HKIA/ARB Professional Assessment Sample Questions

Transcription

HKIA/ARB
Professional Assessment
Sample Questions
November 2012
Sample Questions for Paper 1 Statutory Controls in Building Works
1.
One of the purposes of “usable floor space” in building plan submissions is
for determining
A.
B.
C.
D.
the area of the refuse chamber.
the provision of sanitary fitments.
the area within a flat, exclusive of common areas.
the assumed population that has to be evacuated in case of
emergency.
Ans.
:
A
2.
Which of the following is exempted from the provisions of the Buildings
Ordinance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any street works.
Any non-structural works.
Works for any building belonging to the Government.
Works for any building belonging to the Housing Society.
Ans.
:
C
3.
Development proposal for a site zoned “Comprehensive Development
Area” in an Outline Zoning Plan always requires
A.
B.
C.
D.
submission of a traffic impact study.
submission of a landscape proposal.
approval by the Lands Department under “design, disposition and
height” clause of the lease conditions.
approval by the Town Planning Board under “Section 16” of the Town
Planning Ordinance.
Ans.
:
4.
Who is the Licensing Authority for a restaurant situated at a licensed hotel?
Ans.
D
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Director of Buildings
The Commissioner of Police
The Secretary for Home Affairs
The Director of Food and Environmental Hygiene
:
D
Sample question 2012 – Paper 1 Statutory Controls in Building Works
5.
Which of the following always requires approval and consent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hoardings for demolition works
Contractor’s shed to be erected above hoardings
Provision of show flats within a construction site
Ground investigations works
Ans.
:
C
6.
Under Building (Planning) Regulations, which of the following statements
about “open space” is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Open space is required for both office and domestic buildings.
No part of a domestic building shall be within 1.5m from the rear site
boundary.
The level difference within any part of a required open space must not
exceed 600mm.
The minimum dimension of an open space shall be not less than
2.3m.
Ans.
:
7.
Which combination of the following criteria requires a room to be provided
with at least 2 exit doors?
Ans.
B
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The size of the room exceeds 30 m2.
The capacity of the room exceeds 30 persons.
The direct distance is below 18m but exceeds 15 m.
The travel distance is below 18m but exceeds 15 m.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
:
C
8.
When applying for an “Occupation Permit”, which of the following
documents are required?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Certificate of Compliance
Plan index
Drainage connection advice
Completion advice from EMSD
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans.
:
C
9.
Irrespective of its distance from adjoining buildings, the roof
(1)
(2)
(3)
of a domestic building must have an FRP of not less than 1 hour.
of a single-staircase building of more than 13m above ground level
should have an FRP of not less than 1 hour.
of a building intended for use as a refuge floor must have an FRP of
not less than 2 hours.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (3)
Ans.
:
C
10.
Required smoke outlets for any basement must be
(1)
(2)
(3)
Ans.
(4)
not more than 30m apart.
not less than 1m in its least dimension.
covered with stall-boards with an FRP not less than that of the
basement.
located on external walls at the ground floor of the building.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (4) only
(3) and (4) only
:
A
11.
The Disability Discrimination Ordinance does not apply to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
buildings of 13 m or less in height for domestic use with multiple
occupancies.
buildings of 13 m or less in height for occupation by a single family.
temporary buildings referred to in the Building (Planning)
Regulations.
buildings with temporary occupation permits issued under the
Buildings Ordinance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans:
:
C
12.
An automatic sprinkler system is not required for
A.
B.
C.
D.
a 50-storey domestic building.
a single storey guesthouse with 20 guestrooms.
a single storey commercial building with a floor plate of 500 m2
a 3-storey low-rise office building with a floor plate of 200 m2 per floor.
Ans
:
A
13.
The Code of Practice for the provision of Means of Escape in Case of Fire
stipulates that where 2 or more exit staircases are required, people using
one staircase should be able to gain access to at least one of the other
staircases at each floor without having to pass through other person’s
premises, unless the staircases are inter-connected at roof level and
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
at refuge floors.
the building is a non-domestic building.
the building is less than 25 storeys high.
the usable floor area of each floor is less than 250 m2.
:
A
14.
Which of the following about hoardings are true?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Obtaining of consent for the hoarding plans is required before erection
of the hoardings.
Hoardings Permits may be renewed until completion of the
construction works.
Hoardings for demolition works may be re-used as hoardings for new
building works on the same site.
For hoardings to be erected on public streets, an Excavation Permit
must be obtained from the Highways Department prior to submission
of the Hoarding Plans to the Buildings Department.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
C
15.
Which of the following buildings constructed before 1 March 1987 are
“Specified Commercial Buildings” under the scope of the Fire Safety
(Commercial Premises) Ordinance?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A cinema
An office building
A shopping centre
A purpose-built department store
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
A
16.
An order by the Building Authority to cease the carrying out of building
works deviating from the approved structural plans is to be served to
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
the building owner.
the Authorized Person.
the Registered Structural Engineer.
the Registered General Building Contractor.
:
D
17.
The concept of “compartmentation”, in the context of Building
(Construction) Regulations, is for the purpose of
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
control of the spread of fire.
containment of smoke dispersion.
orderly evacuation of inhabitants in case of fire.
even distribution of automatic fire-fighting devices.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (4) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
A
18.
Where a private street within a site is created for the purpose of site
classification,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
the “street” must be provided with street hydrants.
the “street” must be an emergency vehicular access.
the windows facing the “street” may be deemed to face the external
air.
the area of the “street” shall not be counted for the purpose of site
area calculation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (4) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
D
19.
Which of the following building uses does not require risers and treads to
be respectively less than 175 mm and greater than 225 mm for Means of
Escape staircases?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cinema complex
Primary school
Kindergarten
Hospital
:
D
20.
Under the Building (Demolition Works) Regulations, which of the following
is not necessary for the Authorized Person appointed in respect of the
demolition works to carry out before commencement of the demolition
works?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cause all signboards attached to the building to be removed.
Cause the supply of gas and electricity to the building to be
disconnected.
Cause all tramways and street lighting fittings attached to the building
to be removed.
Cause all the fittings attached to the building in relation to supply of
electricity to be removed.
Ans
:
21.
Which of the following will not require application for lease modifications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
Development of a commercial building under a lease for industrial
use.
Provision of catering establishments in lots subjected to an “offensive
trade” clause.
Exemption of “green features” from Plot Ratio/Site Coverage
calculations.
Development of a building conforming with the Outline Zoning Plan
but exceeding the height limit in the lease conditions.
Ans
:
22.
Under normal circumstances, which of the following may be considered
upon application for exemption from site coverage calculation?
(1)
Ans
C
(2)
(3)
(4)
A curtain wall system forming the building envelope of an existing
building
Bay windows of bona fide hotels
A building that houses swimming pool filtration plants only
Balconies that meet the green feature requirements
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
:
B
23.
The purpose of “Practice Notes to Authorized Persons and Registered
Structural Engineers” is not to
A.
B.
C.
D.
serve as subsidiary legislation to the Building Regulations.
supplement codes of practice as defined in the Building Regulations.
provide directions based on record of previous decisions under the
Building Regulations.
provide updated information and guidance to Authorized Persons and
Registered Structural Engineers.
Ans
:
A
24.
Which of the following elements of construction need to satisfy all three
criteria, namely stability, integrity and insulation under the Code of Practice
for Fire Resisting Construction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Structural beam and column
Non-load-bearing compartment wall
Enclosure around services in staircase/lobby
Structural lift shaft
Ans
:
D
25.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans
:
The Building Authority will not approve any structural submissions
from an Authorized Person (List of Architects).
There is no need for a Building Owner to appoint a Registered
Structural Engineer for the construction of a temporary building.
An Authorized Person of a building project may also act as the
contractor on the same project only when he has informed the
Buildings Department.
The Building Authority may refuse to accept plan submissions from 2
or more Authorized Persons in respect of building works at the same
premises at the same time.
D
Refer to the drawing below and answer questions 26-28.
26.
If Site 1 and Site 2 are to be combined, the combined site is
A.
B.
C.
D.
a Class A site.
a Class B site.
a Class C site.
Not a Class A, Class B nor Class C site.
Ans
:
C
27.
If Site 3 and Site 4 are to be combined, the combined site is
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
a Class A site.
a Class B site.
a Class C site.
Not a Class A, Class B nor Class C site.
:
A
28.
If Site 4 is to be developed for a composite building, the site area for the
purpose of Plot Ratio and Site Coverage calculations is
A.
B.
C.
D.
380.0 m2.
400.0 m2.
420.0 m2.
440.0 m2.
Ans
:
B
29.
Under the Buildings Ordinance, it is the duty of a Registered General
Building Contractor to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
co-ordinate the works of all his subcontractors.
provide a competent site agent to supervise the building works.
notify the Building Authority of any contravention of the Building
Regulations in connection with the building works.
certify that the building works have been carried out in accordance
with the Buildings Ordinance prior to the application for the
Occupation Permit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
D
30.
Which of the following is not required for a bridge uniting two buildings
without a fire shutter at each end and a by-pass lobby under the Code of
Practice for Fire Resisting Construction (FRC)?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
The bridge is shorter than 18m.
The bridge is constructed wholly of non-combustible materials.
The bridge is open on both sides and with at least 50% of open area.
The bridge is provided at sides with barriers or parapets not higher
than 1.2m.
:
C
Sample Questions for Paper 2 Building Contracts, Professional Practice,
Professional Conduct, Conditions of Agreement & Scale of Charges
In all cases, the term “Building Contract” shall mean the “Agreement and Schedule of
Conditions of Building Contract (With Quantities) (2005 edition) and (Without
Quantities) (2006 edition)” and “Standard Form of Building Contract” unless stated
otherwise.
1.
The Architect’s duty as agent of the Employer commences when he
A.
B.
C.
D.
is instructed to invite tenders on behalf of the Employer.
is instructed to assume a supervising role empowered under the
Conditions of Contract.
enters into agreement with the Employer and proceeds to the
feasibility stage of the works.
proceeds to general building plan preparation and submits them to
the Buildings Department.
Ans.
:
2.
Which of the following acts by an HKIA member is considered in breach of
the Code of Professional Conduct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans.
:
A
Working as in-house Architect for a developer and preparing
design sketches for him.
Disclosing information of an on-going project to a building journal
without prior consent of the Client.
Submitting an office brochure with perspectives and designs of
completed projects to potential clients.
Inquiring about the fee scale of another Architect quoting for the
same project before submitting his own fee proposal.
D
Sample question 2012 – Paper 2 Building Contracts, Professional Practice, Professional
Conduct, Conditions of Agreement & Scale of Charges
3.
A Client intends to appoint you as Architect for a project, of which the
foundation system has been completed under the supervision of another
Architect. Which of the following action(s) should you take prior to your
acceptance of the appointment?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Notify the other Architect in writing.
Obtain the other Architect’s permission for the use of the
foundation design in the remaining part of the project.
Ensure that the Client has settled all fees for the services given by
the previous Architect.
Request the other Architect to confirm in writing that he consents to
your taking up the project.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) only
(1) and (2) only
(2) and (4) only
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans.
:
B
4.
If a date for completion of the Works is set out in the Appendix but time for
completion of the Contract is “set at large” by a delaying event, the date for
completion will be
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a reasonable time.
the date for completion included in the Appendix.
a date fixed by the Employer after consideration of all events.
the date for completion included in the Appendix plus any
extension of time granted by the Architect for the delaying event.
:
A
5.
When assessing a claim for an extension of time, the Architect is obliged to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
follow any instruction or opinion provided by the Employer.
disregard the views of the Employer and Contractor.
act fairly and independently between the Employer and Contractor.
follow the reasoning submitted by the Contractor only.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (3) only
(2) and (3) only
(2) and (4) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans.
:
B
6.
If the Architect properly issues a Certificate of Delay under Clause 24
(Damages for non-completion) but subsequently grants an extension of time
to the Contractor, the Certificate that he has issued
A.
B.
C.
D.
remains effective.
is automatically cancelled.
remains effective for a reasonable time.
is cancelled only if and when a new certificate is issued.
Ans.
:
B
7.
Which of the following shall form part of a Building Contract?
Ans.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Letter of award
Technical specification
Master programme submitted during the tender
Method statement submitted during the tender
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) only
(2) and (3) only
(1) and (2) only
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
:
C
8.
Which of the following Architect’s Instructions to the Contractor is not
empowered by the Conditions in the Standard Form of Building Contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Instructing additional works after Substantial Completion.
Postponing the carrying out of some portion of the works.
Rescheduling of works sequence to suit the Employer’s sales
campaign.
Removing a domestic sub-contractor employed by the Main
Contractor for the works.
Ans.
:
9.
If a minor arithmetical error is found in the lowest returned tender, which of
the following statements is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
C
The tenderer shall be allowed to correct the error.
There is no need to inform the tenderer that he has made an error
in the tender.
The tenderer must be informed about the error and requested to
abide by the tender sum.
All the other tenderers shall be informed about the error made by
the lowest tenderer and ask them to review if there is any error in
their tenders.
Ans.
:
10.
During a routine site inspection, the Architect suspects one of the
construction elements is not constructed in accordance with Contract
requirement. Which of the following is not empowered by the Contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans.
:
B
Issue an Architect’s Instruction to remove the work from the site.
Issue instruction to open up the work for inspection and tests.
Call in independent parties for testing and seek remedial proposal
from Contractor.
Advise Employer to terminate the Contract with the Contractor and
engage another Contractor to finish the project.
D
11.
Under which of the following situations is the Main Contractor not entitled to
an Extension of Time under the Contract?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Site Possession date was postponed by 1 week.
A group of villagers blocked off the site access for two weeks,
claiming that the Works affected the “fung shui” of their village.
Construction works was suspended by one month due to problems
with the Contractor’s department for concreting work.
Black Rainstorm Signal was on for two days during the concreting
stage of the works.
Ans.
:
12.
Under Clause 41 (Settlement of Disputes), Mediation is
A.
B.
C.
D.
C
mandatory.
to be followed if the Architect instructs a Mediation.
an option open to the parties if either party gives notice requesting
Mediation.
an option open to the parties only if the Employer gives notice
requesting Mediation.
Ans.
:
13.
Tender documents for a “design and build” Contract shall consist of
Ans.
C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Specifications.
Performance Requirements.
Bills of Quantities.
Tender drawings.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(2) only
(1) and (3) only
(1), (2) and (4) only
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
:
C
14.
The Contract Conditions cannot be altered except by
A.
B.
C.
D.
instructions issued by the Architect.
the Employer unilaterally serving a written notice to the Contractor.
a mutual agreement between the Employer and the Contractor
through the signing of a supplementary agreement.
an Arbitrator appointed jointly by the Employer and the Contractor.
Ans.
:
C
15.
Upon issuing the Final Certificate, which of the following will take effect?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The Contractor is no longer liable for any defects.
The Contractor is still liable for defects under warranty.
The Extension of Time application has been concluded.
The additional payment for direct loss and/or expense has been
settled.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(3) and (4) only
(1), (3) and (4) only
(2), (3) and (4) only
Ans.
:
D
16.
The total construction cost on which the percentage fees are based shall
exclude
A.
B.
Ans.
C.
D.
work done by specialist sub-contractors.
work carried out under separate building contract but designed by
a consultant whose input the Architect is responsible for
coordinating.
materials supplied directly by the Client.
specialist sub-contractor’s design fee.
:
D
17.
Which of the following can be regarded as negligence of the Architect in
providing service?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Failure to supply timely information to the Contractor, giving rise to
claim by the Contractor against the Client.
Failure to supervise the Contractor to ensure the completion of the
Works within the Contract Period.
Failure to detect defective works during construction and before
issue of Final Certificate.
Failure to identify discrepancies on shop drawings submitted by a
specialist subcontractor leading to substandard performance and
damages.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
(2) and (4) only
Ans.
:
B
18.
The use of a limited company to enter into service agreements with Clients
will relieve the Architect from
A.
B.
C.
D.
third-party liability under the Law of Tort.
professional liability pursuable as disciplinary offence.
statutory liability under the Buildings Ordinance.
personal contractual liability to Clients.
Ans.
:
D
19.
The Architect has rendered services up to Stage ‘D’ (Design Stage) under
the HKIA Agreement Between Client & Architect, and intends to terminate
his engagement. Which of the following is specifically prescribed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans.
:
The Architect has to give the Employer a reasonable notice stating
the cause of termination.
The Employer is entitled to use the drawings to complete the work
provided the outstanding fee has been settled.
Upon settlement of outstanding fee to the Architect, the copyright of
the design shall be assigned to the Employer.
Correspondence and other documents exchanged between the
Architect and Statutory Authorities in connection with the approval
of plans remain as property of the Architect.
B
20.
Which of the following is considered not in breach of the HKIA Code of
Professional Conduct on the part of the Architect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To exclude his contractual liability for consequential loss in his
engagement with Client.
To sub-contract part of the design works to another Architect who
has better expertise in a particular building type without prior
consent from Client.
To provide an alternative design to demonstrate merit over another
Architect’s design in an attempt to get the job.
To tender for the Building Contract of which he has been engaged
as Architect.
Ans.
:
21.
Your scope of services in a residential project requires you to design the
interior of the clubhouse, for which you have appointed an interior designer
to be your sub-consultant. You are required to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans.
:
A
ensure that the conditions of engagement with the interior
designer’s appointment is in accordance with the HKIA Standard
Agreement.
furnish the HKIA with details of the appointment if the conditions of
appointment differ from those of the HKIA Agreement between
Client and Architect and Scale of Professional Charges.
seek the Client’s prior agreement to this sub-commissioning
arrangement.
do nothing as the interior sub-consultant is contractually
responsible to you only.
C
22.
The Contractor can make objection to the nomination of a sub-contract if
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
the sub-contractor has a poor safety record.
there are reasonable grounds for believing that the sub-contractor
is in financial problem.
there are reasonable grounds for believing that the tender sum is
not financially viable.
the programme for carrying out the sub-contract works is
unreasonable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
None of the above
(1) only
(1), (2) and (3) only
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans.
:
D
23.
If the Employer is responsible for a delay to the completion of the Works
and the Contractor is, in principle, entitled to an Extension of Time, can the
Architect instruct the Contractor to adopt delay recovery measures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is an implied term in the Contract permitting the Architect to
instruct the Contractor to do so.
The Architect does not have the power to instruct the Contractor to
do so.
The Architect has express power under the Contract to instruct the
Contractor to do so.
The Employer may directly instruct the Contractor to do so without
going through the Architect.
Ans.
:
24.
If liquidated damages supported by a Certificate of Delay to the Completion
of the Works may be deducted, the decision whether to deduct such
liquidated damages rests on
Ans.
C
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Architect.
the Employer.
the Quantity Surveyor.
any of the Architect, the Employer or the Quantity Surveyor.
:
B
25.
As a matter of general principle, when assessing extension of time (EOT)
the Architect
A.
B.
C.
D.
must act in accordance with the views of the Employer as he is the
agent of the Employer and paid by him.
should preferably follow the views of the Employer, as far as
possible.
shall act independently exercising his professional judgement.
must discuss the Contractor’s views with the Employer on a
regular basis and then negotiate an appropriate EOT with the
Contractor.
Ans.
:
26.
The Architect grants an EOT to the Contractor after issuing a Certificate of
Non-completion under Clause 24.1.1. Therefore, the Certificate
A.
B.
C.
C
D.
still remains valid.
will be cancelled only if and when a new certificate is issued.
remains effective until the date of the next Interim Payment
Certificate when it is automatically cancelled.
is automatically cancelled.
Ans.
:
D
27.
The liquidated damages set out in the Appendix to the Contract should be
A.
D.
within 10% of the actual damages or loss the Employer is likely to
suffer.
a provisional figure which the Architect can adjust when the actual
loss suffered by the Employer can be determined.
a genuine pre-estimate of the loss likely to be suffered by the
Employer.
the same as the Employer’s anticipated loss.
:
C
B.
C.
Ans.
28.
If the Architect values a variation at HK$400,000 which is then paid but in a
subsequent arbitration the Arbitrator awards a higher figure in respect of the
variation (HK$500,000), the Arbitrator
A.
B.
C.
D.
cannot award interest on the additional HK$100,000.
can award interest on the additional HK$100,000 but calculated
only from the Date of Notice of Arbitration.
can award interest from a date he considers appropriate.
can award interest but this must be from the date of the first
application for payment of the variation.
Ans.
:
29.
Under which of the following circumstances can the Architect serve notice
to initiate the determination of the Contractor? The Contractor
(1)
(2)
(4)
suspended all site activities after Substantial Completion.
sub-let a large portion of the Works to another Contractor without
prior written consent from the Architect.
failed to act on the Architect’s Instruction for opening up for
inspection of suspected defective works.
entered into voluntary liquidation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(2) and (3) only
(2) and (4) only
(3) and (4) only
:
C
(3)
Ans.
C
30.
Ans.
The remeasurement of provisional quantities in the bills of quantities shall
be based on
A.
B.
C.
D.
the first set of construction drawings.
the latest drawings issued by the Architect.
the as-built drawings.
actual work constructed on site.
:
B
Sample Questions for Paper 3 – Building Structures 1.
Load path is one of the key considerations in structural design, and it is about
how to bring the load acting on the building
A.
B.
C.
D.
to the building façade.
to the ground / foundation.
to the columns.
to the beams.
Ans
:
B
2.
End enlargements or bellout in piles are
A.
B.
C.
D.
used to increase frictional resistance.
used to increase end-bearing resistance.
more suitable in driven rather than bored piles.
used to prevent water penetration from artesian pressure.
Ans
:
B
3.
In general, which of the following foundation systems gives the largest
founding capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bored pile on rock
Driven H-pile
Mini-pile on rock
Shallow raft foundation
Ans
:
A
4.
Which of the following statements is not true about a framed-tube structural
system for tall buildings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans
:
This system requires closely spaced perimeter columns.
The shear lag phenomenon occurs in this system.
This system achieves an interior floor plan relatively free of core
bracing and large columns.
The perimeter structure primarily resists vertical loads while the core
primarily takes the lateral loads.
D
Sample question 2011 – Paper 3 Building Structures
Which of the following steel sections is most ideal for resisting torsion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Channel section
H section
T – section
Circular hollow section
Ans
:
D
6.
Which of the following reinforced concrete beam slab floors would be
considered an effective two-way system?
A
B
Ans
:
7.
The main function of a transfer slab is to
A.
C
D
C
B.
C.
D.
transfer column loads from above to widely spaced piers or
mega-columns below.
transfer mechanical services such as HVAC conduits.
transfer passengers between express lifts and local lifts.
transfer lateral loads to outrigger trusses and super columns.
Ans
:
A
8.
In general, which of the following gives a stiffer column section assuming all
are of the same dimension?
A.
B.
D.
Plain concrete column
Reinforced concrete column of 4% reinforcement ratio and
normal-strength concrete
Reinforced concrete column of 4% reinforcement ratio and
high-strength concrete
Composite column of 10% structural steel section
:
D
C.
Ans
For a 30-storey commercial building with a central core, which of the following
is the most common lateral force resisting system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bearing- and shear-wall system
Truss-wall frame
Tubular frame
Core and frame
Ans
:
D
10.
Which of the following is considered to be a rigid connection?
A. Bolted at
web of beam
B. Precast
C. Column welded
to base plate
D. Sliding
joint
Ans
:
11.
According to the Building Regulations, which of the following building types /
spaces by occupancy has the highest uniform imposed load?
Ans
C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Banking hall
General office
Hotel guestroom
School classroom
:
A
Which of the following statements regarding wind loads is not true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wind pressure varies with building height.
Wind pressure varies with building shape and degree of exposure.
Suction forces due to wind are very small and therefore negligible.
The use of dampers is a means of resisting dynamic effects of wind.
Ans
:
C
13.
A building subject to a horizontal force (F) results in a displacement (D).
force is now increased to 2F, what will be the displacement D?
A.
B.
C.
D.
D will increase proportionally.
D will increase unproportionally.
D will decrease proportionally.
D will be unchanged.
Ans
:
A
14.
Stiffness (K) defines the relationship between the applied load (F) and the
displacement (D). For a column, the column stiffness (Kc) is defined as
Where :
Ans
E – elastic modulus of the column material
A – cross sectional area of column
L – length of column
A.
B.
C.
D.
(E x A) / L
A/L
L / (E x A)
L/E
:
A
If the
Sample Questions for Paper 3 – Building Structures Refer to the diagrams of a beam below to answer Questions 15 to 17, where w is a
uniform distributed load and P is a point load.
e f g h A
B
C
D
15.
For the beam supported and loaded as shown, which of the diagrams from A to D
represents its shear force diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D
Ans
:
A
16.
For the beam supported and loaded as shown, which of the diagrams from A to D
represents its bending moment diagram?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D
:
D
If this is a reinforced concrete beam, at which point along its length will require
tension reinforcements at the top of the beam?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Point e
Point f
Point g
Point h
Ans
:
C
18.
Which of the following is not a factor in the choice of a foundation system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Geographical location.
Below ground soil conditions.
The weight of the building and all applied loads.
The proximity of adjacent buildings.
Ans
:
A
19.
Concrete is strong in compression and weak in tension, and steel is
A.
B.
C.
D.
similar to concrete.
strong in both compression and tension.
weak in compression and strong in tension.
weak in both compression and tension in comparison with concrete.
Ans
:
B
20.
The role of stirrups in reinforced concrete beams includes the following except
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
to provide shear reinforcement.
to arrest the development of diagonal tension cracking.
to provide torsion reinforcement when stirrups are in closed configuration.
to provide compression reinforcement.
:
D
The purpose of the raised profiles on ribbed reinforcement bars is
A.
B.
C.
D.
to create a mechanical interlock between the concrete and the steel bar.
to provide more surface area for the cohesion of the cement onto the bar.
to serve as an edge that catches the reinforcement ties and prevents them
from slipping along the bar.
to provide a non-smooth surface on the bars that makes handling and lifting
easier.
Ans
:
A
22.
The diaphragm action of a floor or roof system refers to
A.
B.
C.
D.
the manner in which it transfers gravity loads to columns and walls.
the manner in which it transfers lateral loads to shear walls or frames.
the resistance to uplift forces of wind.
the vibration caused by impact loads.
Ans
:
B
23.
Which of the following about core and outrigger tall structures is not true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans
:
Core and outrigger structures are lateral resisting systems normally capable
of supporting buildings much taller than normal moment resisting frames or
braced frames.
Core and outrigger structures allow clear spans between cores and external
structure columns thereby allowing flexible planning of those spaces.
Outrigger trusses or girders can be two or more storeys deep and often
allocated as mechanical equipment floors, elevator transfer floors, or refuge
floors.
Core and outrigger tall structures are only appropriate for buildings with
square plans.
D
In which of the following arrangements will the forces of all the internal diagonal
web members of the truss be tension?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans
:
25.
Which of the following structures derives its stiffness and stability from synclastic
curvature?
Ans
C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dome
Stretched membrane
Barrel Shell
Folded plate
:
A
Which of the following structures derives its stiffness and stability from anticlastic
curvature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Barrel Shell
Folded plate
Dome
Stretched membrane
Ans
:
D
27.
Which of the following is not a one-way long-span structure?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Barrel Shell
Deep steel plate girder
Space frame
Folded plate
:
C
Refer to the diagram of the pin-connected truss below with a point load P to answer
Questions 28 to 30.
28.
Ans
Which truss member is a zero-force member?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
7
:
A
Which truss member is in tension?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
5
6
8
Ans
:
C
30.
Which truss member is in compression?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
3
6
7
:
B
Sample Questions for Paper 4 Building Services & Environmental Controls
Basic Principle
1.
Which of the following is fundamental in preventing the spread of legionnaires’
disease in building services installations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using CFC refrigerants for chiller plants
Using single-stack drainage system to avoid cross contamination
Using water strainers to filter the incoming water at the supply mains
Carrying out regular inspection and maintenance to the water-cooled
air-conditioning plants
Ans
:
D
2.
Which of the following can only generate “sensible heat” (rather than “latent
heat”) inside a building?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coffee maker
Taking a shower
Heat generated by light bulb
Body heat generated by occupants
Ans.
:
C
3.
What does the unit W /m²K in respect of the performance of building materials
refer to?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shading coefficient
Energy efficiency ratio
Thermal transmittance
Life cycle assessment analysis
:
C
Sustainable Design & Environmental Issues
4.
Which of the following is not an assessment criteria for green assessment
system BEAM Plus?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cost effectiveness
Barrier-free access
Life Cycle Assessment
Nature Outlook Assessment
:
A
Sample question 2011 – Paper 4 Building Services & Environmental Controls
5.
Which of the following is least effective to reduce “heat island effects” in
designing an open air car parking lot?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using natural asphalt for paving
Planting trees to provide shading
Providing a roof cover of high solar reflectance
Laying a lawn with traffickable open-grid paving
Ans
:
A
6.
The glazing that gives the lowest OTTV is
A.
B.
C.
D.
skylight with double glazing.
west facing single glazed window
east facing single glazed window
south facing single glazed window
Ans.
:
D
7.
Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Air Ventilation
Assessment (AVA) Studies for a new building development?
A.
C.
D.
Computational fluid dynamics analysis can check the wind
permeabilities at difference levels.
Wind tunnel test must be carried out on a scaled model in order to get a
more accurate result.
Pedestrian comfort is the main objective of the AVA study.
Landscaping is not taken into account normally.
Ans.
:
D
8.
Which of the following is not a benchmark for environmental performance
assessment?
B.
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
LEED
BEAM
GBTools
Gini coefficient
:
D
9.
Ans.
Which of the following are the underlying criteria for achieving a “carbon neutral”
building?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
limiting energy consumption.
stopping any carbon emissions.
adopting a renewable energy source.
keeping its carbon footprint within a pre-set limit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (3) only.
(1) and (4) only.
(2) and (3) only.
(2) and (4) only
:
A
Ventilating Air Conditioning & Heat
10.
Which of the following is true for underfloor air conditioning system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It uses more fan power.
It is not suitable for winter heating.
The circulated comfort zone covers the finished floor to the false ceiling.
It is more effective than the conventional air conditioning system when
used in a computer data centre.
Ans.
:
D
11.
The heat rejection capacity of the cooling tower system of a hotel is estimated to
be 600 TR. What is the optimum choice for the cooling tower?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 no. of 600 TR package cooling tower
1 no. of 900 TR package cooling tower
2 nos. of 450 TR package cooling tower
3 nos. of 300 TR package cooling tower
Ans.
:
D
12.
Which of the following actions may best help maintain human comfort even in an
increased indoor temperature?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lowering the humidity
Re-circulating the air supply
Lowering the lighting intensity
Increasing the ventilation rate
:
A
Fire Safety
Which of the following premises should be provided with smoke extraction
13.
system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dangerous goods store
Double-storey carpark basement
Atrium with a compartment volume of 20,000m³
Hotel guest rooms’ common internal corridor with fixed windows
Ans.
:
D
14.
Which of the following does not affect the sizing of sprinkler water tanks in Hong
Kong?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Type of building
Occupancy of building
Direct fire link to fire station
Number of water source or supply
Ans.
:
B
15.
Which of the following are valid benefits of FM200 system, which is commonly
adopted as the fire-fighting provision for computer centres?
Ans
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Plant room is not a must.
Water is not necessary for fire fighting.
Easy to reinstate the system after false alarm.
Less expensive than pre-action sprinkler system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
:
A
Pipe & Drainage
16.
Which of the following pipes without internal lining is not acceptable to the Water
Authority for use as cold/hot/salt water inside service within a building?
A.
B.
C.
D.
uPVC pipe
Copper pipe
Cast iron pipe
Galvanized steel pipe
Ans
:
D
17.
Which of the following is not correct according to the Water Authority’s
requirements on water flushing device?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Valveless syphonic type is acceptable.
Dual-flush may be provided by the valveless-type device.
Valve-type is acceptable if the flushing volume is kept within 7.5 litres.
It is possible to use valve-type flushing device triggered by infra-red
sensor.
B
Ans.
:
18.
Which of the following plumbing installations is not acceptable to the Water
Authority?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using cast iron pipe in a cold/salt water inside service.
Drinking fountain connected to the mains water supply system.
Branching of water supply pipe downstream of the water meter.
Installation of water filter in the water tank at roof with non-return valve
upstream of the filter.
:
B
Electrical
Which of the following combinations reflects the commonly recommended
19.
lighting intensities in line with the design guide of the Chartered Institution of
Building Services Engineers (CIBSE)?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Offices
200 lux
300 lux
400 lux
500 lux
:
D
Fire Escape Stairs
30 lux
50 lux
80 lux
100 lux
20.
Which of the following are correct as an energy efficient measure on lighting
installation?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Replace “thin” fluorescent tube (T5 lamp) with “fat” tube (T8 lamp)
Replace incandescent lamp with compact fluorescent lamp
Replace conventional exit sign with LED exit sign
Use motion sensor as an on/off control
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(3) and (4) only
(1), (2) and (3) only
(2), (3) and (4) only
Ans
:
D
21.
Which of the following services provision is not required for Main Switch Room?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanical ventilation
Lighting
Gas flooding protection
Equipotential bonding
:
C
Lifts & Escalators
A lift machine room shall be designed
22.
A.
B.
C.
D.
to be accessible from common area.
with access complying with the minimum standard prescribed under
Code of Practices for Means of Escape.
with a minimum clear headroom of 2.3 m.
to be protected by fire sprinklers.
Ans.
:
A
23.
What is the minimum clear headroom of escalator measured at the edge of steps
to ceiling above?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.0 m
2.1 m
2.3 m
2.5 m
:
C
24.
Ans.
Which of the following parameters does not affect the lift waiting time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rated load
Number of stops
Door closing time
Handling capacity
:
A
Acoustics
The most effective design solution to mitigate traffic noise impact to a low rise
25.
residential development adjacent to a major highway is to provide
A.
B.
C.
D.
a row of tall trees at the site boundary as noise barrier.
a commercial podium as noise barrier with the residential development
set back from the podium edge.
balcony as noise barrier
window sill as noise barrier
Ans.
:
B
26.
Which of the following is not conducive to enhancing the sound insulation
property of a window?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increasing the U-value of the window assembly.
Increasing the air gap width of double-glazed window.
Increasing the glass thickness of single-glazed window.
Using unequal glass thicknesses for the two glass panes of
double-glazed window.
Ans.
:
A
27.
Which of the following is not considered as an effective way of reducing noise
nuisance from construction activities?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use of hydraulic crushers
Adoption of percussive piling
Disposal of rubble through plastic chutes
Erection of acoustic barriers around the construction site
:
B
Miscellaneous
Which of the following represents the inverted cone of order of desirability as
28.
summarized by the Environmental Protection Department for managing
construction and demolition wastes in Hong Kong?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Avoid – Minimise – Recycle – Treat – Dispose
Redesign – Reuse – Recycle – Retreat – Landfill
Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Refill – Redesign
Reduce – Reuse – Rehabilitate – Recycle – Landfill
Ans.
:
A
29.
Given the same thickness of typical wall or roof construction, which of the
following has the lowest value of transmission co-efficient (i.e. U value)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
concrete with cement sand plaster
brick with cement sand plaster
timber panel
metal panel with fibre glass
Ans.
:
D
30.
The main objective of producing combined building services drawing is to
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
provide a useful tool for maintenance in the related inside services
identify the problematic areas for services and structural co-ordination
help finalise the schematic designs of all related building services trades
show all related services elements on one drawing for ease of
inspection
:
B
Sample Questions for Paper 5 Building Materials and Technology
1.
Which of the following paints are most suitable to be applied on
galvanized steel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aluminum paint as finishing coat and aluminum primer.
Lacquer as finishing coat on red lead primer.
Emulsion paint as finishing coat and prime lime as primer.
Synthetic paint as finishing coat and calcium plumbate as primer.
Ans.
:
D
2.
To apply for consent from the Building Authority, the quality assurance
scheme for Precast Concrete Construction should include
A.
B.
C.
D.
test for chlorides in water.
frequency of audit by qualified quantity surveyor.
efficiency and proper operation of equipment at the casting yard.
calibration of laboratory equipment for measurement of
quantities.
Ans.
:
C
3.
What is the most appropriate timing for applying spatterdash to a concrete
wall after striking of formwork?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 days later
3 days later
5 days later
7 days later
:
A
Sample questions 2012 – Paper 5 Building Materials & Technology
Answer questions 4 – 8 based on the following external wall section detail for a
high-rise building.
4.
Ans.
What is the system for building enclosure as shown in the drawing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Window-wall system
Stick curtain-wall system
Unitized curtain-wall system
Suspended glass-wall system
:
C
5.
What does the annotation “a” represent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Durasteel panel
Thermal insulation
Waterproofing board
Metal honeycomb panel
Ans.
:
B
6.
Which surface of the insulated glass unit is most suitable and effective for
application of the low-e coating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
Ans.
:
B
7.
In consideration of wind load and safety, what is the most appropriate
glass type for the outer glass panel of the insulated glass unit annotated
“b”?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Float glass
Acrylic glass
Laminated glass
Heat strengthened glass
Ans.
:
D
8.
What is the minimum dimension annotated “H” for fire safety?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
600mm
750mm
900mm
1100mm
:
C
9.
Which of the following is not an advantage of prefabrication in
construction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quick assembling and installation on site.
Large amount of cost saving compared with in situ construction.
Suitable for mass production of standardized modules and
components.
Better quality control can be achieved by means of factory
prefabrication.
Ans.
:
B
10.
Tolerance limits for construction are usually stated in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
wall sections.
specifications.
bills of quantities.
production drawings.
Ans.
:
B
11.
Which of the following is not an acceptable risk for demolition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cutting up the concrete structural frame
Piling up heavy loads of debris on unused floors
Removal of building component containing asbestos
Keeping the existing trees on the pavement with the hoarding
Ans.
:
B
12.
Which of the following is used to determine the consistency of fresh
concrete?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slump test
Hammer test
Crushing test
Concrete test cubes
:
A
13.
Which of the following is not correct for tests on concrete core samples?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The concrete cores should not show sign of segregation or
honeycomb.
A minimum of one set of core samples should be taken every two
floors.
A person independent from the contractor is required to supervise
the drilling of core sample.
The diameter of concrete cores to be taken depends on the size of
concrete aggregates.
Ans.
:
B
14.
In the pattern or bond in brickwork, the best practical lap to the bricks
A.
B.
C.
D.
is given by the Irish Bond.
is required for rake-out joints.
will cater for the tolerance of 20mm.
should not be less than a quarter of a brick length.
Ans.
:
D
15.
Which of the following is commonly used as sealant for uPVC windows ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Silicone
Acrylics
Structural butyls
Oil-based caulking
Ans.
:
A
16.
Which of the following provides a nearly undistorted vision?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Float glass
Sheet glass
Wired glass
Tempered glass
:
A
17.
Which of the following is not a testing method commonly applied to a
curtain wall system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air infiltration test
Glass panel pull-out test
Water infiltration test under dynamic pressure
Safety test by means of cyclic test or static load test
Ans.
:
B
18.
As a defect of plasterwork, efflorescence is
A.
B.
C.
D.
inevitable due to the nature of the plaster.
caused by water absorption in the background.
due to relative movement between different plaster coats.
caused by water transmitting the soluble salts from the
background.
Ans.
:
D
19.
Which of the following does not require submission to the Buildings
Department for approval?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans.
:
Glass shop front at ground floor with design span of 8m.
Window wall system with a structural opening of 2m x 1.2m.
Window at a location where the design wind pressure is greater
than 2.86kPa.
Stone cladding works at external walls of a ground floor with area
4m high x 6m long.
D
20.
Ans.
Which of the following is represented by the following isometric diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Skylight
Suspension glass details
Environmental screen for windows
Unitized glazing panels in curtain wall
:
B
Answer questions 21 to 23 by referring to the following typical roofing detail.
21.
What does the annotation “a” represent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rockwool
Rigid insulation
Metal honeycomb panel
Marine grade plywood board
Ans.
:
B
22.
What does the annotation “b” represent?
Ans.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Drainage layer
Light weight concrete fill
Cement lime screed laid to fall
Cement sand screed laid to fall
:
D
23.
Ans.
What is the appropriate minimum dimension annotated “c”?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50mm
150mm
300mm
400mm
:
B
Answer questions 24 to 26 by referring to the following free-standing glass protective
barrier section detail.
24.
Ans.
Under the Building (Construction) Regulations, a protective barrier will be
required where there is a difference in adjacent levels of greater than
A.
B.
C.
D.
450mm
600mm
900mm
1100mm
:
B
25.
What is the suitable glass type for the glass panel annotated “a” for such
protective barrier mentioned in Question 24?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Float glass
Wired glass
Tempered glass
Low iron float glass
Ans.
:
C
26.
What is the minimum required height for the dimension annotated “b” for
such protective barrier mentioned in question 24?
A.
B.
C.
D.
900mm
1000mm
1100mm
1200mm
Ans.
:
C
27.
Arrange the following tasks in the most appropriate sequence for
top-down construction of a 3-level basement.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(5)
(6)
Pile test
Construction of ground beam
Superstructure construction and top-down basement construction
simultaneously
Construction of vertical structural members from pile cap to ground
slab level
Construction of piles
Pile cap construction
A.
B.
C.
D.
(3), (5), (4), (6), (1), (2)
(5), (6), (1), (4), (3), (2)
(5), (1), (6), (4), (2), (3)
(3), (5), (6), (1), (4), (2)
:
C
(4)
Ans.
28.
Which of the following is a requirement for transformer room?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The doors must face into an unobstructed space.
Location of transformer rooms must be at street level.
Fire resisting period requirement of the room may be exempted.
The doors of the room located above ground level when open
outwards over a street should be at a height of not less than 3.5m.
Ans.
:
A
29.
What aspects of works are better described by means of specifications
than drawings?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Dimensions and shape
Construction tolerances
Quality and acceptance criteria
Disposition and arrangement of components in a construction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
(1) and (2) only
(1) and (4) only
(2) and (3) only
(3) and (4) only
Ans
:
C
30.
Which of the following is not suitable for wet-fixed tiles on external walls?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans
:
Tiles with good water absorption
Tiles of size 300mm x 600mm fixed by mechanical means
Joints not allowed to be greater than 3mm to avoid water
penetration
Spatterdash applied to substrate within 1 day after removal of
formwork
C

HKIA/ARB Professional Assessment Sample Questions

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