (b) Bill Gates (c) Tim Bemers-Lee (d) Vinod Dham Ans. (c) Explanation: In 1989, Tim Bernes Lee invented the World Wide Web, an internet-based hypermedia initiative for global information sharing. He wrote the first web client and server in 1990. Tim Berners Lee, a British received the Millenium Technology prize for conceiving the world wide web (www). The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following ? (a) Environmental protection (b) Olympic games (c) Journalism (d) Civil Aviation Ans. (c) For which one of the following books did Kirari Desai win the Man Booker Prize 2006 ? (a) The Secret River (b) In the Country of Men (c) The Inheritance of Loss (d) Mother’s Milk Ans. (c) Explanation: Kiran Desai won the Man Booker Prize, 2006 for her novel The inheritance of loss' She became the third Indian after Salman Rushdie and Arundhati Roy and became the youngest women writer to get the prize. The Novel is set against the backdrop of the Gorkha land movement Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 205 Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957 ? (a) Minnowbrook (USA) (b) Rhode Island (USA) (c) Nova Scotia (Canada) (d) Nagasaki (Japan) Ans. (c) 142 247. 248. 249. 250. Explanation: Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs is an international organisation that brings together scholars and public figures to work towards reducing the danger of armed conflict and to seek solutions to global security threats. It was founded in 1957 by Joseph Rotblat and Bertrand Russell at Thinkers Lodge in Pugwash, Nova Scotia following the release of the RussellEinstein Manifesto in 1955 Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 90 How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known as? (a) Known for research in agriculture (b) A renowned football coach (c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature (d) Known for research in railway engineering Ans. (c) Explanation: Gabriel Garcia Marquez, also known as Gabo is a Colombian novelist, journalist, publisher, political activist, and recipient of the 1982 Nobel Prize in Literature. He is best known for his novel "One hundred years of Solitude" and "Facilitators from Spain". Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following ? (a) Cardiology (b) Influenza virus (c) HIV/AIDS (d) Alzheimer Ans. (b) Explanation: Robert Webster, a virologist from New Zealand was the first to announce a link between human flu and bird flu in 1957. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following ? (a) Journalism (b) International economics (c) Sustainable development (d) Child development Ans. (c) Explanation: Prof. Wangari M. Maathai, who became the first African (Kenya) woman to win the Nobel Peace Prize in 2004, is internationally recognized for her persistent struggle for democracy, human rights and environmental conservation. Consider the following statements : 1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO). 2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) Explanation: The Treaty of Brussels, signed on 17 March 1948 by Belgium, Netherlands, Luxemburg, France and the U.K. The treaty converted into western European Union. 143 251. 252. 253. 254. 255. On 4 April, 1949, the North Atlantic Treaty was signed in Washington, DC, which included the Five Treaty of Brussels states, USA, Canada, Portugal, Italy, Norway, Denmark and Iceland. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Company) A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group B. Tulsi R. Tanti 2. Info Edge India (which runs naukri.com) C. Shashi Ruia 3. Indian (Indian Airlines) D. S. Bikhchandani 4. Suzlon Energy A B C D A B C D (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (d) Who among the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Cricket ? . 1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee 3. Glenn McGroth 4. Courtney Walsh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation : Bowlers with more than 500 Test Wickets are Shane Warne, Muralidharan, McGrath, Walsh and Anil Kumble. NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus ? (a) Hailey’s Comet (b) Hale-Bopp (c) Hyakutake (d) Tempel Ans. (d) Explanation: NASA’s Deep Impact Space Mission was launched on Jan. 12, 2005 to study the composition of the interior of the comet Tempel 1 by colliding a section of the spacecraft into the comet. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects whicHi„of the following ? (a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via Bangladesh (b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar (c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan (d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via Myanmar Ans. (b) Explanation: Stilwell Road original name Ledo Road, highway 769 km long that links northeastern India with the Burma road, which runs from Burma to China. During World War II the Stilwell road was a strategic military route. With reference to the international meetings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ? 1. NAM Summit : Havana 2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok 3. EU-India Summit : Helsinki 4. UN Climate Change Conference : Geneva Select the correct answer using the codes given below : 144 256. 257. 258. 259. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) Explanation: APEC Meeting washeld on 18-19 November, 2006. The main theme of this Summit was towards a dynamic community for sustainable development and prosperity. NAM Summit was held in Havanna, Cuba on 15-16 September, 2006. Theme of the Summit - Purpose and principles of NAM in the present international juncture'. EU-India Summit was held in Helsinki, Finland on 16 October, 2006. UN Climate Change Conference - Kenya Source : India at a glance - 2007, Page 160 New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 48 Who among the following wrote the book -Ayodhya : 6 December 1992 ? (a) Chandra Shekhar (b) P. V. Narasimha Rao (c) Jaswant Singh (d) Arun Shourie Ans. (b) Explanation: P. V. Narsimha Rao wrote the Book Ayodhya : 6 Dec., 1992. The book is on the demolition of Babri Masjid in Ayodhya. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 253 Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ? (a) Russia (b) Kazakhstan (c) Ukraine (d) Uzbekistan Ans. (c) Explanation: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization which was founded on June 14, 2001 by leaders of the China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. Its headquarter is in Beijing, China. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 86 Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane Declaration in October, 2006 ? (a) China and South Africa (b) India and South Africa (c) South Africa and Botswana (d) Saudi Arabia and South Africa Ans. (b) Explanation: PM Manmohan Singh visited South Africa in 2006. 'The Tshwane Declaration' brought out, reaffirmed their strategic partnership and it called for the early adoption of a comprehensive convention on internation terrorism. It talks of enhanced co-operation in the tourism sector, and also carrying forward the proposed partnership in pan-African e-network and the World Knowledge Platform. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 37 Recently, the European Union and other six countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it ? (a) Canada (b) China (c) Japan (d) USA Ans. (a) Explanation: 145 260. 261. 262. 263. ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is a global effort to harness energy from nuclear fission, the process that powers sun and other stars. It comprises seven members - EU, Russia, US, Japan, China, Korea and India Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 228 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Known as) A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor C. Priyadarsini Govind 3. Mridangam maestro D. T. V. Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (c) Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China ? (a) Chang La (b) Jara La (c) Nathu La (d) Shipki La Ans. (c) Explanation: On July 6, India and China formally inaugurated trade through Nathu La pass linking Tibet autonomous region and Sikkim. The 430 m high pass was closed 44 years ago after the 1962 conflict. Source : New Vishal’s Current Affairs - 2007, Page 37 How is Steve Fossett known as ? (a) As a crocodile hunter (b) For completing the longest nonstop flight around the globe (c) For swimming across Atlantic Ocean (d) For climbing to Mt. Everest without any coclimber Ans. (b) Explanation: James Stephen Fossett is a American aviator and adventurer known for his appetite to set world record. Fossett, who made his fortune in the American financial service industry, is best known for his five world record non-stop circumnavigations of the Earth; as a long-distance solo balloonist, as a sailor, and as a solo airplane pilot. Fossett has set 116 records in five different sports, 76 of'which still stand. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List-I (Person) List-II (Position/ Organization) A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, U.S. House of Representatives C. Pascal Lamy 3. WHO D. Steve Ballmer 4. Microsoft A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 1 3 2 Ans. (c) 146 264. In which one of the following cities is the Global Automotive Research Centre being set up? (a) Chennai (b) Hyderabad (c) Pune (d) Gurgaon Ans. (a) Explanation: PM lays foundation stone of Global Automotive Research Centre in November, 2006 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. 265. Consider the following statements : 1. Republicans won the majority in the U.S. House of Representatives Elections held in the year 2006. 2. Republican Bobby Jindal, won a seat in the U.S. House of Representatives for the second time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) 266. What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine, worked to get the Prize ? (a) Prevention of weakening due to ageing (b) Flow of genetic information (c) Immunology and disease resistance (d) Adult stem cell research Ans. (b) Explanation: The 2006 Nobel Prize in Physiology is shared by Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C. Mello. The two researchers are honoured for their discovery of RNA interference, a mechanism for silencing genes that could lead to new disease treatment. 267. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon launched by the Government of India ? (a) Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the victims of earthquake in that country (b) Evacuating the Indian Nationals from Lebanon during the conflict in the Middle East (c) Assisting United Nations in its efforts to help the civil war victims in the Darfur region of North Africa (d) Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh Ans. (b) Explanation: Operation Sukoon was launched by India to evacuate its nationals and that of Sri Lanka, Nepal who were fleeing from the Israeli-Lebnese conflict in JulyAugust 2006. Sukoon means relief in Urdu. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 239 268. Who among the following is Chile’s first woman President ? (a) D. Ortega (b) M. Bachelet (c) E. Morales (d) A. Garcia Ans. (b) Explanation: Ms. Michelle Bachelet is the first woman President of Chile and second women elected head of a South American state after Janet Jagan of Gayana in 1997. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 14 269. Parimarjan Negi has excelled in which one of the following games ? 147 (a) Billiards (b) Swimming (c) Chess (d) Weightlifting Ans. (c) Explanation: Parimarjan Negi became the youngest international master achieved at the age of 12 (Jan. 2006) in the Hastings Master tournament (Chess). He broke the record held by England's David Howell since 2004 Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 198 270. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the European Union in January, 2007? (a) Bulgaria & Romania (b) Bulgaria & Belgium (c) Romania and Slovenia (d) Hungary & Croatia Arts. (a) Explanation: Romania and Bulgaria joined the Europian Union on Jan. 1, 2007, taking the membership of EU to 27. The two nations together bring 30 million new people into EU. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 40 271. Raghu Rai is well known for which one of the following areas ? (a) Research in Mathematics (b) Photography (c) Water harvesting (d) Pollution control Ans. (b) Explanation: Raghu Rai is an Indian photographer and a staff member of 'the Statesman' a New Delhi publication. 272. Which one of the following organisations won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology (S & T) Innovations for Rural Development, 2006 ? (a) CLRI (b) IARI (c)NDDB J (d) NDRI Ans. (a) Explanation: CLRI (Central Leather Research Institute), became the first recipient of the CSIR award for Innovations for rural development instituted by CSIR in 2006. It was awarded the prize for development of several technologies impacting positively on livelihood of the people. Source : New Vishal's Current Affairs 2007 - Page 209 148